ఏపీపీఎస్సీ గ్రూప్-1 ప్రిలిమ్స్ 1987

145 ప్రశ్నలు, ప్రతిదానికి అధికారిక సమాధానం మరియు వివరణ.

ఒకే ప్రశ్న పలు సంవత్సరాల్లో వస్తే, మొదటిసారి అడిగిన సంవత్సరం కింద చూపిస్తాం.

41. Q41Living traditions: temples, communities and social custom

    Where is the famous Shiva Lingam that is seen with a thief?

    • aAmaravati
    • bDraksharama
    • cGudimallamసరైన సమాధానం
    • dSrisailam
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the renowned Parasurameswara temple at Gudimallam houses an ancient Shiva Lingam depicting Shiva standing atop a dwarf yaksha, locally and traditionally identified as a thief or hunter. Option A: Amaravati is home to the tall Amareswara lingam along the Krishna river, which lacks this unique carved form. Option B: Draksharama houses a towering Shiva Lingam that does not bear the anthropomorphic carving found at Gudimallam. Option D: Srisailam is a Jyotirlinga shrine where the presiding lingam is not carved with this anthropomorphic figure.

42. Q42Amendment and the basic structure

    The subject related to the 59th Constitutional Amendment

    • aFor the purpose of preventing unrest in the countryసరైన సమాధానం
    • bFor the purpose of amending the M.R.T.P. Act
    • cFor the purpose of the Benami Transactions Act
    • dFor the purpose of distribution of Central and State funds
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the 59th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 was enacted to curb severe internal unrest and terrorism in Punjab by enabling the declaration of Emergency on the ground of internal disturbance. Option B: regulating monopolies and restrictive trade practices was governed by ordinary statutory legislation, not by this constitutional amendment. Option C: prohibition of benami transactions was accomplished via an ordinary Act of Parliament in 1988, not a constitutional amendment. Option D: allocation of financial resources between the Union and the States falls under Articles 270 through 280, not the 59th Amendment.

43. Q43The Union executive

    The Vice-President of India is elected by

    • aMembers of the State Legislature
    • bMembers of both Houses of Parliamentసరైన సమాధానం
    • cThe people of India
    • dMembers of the Lok Sabha
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because under Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of all members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members. Option A: Includes state legislators who have no role in the Vice-Presidential electoral college. Option C: Asserts direct popular election, whereas the Vice-President is chosen indirectly through an electoral college. Option D: Omits the Rajya Sabha, whose members are an equal and integral component of the electoral college.

44. Q44Parliament and the state legislatures

    To be elected to the Lok Sabha, an Indian citizen must

    • abe over twenty-one years old
    • bbe a member of any political party
    • cbe a person over thirty-five years old
    • dbe twenty-five years of ageసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because Article 84(b) of the Constitution establishes that a person must be not less than twenty-five years of age to be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha. Article 84(b) sets minimum age limits for Parliament. Minimum age for Lok Sabha: 25 years Minimum age for Rajya Sabha: 30 years Minimum age for local bodies under Articles 243F and 243V: 21 years Option A: specifies 21 years, which qualifies an individual to contest Panchayat and Municipal elections, not Lok Sabha elections. Option B: requires party membership, whereas independent candidates are legally entitled to contest. Option C: specifies 35 years, which applies to elections for President and Vice-President.

45. Q45Parliament and the state legislatures

    In India, the Rajya Sabha

    • acannot be dissolvedసరైన సమాధానం
    • bcan be dissolved once every four years
    • ccan be dissolved by the President of India
    • dcan be dissolved by the Vice-President of India
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because under Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution under any circumstances. Option B: It cannot be dissolved every four years as it is a permanent continuing chamber with staggered retirements. Option C: The President can prorogue or summon the Rajya Sabha, but has no constitutional power to dissolve it. Option D: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and has no power to dissolve the house.

46. Q46Parliament and the state legislatures

    The power to adjourn the Lok Sabha indefinitely is vested in

    • athe President of India
    • bthe Speakerసరైన సమాధానం
    • cthe leader of the party with a majority in the House
    • dnone of the above
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die (indefinitely) belongs exclusively to the presiding officer of the House, who is the Speaker in the Lok Sabha. Option A: The President possesses the power to prorogue and dissolve the House, not to adjourn its sittings. Option C: The leader of the majority party leads the government but has no procedural authority to adjourn proceedings. Option D: Option B correctly identifies the Speaker as the authority holding this power.

47. Q47Parliament and the state legislatures

    The power to adjourn the Lok Sabha indefinitely is under

    • aArticle 19
    • bArticle 13
    • cArticle 32సరైన సమాధానం
    • dArticle 16

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

48. Q48The judiciary

    Lok Adalat is

    • aa popular drama
    • ba gathered crowd of people
    • can informal judicial bodyసరైన సమాధానం
    • dNone of these
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Lok Adalat is an informal, alternative dispute resolution forum where pending disputes or pre-litigation matters are settled amicably through compromise and conciliation without strict adherence to formal judicial technicalities. Option A: Incorrect because Lok Adalat is a recognized legal forum under the Legal Services Authorities Act, not a theatrical performance or drama. Option B: Incorrect because it is a structured dispute-resolution body, not an unorganized crowd of people. Option D: Incorrect because Option C accurately describes its operational nature.

49. Q49The state government

    To abolish the State Legislative Council

    • aThe State Legislature can do it
    • bIt must be done after a resolution passed by a majority in the State Legislature and approved by Parliamentసరైన సమాధానం
    • cThe Prime Minister can do it
    • dThe Chief Minister can do it
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because under Article 169, a Legislative Council can be abolished by an Act of Parliament only after the Legislative Assembly of the state passes a resolution by a special majority. Option A: The State Legislature cannot abolish it on its own; parliamentary legislation is required. Option C: The Prime Minister has no constitutional power to abolish a state legislative body. Option D: The Chief Minister has no unilateral power to abolish a legislative house.

50. Q50Federalism and centre-state relations

    The subject of law and order is

    • arelated to the stateసరైన సమాధానం
    • brelated to the center
    • ca concurrent subject
    • drelated to none of these
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the subjects constituting law and order, specifically public order and police, are assigned to the state under Entries 1 and 2 of the State List. Entry 1 of the State List: Public order Entry 2 of the State List: Police Option B: Incorrect because primary responsibility for law and order does not belong to the Centre. Option C: Incorrect because neither police nor public order is placed in the Concurrent List. Option D: Incorrect because law and order is an expressly enumerated subject under the State List.

51. Q51Federalism and centre-state relations

    The person who usually presides over the meetings of Zonal Councils is

    • aPrime Minister of India
    • bSpeaker of Lok Sabha
    • cUnion Minister for Home Affairsసరైన సమాధానం
    • dVice President of India
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Section 16 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 provides that the Union Minister for Home Affairs acts as the common Chairman of all Zonal Councils and presides over their meetings. Option A: The Prime Minister of India chairs the Inter-State Council and NITI Aayog, not the Zonal Councils. Option B: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the proceedings of the Lower House of Parliament. Option D: The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and has no presiding authority over Zonal Councils.

52. Q52Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    “Lokpal” is

    • aa platform for extending loans
    • ba meeting for distributing distressed loansసరైన సమాధానం
    • can occasion where the government collects loans from the public
    • dAll of the above

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

53. Q53Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    SDI stands for

    • aStar Warsసరైన సమాధానం
    • bICBM
    • cNuclear weapon
    • dMedium-range missile
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the Strategic Defense Initiative, announced by United States President Ronald Reagan in 1983, was popularly nicknamed Star Wars after the science fiction film franchise. Option B: Incorrect because ICBM stands for Intercontinental Ballistic Missile, which is a type of delivery system rather than the SDI program itself. Option C: Incorrect because a nuclear weapon is a category of weapon of mass destruction, not the expansion or alias of SDI. Option D: Incorrect because Medium-range missile refers to MRBMs, not the SDI missile defense program.

54. Q54Parties, elections and representation

    The political party founded by C. Rajagopalachari

    • aSwarajya Party
    • bSwatantra Partyసరైన సమాధానం
    • cRepublican Party of India
    • dJustice Party
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party in 1959 to champion classical liberalism, private enterprise, and opposition to the socialist economic policies of the Nehru government. Option A: Swarajya Party was founded in 1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. Option C: Republican Party of India was established in 1957 based on the ideals of B. R. Ambedkar. Option D: Justice Party was founded in 1916 by C. Natesa Mudaliar, P. Theagaraya Chetty, and T. M. Nair.

55. Q55India's foreign policy and international relations

    The number of SAARC members

    • aFive
    • bSix
    • cSeven
    • dEightసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because SAARC currently consists of eight member nations after Afghanistan was formally inducted during the 14th SAARC Summit in New Delhi in 2007. Founding members in 1985: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka Eighth member admitted in 2007: Afghanistan Total member count: 8 Option A: Five is an incorrect count; it does not account for the full membership of the grouping. Option B: Six is an incorrect count and omits two member nations. Option C: Seven was the original founding count in 1985, which changed after Afghanistan joined in 2007.

56. Q56What an economy is measured by

    Savings Rate in India is

    • aLess than ten percent
    • bMore than twentyసరైన సమాధానం
    • cApproximately eleven percent
    • dApproximately fifteen percent
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because India's gross domestic savings rate has consistently remained well above twenty percent of GDP over the past several decades, typically fluctuating between twenty-eight and thirty-five percent. Option A: Less than ten percent is wrong because this figure reflects the low savings rates typical of least developed economies, whereas India's rate has been much higher. Option C: Approximately eleven percent is wrong because India crossed this baseline in the early decades after independence. Option D: Approximately fifteen percent is wrong because India moved beyond a fifteen percent savings rate by the 1970s.

57. Q57What an economy is measured by

    During the planning period in India, the share of the tertiary sector (Tertiary sector) in national income

    • agradually decreased
    • bgradually increasedసరైన సమాధానం
    • cremained stable
    • dno major change
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because rapid growth in services such as transport, communications, trade, banking, and public administration continuously expanded the tertiary sector's share in national income throughout the Five-Year Plans. Option A: gradually decreased is incorrect because services experienced rapid expansion rather than contraction. Option C: remained stable is incorrect because the service sector witnessed the most dynamic structural growth across the planning era. Option D: no major change is incorrect because the share rose from under 30 percent in 1950-51 to over 50 percent by the end of the planning era.

58. Q58Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    The Eighth Five-Year Plan focused on this for 'bottom-up' planning.

    • aTaluka
    • bVillage
    • cSamithi(Block)
    • dDistrictసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Eighth Five-Year Plan made the district the key nodal unit for decentralized, bottom-up planning to involve local administration and newly empowered Panchayati Raj institutions. Option A: Taluka was considered a sub-unit for operational administration rather than the primary level for bottom-up plan preparation. Option B: Village assemblies identify micro-level needs, but the comprehensive bottom-up planning framework was institutionalized at the district tier. Option C: Samithi or Block functioned as an intermediary executing agency rather than the principal planning unit recognized in the Eighth Plan.

59. Q59Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    The Planning Commission provides the following sub-plans

    • aFor state-level plans
    • bFor block-level plans (Block level plans)
    • cFor tribal populationసరైన సమాధానం
    • dFor irrigation
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Planning Commission initiated the Tribal Sub-Plan strategy during the Fifth Five Year Plan to channel dedicated budgetary resources exclusively for the socioeconomic development of tribal communities. Option A: State-level plans are independent comprehensive plans rather than sub-plans under the Planning Commission framework. Option B: Block-level planning is a decentralized operational unit of planning, not a targeted sub-plan strategy. Option D: Irrigation receives allocations under sector-specific outlays and mission programs rather than as a dedicated population sub-plan.

60. Q60Population, poverty and work

    The program striving programmatically for the eradication of rural poverty problem is

    • aCommunity Development Prog
    • bCommand Area Development Prog.
    • cRiver Basin Development Program
    • dIntegrated Rural Development Prog.సరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Integrated Rural Development Programme was launched nationwide in 1980 specifically as an individual household-targeted programmatic strategy to lift families above the rural poverty line through subsidized productive assets. Option A: Community Development Prog focused broadly on overall infrastructure and community participation rather than targeted poverty eradication. Option B: Command Area Development Prog focused on irrigation management and agricultural water supply, not rural poverty alleviation. Option C: River Basin Development Program is an environmental and water resource management initiative rather than an anti-poverty intervention.

61. Q61Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Long-term development in the agricultural sector depends on this.

    • aExtensive agriculture
    • bFlood-prone loan supply
    • cCooperative agricultureసరైన సమాధానం
    • dIntensive agriculture and chemical fertilizer industry
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because long-term sustainable agricultural development requires cooperative agriculture to pool land, reduce fragmentation, consolidate resources, and empower small and marginal farmers with scale economies. Option A: Extensive agriculture brings marginal and fragile lands under cultivation, which causes deforestation and land degradation over the long run. Option B: Flood-prone loan supply generates non-performing debt cycles and financial instability rather than sustainable agricultural growth. Option D: Intensive agriculture with chemical fertilizers causes long-term soil toxicity, groundwater depletion, and environmental damage.

62. Q62Industry in the Indian economy

    The year in which the first resolution related to industrial policy was approved by the Parliament in India

    • a1947
    • b1948సరైన సమాధానం
    • c1950
    • d1956
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the Parliament of India approved the first Industrial Policy Resolution in 1948, outlining the economic framework for public and private enterprise participation. 1947: Year of Indian independence 1948: Approval of the first Industrial Policy Resolution 1950: Establishment of the Planning Commission 1956: Adoption of the second major Industrial Policy Resolution Option A: 1947 was the year of independence, and the national industrial policy had not yet been drafted or presented. Option C: 1950 saw the formation of the Planning Commission and the adoption of the Constitution, not the initial industrial policy. Option D: 1956 was the year of the second comprehensive Industrial Policy Resolution, not the first.

63. Q63External sector and the world economy

    'Economic Sanction' means

    • aAid/Grant
    • bAvoiding trade relationsసరైన సమాధానం
    • cImposition of penalties
    • dDemanding compensation

    అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

64. Q64External sector and the world economy

    The reason for changes in Indian exports is

    • aTraditional exports
    • bAgricultural expansion
    • cEngineering goodsసరైన సమాధానం
    • dCottage industries
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the structural shift in India's export basket from primary goods to manufactured commodities has been led by engineering goods, which now constitute the single largest contributor to merchandise exports. Option A: Traditional exports like tea, jute, and textiles have seen a relative decline as a share of overall export revenue. Option B: Agricultural exports have grown in volume but their relative percentage share in the overall basket has diminished over decades of industrialisation. Option D: Cottage industries produce high-value handicrafts but contribute a very small fraction to India's total export volumes.

65. Q65External sector and the world economy

    Special Drawing Rights were given to improve Liquidity by

    • aUnited States of America
    • bIndia
    • cEngland
    • dIMFసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) were created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 as an international reserve asset to supplement member countries' official reserves and enhance global liquidity. Option A: United States of America issues US Dollars for national and international use, not SDRs. Option B: India is an IMF member country holding SDRs, not the issuing entity. Option C: England issues the British Pound through the Bank of England and does not create SDRs.

66. Q66The Earth in the solar system

    The planet with the smallest diameter.

    • aMars
    • bMercuryసరైన సమాధానం
    • cJupiter
    • dVenus
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because Mercury has an equatorial diameter of about 4,879 kilometers, making it the smallest planet in the solar system since Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet. Mercury diameter: approximately 4,879 kilometers Mars diameter: approximately 6,779 kilometers Venus diameter: approximately 12,104 kilometers Jupiter diameter: approximately 139,820 kilometers Option A: Mars has a diameter of roughly 6,779 kilometers, which is significantly larger than Mercury. Option C: Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system, with a diameter of nearly 140,000 kilometers. Option D: Venus has a diameter of around 12,104 kilometers, more than double that of Mercury.

67. Q67The Earth in the solar system

    The Big-Bang Theory is used to explain the origin of this.

    • aLife on Earth
    • bEvolution
    • cNuclear explosion
    • dUniverseసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Big Bang Theory is the prevailing cosmological model describing the early development and origin of the universe itself from an initial high-density state. Option A: Life on Earth originated billions of years after the cosmos formed and is addressed by theories of abiogenesis and chemical evolution. Option B: Biological evolution explains the diversification of living organisms across generations rather than cosmic origins. Option C: Nuclear explosions are localized physical phenomena driven by nuclear reactions, not cosmic origins.

68. Q68Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    The most abundant element found in the earth crust

    • aCarbon
    • bIron
    • cNitrogen
    • dSiliconసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because silicon makes up roughly 28 percent of the Earth crust by mass, making it the most abundant among the options provided. Oxygen: approximately 46.6 percent Silicon: approximately 27.7 percent Iron: approximately 5.0 percent Carbon: less than 0.1 percent Nitrogen: trace amounts in crust Option A: Carbon constitutes less than 0.1 percent of the continental crust. Option B: Iron is the fourth most abundant element overall and second among metals, but it is far less abundant than silicon. Option C: Nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere, not in the crust.

69. Q69Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Richter scale is used to measure this.

    • aAtmospheric pressure
    • bEarthquakeసరైన సమాధానం
    • cRainfall
    • dWind speed
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the Richter scale is a logarithmic scale designed by Charles F. Richter to quantify the magnitude or total seismic energy released by an earthquake. Option A: Atmospheric pressure is measured using a barometer, not a seismic scale. Option C: Rainfall is measured using a rain gauge. Option D: Wind speed is measured using an anemometer.

70. Q70Atmosphere, weather and climate

    From which layer of the atmosphere is radio transmission possible?

    • aIonosphereసరైన సమాధానం
    • bMesosphere
    • cStratosphere
    • dTroposphere
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the ionosphere contains a high concentration of free electrons and ions that refract and reflect high-frequency radio waves back toward the Earth, making long-distance terrestrial radio communication possible. Option B: Mesosphere lacks sufficient electron density to serve as the primary reflective medium for radio broadcasts. Option C: Stratosphere is composed of neutral gas molecules that allow radio signals to pass through without reflecting them back. Option D: Troposphere is the weather layer through which radio waves propagate directly rather than reflecting over long global distances.

71. Q71Atmosphere, weather and climate

    The 'Boora' blowing in the North Pole is a

    • aLand-sea wind
    • bHot, dusty wind
    • cRoaring stormసరైన సమాధానం
    • dCyclone
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Boora (or Buran) is a violent, bitterly cold windstorm and blizzard common in the polar and tundra regions of the Northern Hemisphere, bringing gale-force winds and blowing snow. Option A: It is a large-scale regional polar windstorm, not a diurnal coastal breeze generated by land-sea thermal contrasts. Option B: It is an intensely cold and icy polar wind, not a warm dust-laden wind like the Sirocco or Khamsin. Option D: It is an advective blizzard and severe windstorm, not a warm-core cyclonic vortex.

72. Q72India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Aravalli mountain range

    • aYoung Fold mountain range
    • bAncient Crystalline mountain rangeసరైన సమాధానం
    • cBlack Lands mountain range
    • dBlock mountain range
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, formed during the Precambrian era, and is primarily composed of ancient crystalline metamorphic and igneous rocks. Option A: Young fold mountains refer to recently formed systems like the Himalayas, not the ancient Aravallis. Option C: Black Lands is not a recognized geological or geomorphological category for mountains. Option D: Block mountains are formed by faulting and subsidence, such as the Vosges or Black Forest, unlike the folded Aravallis.

73. Q73India: physiography, drainage and climate

    'Sumdurang Valley' is located here

    • aKashmir
    • bHimachal Pradesh
    • cArunachal Pradeshసరైన సమాధానం
    • dMizoram
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Sumdorong Chu Valley is situated in the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh and is notable for the 1986 to 1987 Sino-Indian military standoff. Option A: Kashmir contains valleys such as the Kashmir Valley and Gurez Valley, but not Sumdurang. Option B: Himachal Pradesh contains valleys such as Spiti, Kullu, and Kangra, not Sumdurang. Option D: Mizoram forms part of the Purvanchal range and has no geographic connection to the Sumdurang Valley.

74. Q74India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Which of the following lakes is the main salt lake of India?

    • aPulicat
    • bLonar
    • cChilika
    • dSambharసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan is the largest inland saline lake in India and the country's primary inland salt-producing water body. Option A: Pulicat is a coastal brackish-water lagoon situated along the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Option B: Lonar is an inland impact crater lake in Maharashtra, not the primary salt lake of the country. Option C: Chilika is a coastal brackish-water lagoon in Odisha, not an inland salt lake.

75. Q75India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Rain falls in this region due to the North East Monsoon.

    • aNorthwestern plains
    • bSouthwestern coastal region
    • cHimalayas
    • dEast Coastసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the retreating North East Monsoon winds blow over the Bay of Bengal, absorb moisture, and bring significant rainfall to the East Coast, particularly coastal Tamil Nadu and southern Andhra Pradesh, from October to December. Option A: Northwestern plains receive their winter precipitation primarily from western disturbances originating over the Mediterranean Sea. Option B: Southwestern coastal region receives its major precipitation from the South West Monsoon between June and September. Option C: Himalayas receive winter snowfall and rain primarily from western disturbances rather than the North East Monsoon.

76. Q76Natural resources and their distribution

    It is estimated that this much of India's total coal resources are used for cooking and other purposes.

    • a94 million tonnes
    • b200 million tonnes
    • c50 million tonnes
    • d150 million tonnesసరైన సమాధానం

    అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

77. Q77Natural resources and their distribution

    The river valley with the highest coal reserves in India

    • aSon Valley
    • bDamodar Valleyసరైన సమాధానం
    • cMahanadi Valley
    • dBrahmaputra Valley
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the Damodar River Valley, spanning Jharkhand and West Bengal, contains the largest coal reserves in India, housing premier fields such as Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro, and Karanpura. Option A: Son Valley contains prominent fields such as Singrauli, but its total coal deposits are far lower than those of the Damodar Valley. Option C: Mahanadi Valley holds massive non-coking coal deposits in Talcher and Ib, but Damodar Valley remains higher in cumulative reserves and prime coking coal. Option D: Brahmaputra Valley contains minor tertiary coal deposits, negligible compared to the massive Gondwana reserves of Damodar Valley.

78. Q78Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

    Indira Gandhi Canal is for irrigation facilities in this region

    • aRajasthanసరైన సమాధానం
    • bGujarat
    • cMadhya Pradesh
    • dUttar Pradesh
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the Indira Gandhi Canal, originating from the Harike Barrage in Punjab, was constructed to provide extensive irrigation and drinking water facilities to the arid and semi-arid northwestern parts of Rajasthan. Option B: Gujarat receives irrigation from projects based on the Narmada and Sabarmati rivers, not the Indira Gandhi Canal. Option C: Madhya Pradesh is irrigated by river basin networks including the Chambal, Narmada, and Betwa systems. Option D: Uttar Pradesh is irrigated by systems such as the Sharda, Upper Ganga, and Lower Ganga canal networks.

79. Q79Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

    Tanks are most extensively used for irrigation in this region.

    • aPlateau regionసరైన సమాధానం
    • bGanga plains
    • cHimalayan region
    • dTerai region
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the Peninsular Plateau region has impermeable crystalline rocks, undulating terrain, and seasonal rivers, making natural depressions ideal for tank irrigation. Option B: The Ganga plains possess deep alluvial soil and perennial rivers, which favour tube wells and canal networks rather than tanks. Option C: The Himalayan region relies mainly on gravity-fed diversion channels locally known as kuhl due to steep mountain topography. Option D: The Terai region has high water tables and swampy conditions that are serviced predominantly by tube wells and canals.

80. Q80Transport, communication, trade and tourism

    The largest port in India, handling 25% of the trade

    • aKolkata
    • bKochi
    • cMumbaiసరైన సమాధానం
    • dVisakhapatnam
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Mumbai Port is historically India's premier natural deep-water harbour, traditionally handling about a fifth to a quarter of the nation's total foreign maritime commerce, particularly general cargo and petroleum products. Option A: Kolkata is an inland riverine port whose traffic is limited by seasonal draft restrictions along the Hooghly River. Option B: Kochi serves regional container transshipment and coastal petroleum flows, representing a far smaller national share. Option D: Visakhapatnam is a premier bulk-handling port on the east coast, but it does not account for a quarter of the nation's total trade.