ఏపీపీఎస్సీ గ్రూప్-1 ప్రిలిమ్స్ 2008

174 ప్రశ్నలు, ప్రతిదానికి అధికారిక సమాధానం మరియు వివరణ.

ఒకే ప్రశ్న పలు సంవత్సరాల్లో వస్తే, మొదటిసారి అడిగిన సంవత్సరం కింద చూపిస్తాం.

81. Q81Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    The intensity of an earthquake is highest at

    • aFocus
    • bEpicenterసరైన సమాధానం
    • cEquator
    • dPoles
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the epicenter is the point on the Earth's surface nearest to the seismic source, where shockwaves arrive with the least attenuation and cause the highest shaking intensity. Option A: Focus is the point of origin situated deep inside the crust, whereas earthquake intensity specifically describes surface damage and observable ground motion. Option C: Equator is an arbitrary line of latitude unrelated to the distribution of seismic energy. Option D: Poles are geographic coordinates that have no bearing on earthquake intensity.

82. Q82Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    The reason for the formation of stalagmites and stalactites landforms is

    • aWind
    • bGlaciers
    • cRivers
    • dGroundwaterసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because stalagmites and stalactites are speleothems formed inside limestone caverns by the deposition of calcium carbonate precipitated from dripping groundwater. Option A: It produces aeolian depositional features such as sand dunes, ripples, and loess. Option B: It produces depositional forms such as moraines, drumlins, and eskers. Option C: It forms surface fluvial depositional features such as alluvial plains, point bars, and deltas.

83. Q83Atmosphere, weather and climate

    What is the solar radiation that comes through the atmosphere called?

    • aReflection
    • bInsolationసరైన సమాధానం
    • cRadiation
    • dRefraction
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because insolation, a portmanteau for incoming solar radiation, refers specifically to the solar energy received by the Earth's atmosphere and surface. Option A: Reflection is the process where radiation is turned back without heating the medium, rather than the incoming energy itself. Option C: Radiation is the general physical mechanism of energy transfer across space, not the specific term for incoming solar energy. Option D: Refraction is the bending of light rays as they transition between layers of differing atmospheric density.

84. Q84Atmosphere, weather and climate

    What are the fierce and destructive tropical cyclones that occur in China and Japan called?

    • aHurricanes
    • bTornadoes
    • cTyphoonsసరైన సమాధానం
    • dWilly-willies
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because tropical cyclones developing in the northwestern Pacific Ocean basin that impact China, Japan, and neighbouring East Asian countries are known as typhoons. Option A: It applies to tropical storms occurring in the North Atlantic and northeastern Pacific basins. Option B: These are localized, short-lived rotating funnels forming over land rather than regional marine tropical cyclones. Option D: It is a traditional colloquial term associated with tropical cyclones in the Australian region.

85. Q85Atmosphere, weather and climate

    Among the following, identify the Great Ice Age?

    • aCambrian and Ordovician
    • bSilurian and Devonian
    • cMiocene and Holocene
    • dPleistocene and Plioceneసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the most well-known recent Great Ice Age spanned the late Pliocene and the Pleistocene epochs, during which repeated extensive glaciations covered large parts of North America and Eurasia. Option A: Cambrian and Ordovician periods occurred during the early Paleozoic era, hundreds of millions of years prior to the recent Quaternary ice ages. Option B: Silurian and Devonian periods are middle Paleozoic eras known primarily for warm conditions and the diversification of terrestrial plants and fish. Option C: The Holocene is the current post-glacial interglacial epoch, not the Great Ice Age itself.

86. Q86Oceans

    Generally, oil spills in oceans are limited to which of the following?

    • aOceanic trenches
    • bContinental coasts
    • cContinental shelfసరైన సమాధానం
    • dOceanic abysses
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the vast majority of offshore petroleum drilling, extraction rigs, and coastal tanker shipping routes are situated on the shallow continental shelf. Option A: Oceanic trenches are extremely deep tectonic features situated far from offshore oil production facilities and typical tanker operations. Option B: Continental coasts include the immediate terrestrial shorelines, but the marine oil spill incidents originate and spread mainly across the underlying continental shelf. Option D: Oceanic abysses refer to deep ocean basins where commercial oil drilling is technologically and economically unfeasible.

87. Q87Oceans

    If a railway tide occurs in Chennai at 8:00 AM on one day, at what time will it occur the next day?

    • a8:13 AM
    • b8:26 AM
    • c8:56 AM
    • d8:52 AMసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because a lunar tidal day lasts approximately 24 hours and 52 minutes due to the Moon's eastward orbital motion. A tide occurring at 8:00 AM on one day will repeat at the same phase the following day 24 hours and 52 minutes later, which is 8:52 AM. Tidal day duration: 24 hours and 52 minutes Next day tide: 8:00 AM + 24 hours 52 minutes = 8:52 AM Option A: 8:13 AM is incorrect because 13 minutes is roughly half of the semi-diurnal tidal delay, not the full daily lag. Option B: 8:26 AM is incorrect because 26 minutes represents the delay for the second tide occurring on the same day. Option C: 8:56 AM is incorrect because the standard daily tidal lag is approximately 52 minutes rather than 56 minutes.

88. Q88India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Which of the following mountain ranges is located between the Narmada and Tapi rivers?

    • aAravalli
    • bVindhya
    • cKalmar
    • dSatpuraసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Satpura range is a block mountain range situated between the Narmada rift valley to its north and the Tapi rift valley to its south. Narmada River Satpura Range Tapi River Option A: Aravalli lies to the northwest in Rajasthan and Haryana, far north of both the Narmada and Tapi rivers. Option B: Vindhya is situated to the north of the Narmada river, forming the northern boundary of the Narmada valley. Option C: Kaimur forms the eastern extension of the Vindhya range north of the Son river valley, not between Narmada and Tapi.

89. Q89Natural resources and their distribution

    The state that produces the most bauxite?

    • aMaharashtra
    • bOdishaసరైన సమాధానం
    • cBihar
    • dGujarat
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because Odisha is by far the largest bauxite-producing state in India, contributing more than half of the country's total output from regions such as Kalahandi, Koraput, and Rayagada. Option A: Maharashtra produces a modest amount of bauxite, primarily from Kolhapur and Ratnagiri, far behind Odisha. Option C: Bihar has negligible bauxite production, with most reserves historically located in Jharkhand. Option D: Gujarat is a prominent producer of bauxite, often ranking second, but its output is significantly less than Odisha's.

90. Q90Industrial location and industrial regions

    Which of the following is not an agro-based industry?

    • aCigarette
    • bVanaspati
    • cPaper
    • dCementసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because cement manufacturing is a mineral-based heavy industry that consumes mined resources like limestone, gypsum, and bauxite, rather than raw materials originating from agriculture. Option A: Cigarette manufacturing relies on agricultural raw material in the form of cured tobacco leaf. Option B: Vanaspati is an agro-based processing industry that uses refined vegetable oils derived from oilseed crops. Option C: Paper manufacturing is an agro- and forest-based industry that relies on plant fibres, wood, bamboo, and bagasse.

91. Q91Industrial location and industrial regions

    The place where diesel locomotive engines are manufactured is

    • aPerambur
    • bJamshedpur
    • cVaranasiసరైన సమాధానం
    • dTatpuranjan
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Diesel Locomotive Works, now designated as Banaras Locomotive Works, is located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, and manufactures diesel and electric locomotives for Indian Railways. Option A: Perambur in Chennai is the site of the Integral Coach Factory, which manufactures passenger railway coaches rather than diesel locomotives. Option B: Jamshedpur is an industrial city known for the private steel plant of Tata Steel and commercial automobile production by Tata Motors, not Indian Railways locomotive manufacturing. Option D: Tatpuranjan is not an established or recognized center for locomotive manufacturing in India.

92. Q92Transport, communication, trade and tourism

    To which country is iron ore exported from Visakhapatnam?

    • aJapanసరైన సమాధానం
    • bGermany
    • cAustralia
    • dEngland
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because high-grade iron ore mined from the Bailadila deposits in Chhattisgarh is transported via the Kirandul-Kottavalasa railway line to Visakhapatnam port, from where it has historically been exported under long-term bilateral agreements primarily to Japan. Option B: Germany imports the vast majority of its iron ore from Brazil, Canada, and Sweden, not from Visakhapatnam. Option C: Australia is the world's leading exporter of iron ore and does not import bulk ore from India. Option D: England imports iron ore predominantly from Atlantic and Scandinavian suppliers rather than eastern Indian ports.

93. Q93World regional geography

    'Land of a Thousand Lakes' is in?

    • aEngland
    • bFinlandసరైన సమాధానం
    • cCanada
    • dKorea
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because Finland is traditionally called the Land of a Thousand Lakes due to having approximately 188,000 lakes within its territory. Option A: England is known for regions like the Lake District, but it does not carry the title Land of a Thousand Lakes. Option C: Canada has the largest total number of lakes globally, but the specific moniker Land of a Thousand Lakes refers to Finland. Option D: Korea is traditionally called the Land of the Morning Calm, not the Land of a Thousand Lakes.

94. Q94World regional geography

    To reach Sri Lanka from Nagercoil in Tamil Nadu, one must cross which of the following?

    • aSunda Strait
    • bPalk Strait
    • cGulf of Mannarసరైన సమాధానం
    • dGulf of Kutch
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Nagercoil is situated near Kanyakumari on the southwestern edge of the Tamil Nadu coast, directly facing the Gulf of Mannar toward western and southern Sri Lanka. Option A: Sunda Strait is located between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. Option B: Palk Strait lies further north between Jaffna and the coastline stretching between Rameswaram and Point Calimere. Option D: Gulf of Kutch is situated along the western coast of Gujarat in western India.

95. Q95World regional geography

    Mahabharat Range is located in?

    • aNepalసరైన సమాధానం
    • bBhutan
    • cMaharashtra
    • dJammu and Kashmir
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the Mahabharat Range, also known as the Lesser Himalayas, is a major east-west mountain range running through Nepal. Option B: Bhutan contains the Black Mountains and other southern Himalayan ranges, not the Mahabharat Range. Option C: Maharashtra features the Western Ghats and Sahyadri ranges rather than the Mahabharat Range. Option D: Jammu and Kashmir features the Pir Panjal, Zanskar, and Great Himalayan ranges.

96. Q96World regional geography

    The region in the world with rich mineral resources?

    • aRuhr Valley
    • bAmazonia
    • cAtlantic coastal region in U.S.A.
    • dUral Mountainsసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Ural Mountains in Russia contain one of the richest and most diverse concentrations of mineral deposits on Earth, including extensive reserves of iron ore, copper, nickel, bauxite, platinum, gold, and potash. Option A: Ruhr Valley is primarily known for coal reserves that powered German heavy industry rather than possessing an exceptionally diverse spectrum of global mineral wealth. Option B: Amazonia is an extensive sedimentary basin primarily dominated by tropical rainforest ecosystems, not world-renowned as a premier mineral mountain belt. Option C: Atlantic coastal region in U.S.A. consists mainly of flat coastal plains and sediment deposits that lack major metal-bearing crystalline mineral formations.

97. Q97Ecology and ecosystems

    కింది వాటిలో ఏది పర్యావరణ వ్యవస్థలో ఒక డైనమిక్ భాగంగా పరిగణించబడుతుంది?

    • aవిచ్ఛిన్నకారి
    • bఆహార గొలుసుసరైన సమాధానం
    • cఉత్పత్తిదారు
    • dవాతావరణ పీడనం
    ›వివరణ

    Option B సరైనది ఎందుకంటే ఆహార గొలుసు అనేది ఒక పర్యావరణ వ్యవస్థ యొక్క క్రియాత్మక మరియు గతిశీల ప్రక్రియలను సూచిస్తుంది, ప్రత్యేకంగా జీవుల మధ్య శక్తి మరియు పదార్థం యొక్క నిరంతర బదిలీని సూచిస్తుంది. Option A: విచ్ఛిన్నకారి అనేది పర్యావరణ వ్యవస్థ యొక్క గతిశీల ప్రక్రియల కంటే నిర్మాణ జీవ సంబంధ భాగాలుగా వర్గీకరించబడింది. Option C: ఉత్పత్తిదారు అనేది గతిశీల సంబంధిత అంశం కంటే నిర్మాణ స్వయంపోషక జీవ సంబంధ భాగాన్ని సూచిస్తుంది. Option D: వాతావరణ పీడనం అనేది ఒక భౌతిక లేదా నిర్జీవ పర్యావరణ కారకం.

98. Q98Ecology and ecosystems

    What can be considered as a dynamic part of an ecosystem?

    • aDecomposition
    • bFood chainసరైన సమాధానం
    • cProducer
    • dAtmospheric pressure
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because a food chain represents the continuous, functional transfer of energy and nutrients as living organisms consume and are consumed across different trophic levels. Option A: Decomposition is a functional biochemical process of organic breakdown rather than the structural feeding pathway itself. Option C: A producer is an individual biological category occupying a specific trophic level rather than the dynamic relational pathway of an ecosystem. Option D: Atmospheric pressure is a physical, abiotic environmental condition rather than a dynamic biological pathway.

99. Q99Welfare mechanism

    The target group of the Annual Ambedkar Awas Yojana (launched in December 2001)

    • aBPL families
    • bScheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    • cThose living below the poverty line without adequate housing, in urban slumsసరైన సమాధానం
    • dAll SCs and STs living below the poverty line without adequate housing
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana, launched in December 2001, primarily targeted people living below the poverty line in urban slums who lacked adequate shelter. Option A: It is incorrect because it applies broadly to all BPL families rather than specifically targeting urban slum dwellers. Option B: It is incorrect because it restricts the target group solely to SC and ST categories, whereas the scheme covered all urban slum dwellers living below the poverty line. Option D: It is incorrect because it omits the vital geographical focus on urban slums and covers all BPL SC and ST households regardless of location.

100. Q100Welfare mechanism

     The percentage of population in India covered by some insurance/facility

     • a5 percentసరైన సమాధానం
     • b10 percent
     • c15 percent
     • d20 percent

     అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

101. Q101Policy, missions and institutions

     'National Institute of Oceanography' was established in

     • aIn Kerala
     • bIn Goaసరైన సమాధానం
     • cIn Gujarat
     • dIn Tamil Nadu
     ›వివరణ

     Option B is correct because the National Institute of Oceanography (CSIR-NIO) was established on 1 January 1966 with its headquarters located at Dona Paula in Goa. Option A: Kerala hosts regional centres like the CSIR-NIO regional centre in Kochi, but the main institute was founded in Goa. Option C: Gujarat is not the founding location or headquarters of the National Institute of Oceanography. Option D: Tamil Nadu has ocean research institutions like NIOT, but not the CSIR-NIO headquarters.

102. Q102Policy, missions and institutions

     Central Plantation Crops Research Institute is located in

     • aBhubaneswar
     • bKasaragodసరైన సమాధానం
     • cErnakulam
     • dThiruvananthapuram
     ›వివరణ

     Option B is correct because the Central Plantation Crops Research Institute was established in 1970 by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research at Kasaragod in Kerala. Option A: Bhubaneswar hosts the Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture, not the plantation crops institute. Option C: Ernakulam hosts the Central Institute of Fisheries Technology and Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute at Kochi, not CPCRI. Option D: Thiruvananthapuram hosts the Central Tuber Crops Research Institute, not the plantation crops institute.

103. Q103Defence technology

     'Nag' is a

     • aland-based rocket system
     • banti-tank missileసరైన సమాధానం
     • csurface-to-surface missile
     • dsurface-to-air missile
     ›వివరణ

     Option B is correct because Nag is an indigenous, third-generation, all-weather, fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile developed by DRDO under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Option A: Nag is a guided anti-tank missile, not an unguided land-based artillery rocket system. Option C: While fired from surface launchers, its specific design, classification, and role is an anti-tank missile against heavily armoured vehicles. Option D: Akash and Trishul are surface-to-air missiles, whereas Nag is strictly anti-tank.

104. Q104Defence technology

     The defense public sector undertaking that manufactures guided missiles is

     • aBharat Electronics Limited
     • bBharat Dynamics Limitedసరైన సమాధానం
     • cBharat Heavy Electricals Limited
     • dBharat Earth Movers Limited
     ›వివరణ

     Option B is correct because Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL), founded in 1970 and headquartered in Hyderabad, is the dedicated Defence Public Sector Undertaking mandated to manufacture guided missiles and allied defence equipment. Option A: Bharat Electronics Limited specializes in aerospace and defence electronics, radars, and avionics, not missile airframes and systems manufacturing. Option C: Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited is a Maharatna PSU engaged in power and industrial equipment, not a defence PSU manufacturing guided missiles. Option D: Bharat Earth Movers Limited produces heavy earthmoving equipment, metro coaches, and military trucks, not guided missiles.

105. Q105Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     If the '...' gene from the bacterium 'Bacillus thuringiensis' is transferred to a crop plant, the plant will show resistance to which of the following?

     • aInsectsసరైన సమాధానం
     • bVirus
     • cBacteria
     • dFungal infection
     ›వివరణ

     Option A is correct because genes from Bacillus thuringiensis produce Cry and Cyt proteins that dissolve in the alkaline gut of insects, binding to cells and causing death. Option B: Bt endotoxins do not interact with viral particles or interfere with viral replication in host plant cells. Option C: Bt crystal toxins target the digestive tracts of specific invertebrates and have no antibacterial mechanism. Option D: Bt proteins lack antifungal properties and cannot inhibit fungal hyphae or spore germination.

106. Q106SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     ‘Circumvallation’ అనేది కింది ఏ సంఘటనకు సంబంధించిన దృగ్విషయం?

     • aఅంతర్గ్రహణంసరైన సమాధానం
     • bనిశ్వాసం
     • cవిసర్జన
     • dఉచ్ఛ్వాసం
     ›వివరణ

     Option A సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే సర్కంవల్లేషన్ అనేది అమీబా వంటి ఏకకణ జీవులలో ఒక అంతర్గ్రహణం విధానం, ఇక్కడ క్రియాశీల ఆహార ఎరను ఆహార రిక్తికలోకి మింగడానికి దాని చుట్టూ మిధ్యాపాదాలు విస్తరిస్తాయి. Option B: నిశ్వాసం అనేది ఊపిరితిత్తుల నుండి గాలిని బయటకు వదలడాన్ని సూచిస్తుంది, సెల్యులార్ ఆహారాన్ని తీసుకునే విధానం కాదు. Option C: విసర్జన అనేది శరీరం నుండి జీవక్రియ వ్యర్థ పదార్థాలను తొలగించే జీవ ప్రక్రియ. Option D: ఉచ్ఛ్వాసం అనేది శ్వాసక్రియ సమయంలో ఊపిరితిత్తులలోకి గాలిని పీల్చుకునే ప్రక్రియ.

107. Q107SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Among the following, which builds protein blocks:

     • aRibosomes
     • bGlucose
     • cFatty acids
     • dAmino acidsసరైన సమాధానం
     ›వివరణ

     Option D is correct because amino acids are the basic monomeric building blocks that join together via peptide bonds to form protein chains. Option A: Ribosomes are the cellular structures that synthesize proteins, not the molecular subunits that constitute them. Option B: Glucose is a simple monosaccharide that serves as the building block for complex carbohydrates, not proteins. Option C: Fatty acids are lipid components that link with glycerol to form fats and oils.

108. Q108SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Among the following cell division characteristics, in which is there a significant difference between animals and plants?

     • aAnaphase
     • bMetaphase
     • cCytokinesisసరైన సమాధానం
     • dProphase
     ›వివరణ

     Option C is correct because cytokinesis in animal cells occurs via the formation of a contractile cleavage furrow from the outside inward, whereas in plant cells it proceeds through cell plate formation from the centre outward due to the rigid cell wall. Option A: Anaphase proceeds similarly in both plant and animal cells through the separation and polar movement of sister chromatids. Option B: Metaphase involves the identical mechanism of chromosomes aligning at the equatorial plate in both types of cells. Option D: Prophase involves chromatin condensation and spindle formation similarly in both plant and animal cells.

109. Q109SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     The phenomenon 'Serum Vellation' occurs due to which of the following?

     • aOsmosisసరైన సమాధానం
     • bDiffusion
     • cExcretion
     • dDefecation
     ›వివరణ

     Option A is correct because this physiological phenomenon is driven by osmosis, which is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane in response to solute concentration gradients. Option B: Diffusion is the passive movement of any solute from higher to lower concentration without requiring a semi-permeable membrane. Option C: Excretion is the biological process of removing metabolic waste products from an organism. Option D: Defecation is the mechanical discharge of undigested, unabsorbed solid waste from the digestive tract.

110. Q110SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     మొక్కలు నీటిని ____ ప్రక్రియ ద్వారా కోల్పోతాయి:

     • aబాష్పీభవనం
     • bఅంకురోత్పత్తి
     • cకిరణజన్య సంయోగక్రియ
     • dబాష్పోత్సేకంసరైన సమాధానం
     ›వివరణ

     Option D సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే బాష్పోత్సేకం అనేది మొక్కల వాయుగత భాగాల ద్వారా, ప్రధానంగా పత్ర ఉపరితలాలపై ఉండే పత్రరంధ్రాల ద్వారా నీరు ఆవిరి రూపంలో కోల్పోయే జీవ ప్రక్రియ. Option A: బాష్పీభవనం అనేది క్రమబద్ధీకరించబడిన వృక్ష సంబంధిత ప్రక్రియ కాకుండా, జీవం లేని ఉపరితలాలు లేదా బహిరంగ నీటి వనరుల నుండి నీరు కేవలం భౌతికంగా ఆవిరి కావడాన్ని వివరిస్తుంది. Option B: అంకురోత్పత్తి అనేది సుప్తచేతనావస్థలో ఉన్న విత్తనం నుండి పిండం తిరిగి పెరగడం, ఈ ప్రక్రియకు నీటి శోషణ అవసరం. Option C: కిరణజన్య సంయోగక్రియ అనేది గ్లూకోజ్ మరియు ఆక్సిజన్‌లను ఉత్పత్తి చేయడానికి కార్బన్ డయాక్సైడ్‌తో పాటు నీరు వినియోగించబడే జీవక్రియ ప్రక్రియ.

111. Q111SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     What is the biological process that occurs by absorbing energy called?

     • aEnergy absorbingసరైన సమాధానం
     • bHeat releasing
     • cSub-absorbing
     • dDecomposition process
     ›వివరణ

     Option A is correct because biological and chemical reactions that proceed by taking up or absorbing energy from the surroundings are termed energy-absorbing (endergonic or anabolic) processes. Option B: Heat-releasing processes liberate energy into the surroundings rather than absorbing it. Option C: Sub-absorbing is not a valid scientific term for energy-requiring biological reactions. Option D: Decomposition is predominantly a breakdown process that typically releases stored energy.

112. Q112SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     The process by which plants lose water is

     • aTranspirationసరైన సమాధానం
     • bGermination/Sprouting
     • cPhotosynthesis
     • dEvaporation
     ›వివరణ

     Option A is correct because transpiration is the physiological process in which water evaporates from internal plant tissues into the atmosphere, predominantly via the stomatal pores on leaves. Option B: Germination/Sprouting is the process where a seed develops into a new seedling, which consumes water rather than losing it. Option C: Photosynthesis is the anabolic process in which plants synthesize glucose from carbon dioxide and water using light energy. Option D: Evaporation is a general purely physical transition of liquid water to vapor from any surface, not the specific biological process regulated by living plant structures.

113. Q113SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     ఒక జీవి యొక్క గమనించదగిన లక్షణాలు దాని:

     • aజన్యురూపం
     • bదృశ్యరూపంసరైన సమాధానం
     • cయుగ్మవికల్పం
     • dజన్యువు
     ›వివరణ

     Option B సరైనది ఎందుకంటే దృశ్యరూపం అనేది ఒక జీవి యొక్క జన్యురూపం పర్యావరణంతో పరస్పర చర్య జరపడం వల్ల ఏర్పడే గమనించదగిన బాహ్యరూప, శరీరధర్మ మరియు జీవరసాయన లక్షణాలను సూచిస్తుంది. Option A: జన్యురూపం అనేది ఒక జీవి యొక్క నిర్దిష్ట జన్యు రాజ్యాంగం లేదా అల్లెలిక్ నిర్మాణాన్ని సూచిస్తుంది, దాని బాహ్య రూపాన్ని కాదు. Option C: యుగ్మవికల్పం అనేది ఒక నిర్దిష్ట లోకస్ వద్ద ఉండే ఒక నిర్దిష్ట జన్యువు యొక్క ప్రత్యామ్నాయ రూపాంతరాన్ని సూచిస్తుంది. Option D: జన్యువు అనేది నిర్దిష్ట ప్రోటీన్లు లేదా క్రియాత్మక RNAను ఎన్‌కోడ్ చేసే వంశపారంపర్య భౌతిక మరియు క్రియాత్మక పరమాణు ప్రమాణం.

114. Q114SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     The characteristic of an organism can be observed through what?

     • aGenotype
     • bPhenotypeసరైన సమాధానం
     • cAllele
     • dGene
     ›వివరణ

     Option B is correct because phenotype refers to the observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an organism, determined by both genetic makeup and environmental influences. Option A: Genotype refers to the complete genetic constitution or allele combination of an organism, which cannot be directly observed with the naked eye. Option C: An allele is a variant form of a gene located at a specific position on a chromosome, not the observable trait itself. Option D: A gene is a segment of DNA that encodes instructions for proteins, representing genetic information rather than observable traits.

115. Q115HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     The disease 'Atherosclerosis' is related to which of the following?

     • aCirculatory systemసరైన సమాధానం
     • bSkeletal system
     • cDigestive system
     • dBody wall system
     ›వివరణ

     Option A is correct because atherosclerosis is a vascular disease characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques on the inner walls of arteries, directly impairing blood circulation. Option B: Skeletal system comprises bones and joints, which are affected by diseases like osteoporosis rather than arterial plaque deposition. Option C: Digestive system handles the processing of ingested food, not the pathological narrowing of blood vessels. Option D: Body wall system forms the musculoskeletal barrier enclosing internal cavities and is not primarily affected by atherosclerosis.

116. Q116HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     మలేరియా నిర్మూలన కార్యక్రమంలో విస్తృతంగా ఉపయోగించే చేప:

     • aOncorhynchus nerka
     • bTilapia mossambica
     • cGambusia affinisసరైన సమాధానం
     • dCyprinus carpio
     ›వివరణ

     Option C సరైనది ఎందుకంటే సాధారణంగా మస్కిటోఫిష్ అని పిలువబడే Gambusia affinis, లార్వాలను తినే ఒక మంచినీటి చేప, ఇది దోమల లార్వాలను అమితంగా ఆహారంగా తీసుకుంటుంది కాబట్టి దీనిని జీవ నియంత్రణ కారకంగా జలాశయాలలోకి విస్తృతంగా ప్రవేశపెట్టారు. Option A: Oncorhynchus nerka అనేది సాకీ సాల్మన్, ఇది చల్లని ఉత్తర పసిఫిక్ జలాల్లో కనిపించే ఒక వాణిజ్యపరమైన తినదగిన చేప, ఇది ఉష్ణమండల వెక్టర్ ఆవాసాలలో దోమల లార్వాలను ఆహారంగా తీసుకోదు. Option B: Tilapia mossambica అనేది మలేరియా వాహకాలకు ప్రాథమిక జీవ నియంత్రణ కారకం కాకుండా, ఆక్వాకల్చర్ కోసం పెంచే ఒక సర్వభక్షక సిక్లిడ్ చేప. Option D: Cyprinus carpio అనేది సాధారణ కార్ప్, ఇది ఆహారం కోసం పెంచే అట్టడుగున తిరిగే సర్వభక్షక చేప, ఇది దోమల లార్వాలను వేటాడేందుకు ప్రత్యేకంగా ఉపయోగించబడదు.

117. Q117HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     The fish commonly used in the malaria eradication program

     • aAnopfermoches nerra
     • bTilapia mossambica
     • cGambusia euphrasenసరైన సమాధానం
     • dCyprinus carpio
     ›వివరణ

     Option C is correct because Gambusia, commonly known as the mosquitofish, is a larvivorous freshwater fish widely introduced into water bodies for biological control of mosquito larvae in malaria eradication efforts. Option A: represents a non-existent or fabricated taxonomic name. Option B: refers to the Mozambique tilapia, which is an omnivorous cichlid not traditionally used as a primary larvivore in malaria vector control. Option D: refers to the common carp, a bottom-feeding food fish that does not specialize in eating mosquito larvae on the water surface.

118. Q118HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     'Prontosil' is a

     • aDrug
     • bPro-drugసరైన సమాధానం
     • cAntidote/Over-the-counter drug
     • dArtificial/Synthetic penicillin
     ›వివరణ

     Option B is correct because Prontosil is an azo dye antibacterial that is inactive in vitro and acts as a prodrug, requiring in vivo metabolic cleavage to release the active drug sulfanilamide. Option A: Prontosil itself is metabolically inert against bacteria outside the body, making the specific pharmacological classification prodrug rather than an active drug. Option C: Prontosil is a synthetic antibacterial agent, not an antidote or an over-the-counter medicine. Option D: Prontosil belongs to the sulfonamide class discovered by Gerhard Domagk, entirely unrelated chemically and mechanistically to penicillin.

119. Q119SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Flammable gas

     • aHydrogenసరైన సమాధానం
     • bHelium
     • cNitrogen
     • dOxygen
     ›వివరణ

     Option A is correct because hydrogen is an exceptionally combustible gas that readily ignites in the presence of oxygen or air. Option B: Helium is a noble gas with a complete valence shell, making it chemically inert and non-flammable. Option C: Nitrogen has a very strong triple bond between its atoms, making it non-flammable under normal conditions. Option D: Oxygen supports combustion as an oxidizer but is not itself a flammable fuel.

120. Q120SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     The element used in electric bulbs

     • aAluminium
     • bCopper
     • cTungstenసరైన సమాధానం
     • dIron
     ›వివరణ

     Option C is correct because tungsten possesses an extremely high melting point of about 3422 degrees Celsius and high resistivity, allowing it to glow brightly without melting when electric current passes through it. Option A: Aluminium has a low melting point of 660 degrees Celsius and would melt instantly if used as a filament. Option B: Copper has high electrical conductivity and a lower melting point, which prevents it from glowing white-hot to emit light. Option D: Iron has relatively low electrical resistance and oxidises rapidly at high temperatures, making it unsuitable for a filament.