టీజీపీఎస్సీ గ్రూప్-1 ప్రిలిమ్స్ 2004

371 ప్రశ్నలు, ప్రతిదానికి అధికారిక సమాధానం మరియు వివరణ.

ఒకే ప్రశ్న పలు సంవత్సరాల్లో వస్తే, మొదటిసారి అడిగిన సంవత్సరం కింద చూపిస్తాం.

41. Q41The Indian National Movement

    Who among the following was the national hero who fought against the British and was hanged in Pentonville Jail in London in 1909?

    • aKhudiram Bose
    • bSukhdev
    • cMadan Lal Dhingraసరైన సమాధానం
    • dRajguru
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Madan Lal Dhingra assassinated Curzon Wyllie in London on 1 July 1909 and was subsequently executed by hanging at HM Prison Pentonville on 17 August 1909. Option A: Khudiram Bose was hanged in Muzaffarpur Jail in India in 1908 for the Muzaffarpur bombing attempt. Option B: Sukhdev was executed at Lahore Central Jail in 1931 in connection with the Lahore Conspiracy Case. Option D: Rajguru was hanged alongside Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev at Lahore Central Jail in 1931.

42. Q42The Indian National Movement

    In November 1945, the British government conducted the first trial of Indian National Army prisoners at the Red Fort in Delhi. Who among the following were convicted in this trial?

    • aP. K. Sehgal
    • bShah Nawaz Khan
    • cGurbaksh Singh Dhillon
    • dRash Behari Boseసరైన సమాధానం

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

43. Q43World history: revolutions, the world wars and the modern world

    డిసెంబర్ 11, 2003న, ఫ్రాన్స్ యొక్క ఉన్నత స్థాయి నిఘంటు కమిటీ, అకాడెమిక్ ఫ్రాన్సైస్, మాజీ ఫ్రెంచ్ అధ్యక్షుడు వాలెరీ గిస్కార్డ్ డి'ఎస్టైంగ్‌ను 'అమరుడు'గా ప్రకటించింది. అకాడెమిక్ ఫ్రాన్సైస్ గురించి కింది ప్రకటనలలో ఏవి అవాస్తవం? a. ఇది 1635 A.D.లో స్థాపించబడింది. b. ఇది కార్డినల్ రిచెలియుచే స్థాపించబడింది. c. ఇది కింగ్ లూయిస్ XIIIచే స్థాపించబడింది. d. ఇది ఫ్రెంచ్ భాషను ఆంగ్లీకరణ నుండి కాపాడుతుంది. e. 'ఇ-మెయిల్' కోసం దాని తాజా ఫ్రెంచి పదబంధం 'ఫెమెయిల్'. f. దాని సభ్యుల సగటు వయస్సు 70ల చివరలో ఉంది. g. దాని సభ్యులను 'అమరులు' అని పిలుస్తారు. h. ఇది దివంగత ఫ్రెంచ్ గయానా కవి-అధ్యక్షుడు లియోపోల్డ్ సెడార్ సెంఘోర్ ఖాళీలో డి'ఎస్టైంగ్‌ను సభ్యునిగా చేసింది.

    • aa, c, d
    • bc, e, hసరైన సమాధానం
    • ca, f, h
    • db, f, g
    ›వివరణ

    Option B సరైనది ఎందుకంటే c, e, మరియు h ప్రకటనలు Academie Francaise కు సంబంధించి వాస్తవంగా సరికాని అంశాలను కలిగి ఉన్నాయి. ప్రకటన c అసత్యం ఎందుకంటే దీనిని కింగ్ లూయిస్ XIII కాకుండా కార్డినల్ రిచెలీవ్ స్థాపించారు. ప్రకటన e అసత్యం ఎందుకంటే ఇ-మెయిల్ కోసం సిఫార్సు చేయబడిన ఫ్రెంచ్ పదం courriel, Femail కాదు. ప్రకటన h అసత్యం ఎందుకంటే లియోపోల్డ్ సెడార్ సెంఘోర్ ఫ్రెంచ్ గయానా కాకుండా సెనెగల్ యొక్క కవి-అధ్యక్షుడు. Option A: a మరియు d ప్రకటనలు వాస్తవంగా సరైనవి, కాబట్టి ఈ కలయిక సరికానిది. Option C: a మరియు f ప్రకటనలు అకాడమీ గురించి వాస్తవంగా సరైన ప్రకటనలు. Option D: b, f, మరియు g ప్రకటనలు అన్నీ ఆ సంస్థ గురించి నిజమైన ప్రకటనలు.

44. Q44World history: revolutions, the world wars and the modern world

    చెర్నోబిల్ అణు ప్రమాదం ____ లో జరిగింది.

    • aమే 1972
    • bజనవరి 1984
    • cఏప్రిల్ 1986సరైన సమాధానం
    • dఅక్టోబర్ 1996
    ›వివరణ

    Option C సరైనది ఎందుకంటే సోవియట్ ఉక్రెయిన్‌లోని చెర్నోబిల్ అణు విద్యుత్ కేంద్రంలో విపత్కర పేలుడు 26 ఏప్రిల్ 1986న జరిగింది. Option A: మే 1972 అనేది చెర్నోబిల్ విద్యుత్ కేంద్రం నిర్మాణం మరియు ప్రారంభానికి పూర్వపు కాలం. Option B: జనవరి 1984 రియాక్టర్ ప్రమాదానికి ముందు ప్లాంట్ యొక్క సాధారణ వాణిజ్య కార్యకలాపాల సమయంలో వస్తుంది. Option D: అక్టోబర్ 1996 ఒక దశాబ్దం తరువాత, అంతర్జాతీయ మూసివేత ఒప్పందాల చర్చలు జరిగిన సమయంలో జరిగింది.

45. Q45World history: revolutions, the world wars and the modern world

    What is the former name of Iraq?

    • aMesopotamiaసరైన సమాధానం
    • bPersia
    • cTurkmenistan
    • dAlexandria
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because Mesopotamia, meaning the land between the rivers Tigris and Euphrates, is the ancient and historical name corresponding roughly to the territory of modern Iraq. Option B: Persia was the historical name of modern-day Iran until it officially adopted Iran internationally in 1935. Option C: Turkmenistan is a separate post-Soviet Central Asian republic bordering the Caspian Sea. Option D: Alexandria is a prominent Mediterranean port city located in northern Egypt, not a nation.

46. Q46World history: revolutions, the world wars and the modern world

    The esteemed association of lexicographers in France, 'The Académie française', made former French President Valéry Giscard d'Estaing an 'Immortal' on December 11, 2003. Which of the following statements are not true regarding the Académie française? a. It was founded in 1635 AD. b. It was founded by Cardinal Richelieu. c. It was founded by Emperor Louis XIII. d. It protects the French language from falling prey to English. e. Recently, it confirmed the word 'e-mail' as 'fi-mail' in French. f. The average age of its members is above 70 years. g. Its members are called 'Immortals'. h. It appointed d'Estaing as a member in place of the late Léopold Sédar Senghor, who was also a poet-president of French Guiana.

    • aa, c, d
    • bc, e, hసరైన సమాధానం
    • ca, f, h
    • db, f, g
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because statements c, e, and h are factually incorrect regarding the Academie francaise. Option A: Statements a and d are historically accurate as the academy was founded in 1635 and serves to maintain the purity of the French language. Option C: Statements a and f are true, as the academy was founded in 1635 and its lifelong members hold an average age well above 70 years. Option D: Statements b, f, and g are true, as Cardinal Richelieu established the body, its members are known as Immortals, and their average age exceeds 70.

47. Q47Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

    On August 15, 1947, the rulers of three princely states that refused to merge with India belonged to a different religion than the majority population of their respective states. Find the princely state among the following that was different from this.

    • aJunagadh
    • bKashmir
    • cBhopalసరైన సమాధానం
    • dHyderabad
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Bhopal was not one of the three princely states that refused to accede to India by August 15, 1947, whereas Junagadh, Kashmir, and Hyderabad famously resisted accession prior to that date. Option A: Junagadh had a Muslim Nawab ruling over a majority Hindu population and resisted accession to India by August 15, 1947. Option B: Kashmir had a Hindu Maharaja ruling over a majority Muslim population and declined to accede to India prior to August 15, 1947. Option D: Hyderabad was ruled by a Muslim Nizam over a predominantly Hindu population and refused to merge with India by August 15, 1947.

48. Q48Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

    Who served as the Home Minister in the Interim Government formed under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946?

    • aMuhammad Ali Jinnah
    • bSardar Vallabhbhai Patelసరైన సమాధానం
    • cLiaquat Ali Khan
    • dKamaraj Nadar
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel held the portfolio of Home, Information and Broadcasting in the Interim Government that assumed office on September 2, 1946. Option A: Muhammad Ali Jinnah declined to serve in the Interim Government and did not hold any cabinet post. Option C: Liaquat Ali Khan held the Finance portfolio in the Interim Government when the Muslim League joined in October 1946. Option D: Kamaraj Nadar was a prominent provincial Congress leader in Madras and was not part of the central Interim Government.

49. Q49Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    'ఆపరేషన్ విజయ్' దేనికి సంబంధించినది?

    • aకార్గిల్ యుద్ధంసరైన సమాధానం
    • bపోలియో నిర్మూలన
    • cటీ పరిశ్రమ
    • dక్రికెట్
    ›వివరణ

    జమ్మూ కాశ్మీర్‌లోని కార్గిల్ సెక్టార్‌లో పాకిస్తానీ చొరబాటుదారులను తొలగించడానికి మరియు ఆక్రమిత పోస్టులను తిరిగి స్వాధీనం చేసుకోవడానికి 1999 మేలో ప్రారంభించిన భారత సైనిక చర్యకు ఆపరేషన్ విజయ్ అనే సంకేత నామం (కోడ్‌నేమ్) ఇచ్చినందున Option A సరైనది. Option B: భారతదేశంలో పోలియో నిర్మూలన కార్యక్రమాలు పల్స్ పోలియో కార్యక్రమం క్రింద నిర్వహించబడ్డాయి, ఆపరేషన్ విజయ్ క్రింద కాదు. Option C: ఆపరేషన్ విజయ్ అనేది ఒక సైనిక సంకేత నామం మరియు దీనికి టీ పరిశ్రమతో ఎటువంటి సంబంధం లేదు. Option D: క్రికెట్ రంగానికి ఈ సైనిక పదజాలం కింద నిర్దేశించబడిన ఎటువంటి ఆపరేషన్ లేదా పథకం లేదు.

50. Q50Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    In the post-independence period, in which state did the Congress party fail to win even a single seat for the first time in a general election, specifically in the 14th general elections?

    • aWest Bengal
    • bTripura
    • cKeralaసరైన సమాధానం
    • dRajasthan
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because in the 2004 general elections for the 14th Lok Sabha, the Indian National Congress failed to win a single seat out of the 20 parliamentary constituencies in Kerala for the first time in its electoral history. Option A: In West Bengal, the Congress party won six Lok Sabha seats in the 2004 general elections. Option B: Congress had drawn a blank in Tripura in multiple earlier general elections prior to 2004. Option D: In Rajasthan, the Congress party won four Lok Sabha seats in the 2004 general elections.

51. Q51Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    In the Indian government where Jawaharlal Nehru served as Prime Minister, which portfolio did Abul Kalam Azad hold as a minister?

    • aFood and Agriculture
    • bEducationసరైన సమాధానం
    • cCommerce
    • dRailways
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was appointed as India's first Minister of Education in Jawaharlal Nehru's cabinet, serving from 1947 until his death in 1958. Option A: The Food and Agriculture portfolio was initially held by Rajendra Prasad and later by leaders like K.M. Munshi and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai, not Azad. Option C: The Commerce portfolio was held by leaders such as C.H. Bhabha and K.C. Neogy, not Azad. Option D: The Railways portfolio was held initially by John Mathai and later by N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar and Lal Bahadur Shastri, not Azad.

52. Q52Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Kerala Chief Minister A.K. Antony resigned on August 29, 2004. Which government was he the Chief Minister of at the time of his resignation?

    • aLeft Democratic Front Government
    • bDemocratic United Front Governmentసరైన సమాధానం
    • cCongress Government
    • dProgressive United Front Government
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because A.K. Antony headed the United Democratic Front coalition government, referred to in the question as the Democratic United Front government, prior to his resignation following the coalition's defeat in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections. Option A: Left Democratic Front is the rival CPI(M)-led coalition that was in opposition during his tenure. Option C: Congress Government is incorrect because the ministry was a multi-party coalition rather than a single-party Congress administration. Option D: Progressive United Front Government is an entirely incorrect coalition designation in Kerala politics.

53. Q53Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Considering the following, which of the following is the chronological order of Indian Prime Ministers? a. Indira Gandhi b. Rajiv Gandhi c. Charan Singh d. Morarji Desai e. Chandra Shekhar f. Gulzarilal Nanda

    • af, a, d, c, b, eసరైన సమాధానం
    • bf, d, b, e, a, c
    • cf, b, d, e, c, a
    • dd, a, b, c, f, e
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because it arranges the Prime Ministers in their true chronological order of assuming office, starting from Gulzarilal Nanda's interim tenure in 1964. Gulzari Lal Nanda: May 1964 Indira Gandhi: January 1966 Morarji Desai: March 1977 Charan Singh: July 1979 Rajiv Gandhi: October 1984 Chandra Shekhar: November 1990 Option B: Erroneously lists Morarji Desai and Rajiv Gandhi ahead of Indira Gandhi and Charan Singh. Option C: Incorrectly places Rajiv Gandhi right after Gulzarilal Nanda. Option D: Fails to place Gulzarilal Nanda at the beginning of the timeline.

54. Q54Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    జాబితా Iని జాబితా IIతో సరిపోల్చండి మరియు జాబితాల క్రింద ఇచ్చిన కోడ్‌లను ఉపయోగించి సరైన సమాధానాన్ని ఎంచుకోండి. జాబితా I (సంస్థలు) జాబితా II (స్థానాలు) A. సెంట్రల్ ఇన్‌స్టిట్యూట్ ఆఫ్ హయ్యర్ టిబెటన్ స్టడీస్. 1. హైదరాబాద్ B. ఇందిరా గాంధీ ఇన్‌స్టిట్యూట్ ఆఫ్ డెవలప్‌మెంట్ రీసెర్చ్ 2. ముంబై C. నేషనల్ ఇన్‌స్టిట్యూట్ ఆఫ్ మెంటల్ హెల్త్ అండ్ న్యూరో-సైన్సెస్ 3. బెంగళూరు D. సెంట్రల్ ఇన్‌స్టిట్యూట్ ఆఫ్ ఇంగ్లీష్ అండ్ ఫారిన్ లాంగ్వేజెస్ 4. ధర్మశాల 5. వారణాసి కోడ్‌లు: A B C D

    • a5 3 4 1
    • b5 2 3 1సరైన సమాధానం
    • c3 2 4 5
    • d4 5 2 1
    ›వివరణ

    Option B సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే ప్రతి జాతీయ సంస్థను దాని సరైన స్థానంతో జతచేస్తే A-5, B-2, C-3, మరియు D-1 వస్తాయి. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies: వారణాసి Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research: ముంబై National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-sciences: బెంగళూరు Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages: హైదరాబాద్ Option A: Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies ను వారణాసికి బదులుగా బెంగళూరులో ఉంచుతుంది. Option C: Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies ను బెంగళూరులో మరియు CIEFL ను వారణాసిలో ఉంచుతుంది. Option D: Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies ను వారణాసికి బదులుగా ధర్మశాలలో ఉంచుతుంది.

55. Q55History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    వ్యాక్సినేషన్ ప్రయత్నించిన మొదటి శాస్త్రవేత్త/వైద్యుడు ఎవరు?

    • aజోసెఫ్ లిస్టర్
    • bరాబర్ట్ కోచ్
    • cక్లైవ్ మెట్చ్నికాఫ్
    • dఎడ్వర్డ్ జెన్నర్సరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    ఎడ్వర్డ్ జెన్నర్ 1796 లో ఒక బాలుడికి మశూచికి వ్యతిరేకంగా రోగనిరోధక శక్తిని కల్పించడానికి గోవసంతం (కౌపాక్స్) పదార్థాన్ని ఇవ్వడం ద్వారా ప్రపంచంలోనే మొట్టమొదటి విజయవంతమైన టీకాను వేసినందున Option D సరైనది. Option A: జోసెఫ్ లిస్టర్ కార్బోలిక్ ఆమ్లాన్ని ఉపయోగించి శస్త్రచికిత్సా విధానాలలో యాంటీసెప్టిక్ పద్ధతులను ప్రవేశపెట్టారు. Option B: రాబర్ట్ కోచ్ ఆంత్రాక్స్, క్షయ మరియు కలరా యొక్క బాక్టీరియా కారకాలను వేరు చేసి, కోచ్ సిద్ధాంతాలను స్థాపించారు. Option C: క్లైవ్ మెట్చ్నికాఫ్ ఫాగోసైటోసిస్‌ను కనుగొన్నారు మరియు కణ ఆధారిత రోగనిరోధక శాస్త్ర అధ్యయనానికి ప్రాథమిక సహకారం అందించారు, మొదటి టీకాను కాదు.

56. Q56History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    The "Panspermia" theory, meaning "seeds everywhere," proposed that life seeds in the form of microbes are spread throughout the universe. Which of the following famous Greek philosophers proposed this theory?

    • aHippocrates
    • bAristotle
    • cXenophanes
    • dAnaxagorasసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the pre-Socratic philosopher Anaxagoras first proposed the panspermia concept in the fifth century BCE, asserting that the cosmos contains infinite seeds from which all living beings originate. Option A: Hippocrates is celebrated as the father of clinical medicine and formulated humoral pathology rather than cosmological theories of life origins. Option B: Aristotle formulated the theory of spontaneous generation, arguing that organisms could arise directly from non-living matter. Option C: Xenophanes is famous for his philosophical skepticism and early studies of marine fossils, not panspermia.

57. Q57Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    కాకతీయుల కాలం నాటి ప్రసిద్ధ కవి కేతన, అనే సంస్కృత రచనను తెలుగులోకి అనువదించి అభినవ దండి అనే బిరుదును పొందారు.

    • aప్రతాపరుద్ర యశోభూషణం
    • bదశకుమారచరితంసరైన సమాధానం
    • cనీతిశాస్త్రముక్తావళి
    • dపండితారాధ్య చరిత్రం
    ›వివరణ

    Option B సరైనది ఎందుకంటే కేతన దండి యొక్క సంస్కృత వచన గ్రంథమైన దశకుమారచరితంను తెలుగు పద్య రూపంలోకి అనువదించాడు, ఇది అతనికి అభినవ దండి అనే ప్రతిష్టాత్మక బిరుదును తెచ్చిపెట్టింది. Option A: ప్రతాపరుద్ర యశోభూషణం అనేది విద్యానాథుడు రచించిన సంస్కృత అలంకార గ్రంథం, దండి రచించినది కాదు. Option C: నీతిశాస్త్రముక్తావళి అనేది బద్దెన సంకలనం చేసిన నీతి గ్రంథం. Option D: పండితారాధ్య చరిత్రం అనేది మల్లికార్జున పండితారాధ్యుని జీవితాన్ని వివరిస్తూ పాల్కురికి సోమనాథుడు రాసిన ద్విపద కావ్యం.

58. Q58Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

    • aNannechoda → Kumara Sambhavam
    • bSomanatha → Panditaradhya Charitra
    • cVemulawada Bhimakavi → Basava Puranamసరైన సమాధానం
    • dMallikarjuna Panditaradhya → Shivatatva Sara
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Basava Puranam was written by the famous Shaivite poet Palkuriki Somanatha, not by Vemulawada Bhimakavi. Kumara Sambhavam: Nannechoda Panditaradhya Charitra: Palkuriki Somanatha Shivatatva Sara: Mallikarjuna Panditaradhya Basava Puranam: Palkuriki Somanatha Option A: Nannechoda is correctly matched with Kumara Sambhavam. Option B: Somanatha is correctly matched with Panditaradhya Charitra. Option D: Mallikarjuna Panditaradhya is correctly matched with Shivatatva Sara.

59. Q59Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Which Sanskrit work did the famous poet Ketana, during the Kakatiya period, translate into Telugu and earn the title 'Abhinava Dandi'?

    • aPrataparudra Yashobhushanam
    • bDashakumara Charitramసరైన సమాధానం
    • cNeetishastra Muktavali
    • dPanditaradhya Charitram
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the Kakatiya-era poet Ketana translated Acharya Dandi's Sanskrit prose romance Dashakumaracharita into Telugu verse as Dashakumara Charitram, which brought him the title Abhinava Dandi. Option A: Prataparudra Yashobhushanam is a Sanskrit work on poetics composed by Vidyanatha, not a translation by Ketana. Option C: Neetishastra Muktavali is an ethical and political treatise composed by Baddena. Option D: Panditaradhya Charitram is a celebrated Shaivite Telugu work written in dwipada meter by Palkuriki Somanatha.

60. Q60Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    The prestigious 'Bhashuva Sahitya Puraskaram' of the Bhashuva Foundation was awarded to Doi Bhimanna on December 16, 2003. Who among the following Telugu poets had previously received this award?

    • aDr. C. Narayana Reddy
    • bNagnamuni
    • cK. Siva Reddy
    • dNone of the above have received itసరైన సమాధానం

    అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

61. Q61Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Which of the following is incorrectly matched regarding the various committees of the Constituent Assembly and their chairpersons?

    • aRules Committee → Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    • bAdvisory Committee → Vallabhbhai Patel
    • cSteering Committee → Jawaharlal Nehruసరైన సమాధానం
    • dSub-Committee on Fundamental Rights → J.B. Kripalani
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Steering Committee was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, not Jawaharlal Nehru. Option A: Rules Committee is correctly paired with its chairman Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Option B: Advisory Committee is correctly paired with its chairman Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Option D: Sub-Committee on Fundamental Rights is correctly paired with its chairman J.B. Kripalani.

62. Q62Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    From which source of income does the government draw money for unforeseen expenses, additional expenses, and excess expenses, on the method of obtaining subsequent approval?

    • aConsolidated Fund of India
    • bPublic Account of India
    • cReserve Bank of India
    • dContingency Fund of Indiaసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Contingency Fund of India, established under Article 267, is placed at the disposal of the President to make advances for meeting unforeseen expenditures pending subsequent authorization by Parliament. Article 266(1): Consolidated Fund of India Article 266(2): Public Account of India Article 267: Contingency Fund of India Option A: requires prior legislative authorization through an Appropriation Act before any withdrawal can be made. Option B: holds public monies other than government revenues, such as provident funds and judicial deposits, and does not serve as a fund for emergency state spending. Option C: acts as the central bank and monetary authority of the country, not as an expenditure fund of the government.

63. Q63Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Which of the following is not among the languages recently proposed for inclusion in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

    • aBodo
    • bSantali
    • cDogri
    • dBhojpuriసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Bill proposed the inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali into the Eighth Schedule, whereas Bhojpuri was not included among those proposed languages. 92nd Amendment Act (2003): Added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule Eighth Schedule status: Bhojpuri remains outside the Eighth Schedule as an unapproved demand Option A: Bodo was formally proposed and incorporated into the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Option B: Santali was proposed and incorporated into the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Option C: Dogri was proposed and incorporated into the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

64. Q64Amendment and the basic structure

    Among the following pairs of languages, which pair of languages were included in the VIII Schedule of the Constitution in 1992 through the 71st Constitutional Amendment?

    • aKonkani and Sindhi
    • bManipuri and Sindhi
    • cNepali and Konkaniసరైన సమాధానం
    • dSindhi and Nepali
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 71st Amendment Act, 1992: added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. 21st Amendment Act, 1967: added Sindhi. 92nd Amendment Act, 2003: added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali. Option A: Sindhi was added much earlier by the 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967. Option B: Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act in 1967, not by the 71st Amendment. Option D: Sindhi was added in 1967, so this pair is incorrect.

65. Q65Amendment and the basic structure

    The states where the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts related to local self-governing bodies are not applicable are

    • aGoa, Jammu and Kashmir, Puducherry
    • bDelhi, Goa, Mizoram, Meghalaya
    • cMeghalaya, Delhi, Nagalandసరైన సమాధానం
    • dSikkim, Assam, Mizoram
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts contain non-application clauses under Articles 243M and 243ZC, specifically exempting the states of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, while Part IX does not apply to the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Article 243M exempts Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram from Part IX. Article 243ZC exempts Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram from Part IXA. NCT of Delhi is not covered under Part IX for panchayats. Option A: Goa and Puducherry are covered under the local self-governance framework established by these amendments. Option B: Goa is covered under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments. Option D: Sikkim and Assam have local self-governing bodies established under the 73rd and 74th amendments.

66. Q66The Union executive

    If the President of a country wishes to resign from their office, to whom should they submit their resignation letter?

    • aChief Justice of the Supreme Court
    • bPrime Minister
    • cVice-Presidentసరైన సమాధానం
    • dSpeaker of Lok Sabha
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Article 56(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution specifies that the President may resign from office by writing under their hand addressed to the Vice-President. Article 56(1)(a): Resignation addressed to the Vice-President Article 56(2): Resignation communication shall forthwith be conveyed by the Vice-President to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha Option A: The Chief Justice of India administers the oath of office to the President, not the resignation. Option B: The Prime Minister has no constitutional role in receiving the President's letter of resignation. Option D: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is only informed of the resignation by the Vice-President.

67. Q67The Union executive

    According to the Indian Constitution, in the Union Council of Ministers

    • aAll ministers are equalసరైన సమాధానం
    • bCabinet ministers are superior to other ministers
    • cDeputy ministers are superior to Ministers of State but inferior in status to Cabinet ministers.
    • dA minister without a portfolio is at the lowest level in status among all.
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the Constitution of India recognises the Council of Ministers as a single unified body with shared collective responsibility, without prescribing constitutional ranks or inequality among ministers. Option B: The three-tier classification of Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers exists through administrative practice and Rules of Business, not constitutional mandate. Option C: Administrative protocol places Ministers of State above Deputy Ministers, but the Constitution itself establishes no hierarchy among them. Option D: Holding a portfolio is an administrative assignment under executive allocation of business rules rather than a constitutional metric of status.

68. Q68Parliament and the state legislatures

    What is the current strength of Lok Sabha members, including the two nominated Anglo-Indian members?

    • a542
    • b543
    • c544
    • d545సరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because prior to the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, the maximum operational strength of the Lok Sabha stood at 545 members, comprising 543 directly elected members and 2 members nominated from the Anglo-Indian community. Directly elected members from States and Union Territories: 543 Nominated Anglo-Indian members under Article 331: 2 Total traditional operational strength: 545 Option A: 542 accounts only for the constituencies contested in the initial 2019 general election. Option B: 543 represents only the directly elected members, omitting the two nominated members. Option C: 544 does not match any official constitutional composition of the Lok Sabha.

69. Q69Parliament and the state legislatures

    In the rows mentioned below, there are names of Parliamentary Committees and their chairpersons. Which one among these is incorrectly matched?

    • aCommittee on External Affairs → Lakshmi Narayan Pandey
    • bCommittee on Railways → Basudeb Acharia
    • cCommittee on Defence Affairs → Balasaheb Vikhe Patil
    • dCommittee on Food and Consumer Affairs → A. Narendraసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because during the 14th Lok Sabha standing committees, the Committee on Food, Consumer Affairs and Public Distribution was chaired by Devendra Prasad Yadav, making A. Narendra an incorrect match. Option A: This match is correct as Lakshmi Narayan Pandey served as the chairman of the Standing Committee on External Affairs in the 14th Lok Sabha. Option B: This match is correct as Basudeb Acharia headed the Standing Committee on Railways. Option C: This match is correct as Balasaheb Vikhe Patil was the chairperson of the Standing Committee on Defence.

70. Q70The judiciary

    Which of the following states does not fall under the jurisdiction of the Guwahati High Court?

    • aAssam
    • bTripura
    • cManipur
    • dSikkimసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because Sikkim has maintained its own separate High Court since becoming a state in 1975 and has never been part of the territorial jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court. Sikkim High Court was established in 1975 under the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act. Gauhati High Court jurisdiction historically covered northeastern states but never included Sikkim. Option A: Assam falls directly under the principal seat of the Gauhati High Court. Option B: Tripura was under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court before obtaining its own High Court in 2013, unlike Sikkim which never fell under it. Option C: Manipur was under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court before its separate High Court was established in 2013.

71. Q71The judiciary

    Among the following famous cases that came before the Supreme Court, which case is not related to the right to property?

    • aA.K. Gopalan vs State of Keralaసరైన సమాధానం
    • bGolaknath case
    • cKesavananda Bharati case
    • dMinerva Mills case
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the A.K. Gopalan case dealt with preventive detention and the interpretation of personal liberty under Article 21, having no connection to the right to property under Article 31. Option B: Golaknath vs. State of Punjab challenged the validity of the 17th Constitutional Amendment Act, which placed various state land reform and property acquisition laws into the Ninth Schedule. Option C: Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala originated from a challenge to the Kerala Land Reforms Act and the validity of constitutional amendments impacting property rights. Option D: Minerva Mills vs. Union of India involved the takeover of an industrial undertaking under the Sick Textile Undertakings Act, directly touching property rights.

72. Q72The state government

    Which of the following qualifications mentioned for the appointment of a Governor is incorrectly stated?

    • aHe or she must be a citizen of India
    • bHe or she must not be less than 30 years of ageసరైన సమాధానం
    • cHe or she must not be a member of either House of Parliament or a State Legislature
    • dHe or she must not hold any other office of profit.
    ›వివరణ

    Option B is correct because it incorrectly specifies the age requirement; Article 157 of the Constitution mandates that a person must have completed the age of 35 years, not 30 years. Option A: Indian citizenship is a mandatory qualification under Article 157. Option C: Barring membership in Parliament or a State Legislature is a valid requirement under Article 158. Option D: Not holding any other office of profit is a valid condition under Article 158.

73. Q73Federalism and centre-state relations

    కింది వాటిలో ఏది కేంద్రం ద్వారా విధించబడి మరియు వసూలు చేయబడుతుంది, కానీ రాష్ట్రాలకు కేటాయించబడుతుంది?

    • aకస్టమ్స్ సుంకాలు
    • bస్టాంప్ డ్యూటీ
    • cఆదాయపు పన్ను
    • dరైల్వే ఛార్జీలపై పన్నులుసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    భారత రాజ్యాంగంలోని అధికరణ 269 ప్రకారం, రైల్వే ఛార్జీలపై పన్నులు కేంద్రం విధించి, వసూలు చేసి, రాష్ట్రాలకు కేటాయించే పన్నులలో ఒకటి కాబట్టి Option D సరైనది. Option A: అధికరణ 271 మరియు కేంద్ర జాబితాలోని ఎంట్రీ 83 ప్రకారం కస్టమ్స్ సుంకాలు కేంద్ర ప్రభుత్వం చేత విధించబడి, వసూలు చేయబడి, దాని వద్దే ఉంచుకోబడతాయి. Option B: అధికరణ 268 ప్రకారం కేంద్ర జాబితాలో పేర్కొన్న స్టాంప్ డ్యూటీలను కేంద్రం విధిస్తుంది, అయితే రాష్ట్రాలు వసూలు చేసి వినియోగించుకుంటాయి. Option C: అధికరణ 270 ప్రకారం వ్యవసాయ ఆదాయం మినహా ఇతర ఆదాయంపై పన్నులను కేంద్రం విధించి వసూలు చేస్తుంది మరియు కేంద్ర, రాష్ట్రాల మధ్య పంపిణీ చేస్తుంది.

74. Q74Federalism and centre-state relations

    Through the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the country was divided into five zones and Zonal Councils were established. In which zone was Sikkim included?

    • aCentral Zone
    • bNorthern Zone
    • cEastern Zoneసరైన సమాధానం
    • dWestern Zone
    ›వివరణ

    Option C is correct because Sikkim was attached to the Eastern Zonal Council along with Bihar, West Bengal, Odisha, and Jharkhand before later being included in the North Eastern Council. States Reorganisation Act, 1956 established five Zonal Councils: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern Eastern Zonal Council includes: Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Sikkim Option A: It covers Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh, not Sikkim. Option B: It covers Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, and Chandigarh. Option D: It covers Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

75. Q75Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Which of the following statements regarding the members of the State Public Service Commission is true?

    • aThey are appointed by the President and removed by him.
    • bThey are appointed by the Governor and removed by him.
    • cThey are appointed by the President and removed by the Governor.
    • dThey are appointed by the Governor and removed only by the President.సరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State under Article 316, but can only be removed from office by the President of India under Article 317. Article 316(1): Members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor. Article 317(1): Members of an SPSC can only be removed by order of the President on grounds of misbehaviour after an inquiry by the Supreme Court. Option A: The initial appointment is made by the Governor, not by the President. Option B: The Governor lacks the constitutional power to remove a member; only the President can do so. Option C: The appointment is made by the Governor and the removal is done by the President, the exact reverse of this option.

76. Q76Parties, elections and representation

    What is the full name of Mamata Banerjee's political party?

    • aTrinamool Congressసరైన సమాధానం
    • bNational Trinamool Congress
    • cBengali Trinamool Congress
    • dTrinamool Congress Party

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

77. Q77Public policy and governance

    The Government of India appointed the Official Language Commission in 1955. Who was its chairman?

    • aB.G. Kherసరైన సమాధానం
    • bGopalaswami Ayyangar
    • cDr. Zakir Husain
    • dFazal Ali
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the first Official Language Commission was appointed by the President of India in 1955 under the chairmanship of B.G. Kher, as mandated by Article 344 of the Constitution. Option B: Gopalaswami Ayyangar drafted Article 370 and served on various early committees, but did not chair this commission. Option C: Dr. Zakir Husain chaired the Wardha Basic Education Committee, not the Official Language Commission. Option D: Fazal Ali chaired the States Reorganisation Commission appointed in 1953.

78. Q78Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    What is the current investment limit under UN protection?

    • aRs. 20 lakhs
    • bRs. 60 lakhs
    • cRs. 100 lakhsసరైన సమాధానం
    • dRs. 300 lakhs

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

79. Q79India's foreign policy and international relations

    We and China are celebrating the 50th anniversary of Panchsheel. Besides us, who cooperated in proposing Panchsheel?

    • aVietnam
    • bNepal
    • cThailand
    • dMyanmarసరైన సమాధానం
    ›వివరణ

    Option D is correct because Myanmar (then Burma), led by Prime Minister U Nu, officially endorsed and cooperated in proposing the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence (Panchsheel) along with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru of India and Premier Zhou Enlai of China in June 1954. Option A: Vietnam was not a partner government in proposing the initial Panchsheel joint statements in 1954. Option B: Nepal adopted these principles in later bilateral treaties with its neighbours but was not an original co-proposer. Option C: Thailand was aligned with Western military pacts like SEATO during this period and did not participate in formulating Panchsheel.

80. Q80India's foreign policy and international relations

    The Sir Creek border demarcation dispute exists between

    • aIndia and Pakistanసరైన సమాధానం
    • bNorway and Sweden
    • cMyanmar and Thailand
    • dNepal and China
    ›వివరణ

    Option A is correct because Sir Creek is an unresolved 96-km tidal estuary boundary dispute located between Gujarat in India and Sindh in Pakistan. Option B: names Scandinavian countries whose boundary delimitations have no relation to Sir Creek. Option C: names Southeast Asian nations that do not border the Rann of Kutch region. Option D: names Himalayan neighbours that share high-altitude land frontiers, not a coastal estuary.