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టీజీపీఎస్సీ గ్రూప్-1 ప్రిలిమ్స్ 2024

262 ప్రశ్నలు, ప్రతిదానికి అధికారిక సమాధానం మరియు వివరణ.

ఒకే ప్రశ్న పలు సంవత్సరాల్లో వస్తే, మొదటిసారి అడిగిన సంవత్సరం కింద చూపిస్తాం.

  1. Q41Rights issues and social justice

    Which Ministry launched 'Garima Greh' shelter homes for transgender persons?

    • aMinistry of Health and Family Welfare
    • bMinistry of Women and Child Development
    • cMinistry of Housing and Urban Affairs
    • dMinistry of Social Justice and Empowermentసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because Garima Greh, a scheme providing shelter homes with basic amenities, food, medical care, and skill development for transgender persons, was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Option A: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare focuses on public healthcare delivery and medical policies rather than operating shelter homes for transgender persons. Option B: Ministry of Women and Child Development runs shelter schemes like Swadhar Greh for destitute women, not Garima Greh. Option C: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs manages urban housing schemes such as PMAY-U, not targeted transgender shelter homes.

  2. Q42India's foreign policy and international relations

    The 1955 Bandung Conference is a symbol of which of the following?

    • aPanchsheel Agreement between India and China
    • bPreparation for the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)సరైన సమాధానం
    • cEstablishment of ASEAN
    • dDeclaration for the establishment of a New International Economic Order (NIEO)
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the Asian-African Conference held in Bandung, Indonesia in 1955 brought together newly independent nations and articulated the core principles of solidarity that directly prepared the ground for the Non-Aligned Movement established in 1961. Option A: The Panchsheel Agreement was signed bilaterally between India and China in 1954, prior to the Bandung Conference. Option C: ASEAN was established more than a decade later in 1967 through the Bangkok Declaration. Option D: The declaration for the establishment of a New International Economic Order was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1974.

  3. Q43India's foreign policy and international relations

    Consider the following statements regarding the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI): A. It is a global infrastructure project conceived and launched by China in 2013. B. It is intended to strengthen China's soft power by establishing land and sea routes between Asia, Africa, and Europe. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • aA only is correct
    • bB only is correct
    • cBoth A and B are correctసరైన సమాధానం
    • dNeither A nor B is correct
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because both statements accurately describe the Belt and Road Initiative as a global development strategy launched by China in 2013 to connect Asia, Europe, and Africa while expanding China's international influence. Option A: It is incorrect because it overlooks statement B, which correctly identifies the project's role in projecting soft power across multiple continents. Option B: It is incorrect because it overlooks statement A, which accurately identifies the originator and launch year of the initiative. Option D: It is incorrect because both statements A and B are factually true.

  4. Q44India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following organisation has jurisdiction over the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, 1948, also known as Genocide Convention?

    • aPermanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
    • bUnited Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
    • cInternational Court of Justice (ICJ)సరైన సమాధానం
    • dInternational Criminal Court (ICC)

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  5. Q45India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following statements regarding the United Nations is true? A. The United Nations has six principal organs. B. The General Assembly consists of representatives from all member states, with each having an equal vote. C. The International Criminal Court (ICC), an organ of the United Nations, resolves disputes between countries. D. The United Nations Economic and Social Council participates in discussions on important global economic and social issues and makes key recommendations. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and B only
    • bC and D only
    • cA, B and D onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • dA, B and C only

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  6. Q46India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following statements about G-20 is/are correct? A. India held the presidency of the G-20 from 1st December 2022 to 30th November 2023. B. New Zealand is a member country of G-20 as of 2023. C. G-20 is the premier forum for international humanitarian co-operation. D. G-20 was founded in 1998. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B and D only
    • bB, C and D only
    • cA and B only
    • dA onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because statements B, C, and D contain factual errors regarding G-20 membership, purpose, and founding year, making them the incorrect statements requested by the question. G-20 established: September 1999, not 1998 Primary focus: international economic and financial cooperation, not humanitarian cooperation New Zealand status: non-member of the G-20 India presidency: 1 December 2022 to 30 November 2023 Option A: is wrong because statement A is completely factual and not an incorrect statement. Option C: is wrong because statement A is accurate while omitting false statements C and D. Option D: is wrong because statement A is accurate and statements B, C, and D are all erroneous.

  7. Q47India's foreign policy and international relations

    Arrange the following BIMSTEC Secretary-Generals in chronological order: A. Sumith Nakandala B. Indra Mani Pandey C. Tenzin Lekphell D. M. Shahidul Islam Choose the correct order:

    • aA, C, D, B
    • bC, B, A, D
    • cA, D, C, Bసరైన సమాధానం
    • dD, A, C, B
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because arranging the BIMSTEC Secretary-Generals by their tenure in office yields the chronological sequence A, D, C, and B. Sumith Nakandala: 2014 to 2017 M. Shahidul Islam: 2017 to 2020 Tenzin Lekphell: 2020 to 2023 Indra Mani Pandey: 2024 to present Option A: Places Tenzin Lekphell before M. Shahidul Islam, reversing their consecutive terms. Option B: Places Tenzin Lekphell first, despite his term beginning years after Sumith Nakandala. Option D: Places M. Shahidul Islam before the inaugural Secretary-General Sumith Nakandala.

  8. Q48India's foreign policy and international relations

    Consider the following statements regarding the Indian pharmaceutical sector: Assertion (A) : The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) creates awareness among the public about the use of Jan Aushadhi generic medicines. Reason (R) : The Government of India aims to increase the number of Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Kendras to 10,000 by March 2024. Choose the correct answer :

    • a(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
    • c(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    • dBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).సరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because both statements are true independent facts, but the physical expansion target of kendras under the scheme does not serve as the logical reason why the agency is mandated to create public awareness about generic medicines. Option A: The Reason is a true policy target set by the Government of India, making this choice incorrect. Option B: The Reason explains a target for outlet expansion rather than the functional justification for conducting awareness campaigns. Option C: The Assertion is true because the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (now PMBI) actively conducts promotional drives for generic medicine acceptance.

  9. Q49India's foreign policy and international relations

    Jal Jeevan Mission is a program of the Government of India. Regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission, which of the following statements are correct? A. The 'Har Ghar Jal' initiative was launched in 2019. B. Goa was the first 'Har Ghar Jal' certified state in August 2022. C. Har Ghar Jal aims to provide safe drinking water through tap connections to every rural household by 2025. D. As of 30.01.2024, it was reported that more than 73.7% of households have tap water connections. Choose the correct answer :

    • aA and B only
    • bA, B and C only
    • cA, B and D onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • dA, C and D only
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because statements A, B, and D accurately represent the facts of the Jal Jeevan Mission, whereas statement C states an incorrect target year. Har Ghar Jal launch year: 2019 First certified state: Goa, August 2022 Original target year for tap water to all rural households: 2024 Household tap connections coverage as of 30.01.2024: over 73.7% Option A: It excludes statement D, which is factually correct regarding the coverage milestone. Option B: It includes statement C, which incorrectly specifies 2025 instead of 2024 as the original target year. Option D: It includes incorrect statement C and omits certified state statement B.

  10. Q50India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following schemes is intended to promote chemical-free natural farming?

    • aBharatiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhatiసరైన సమాధానం
    • bAgricultural Mechanization Scheme
    • cFarmers-Producers Organization Scheme
    • dMission Kisan Bharat Scheme 2.0
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because Bharatiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati is a dedicated sub-scheme under the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana designed to promote traditional indigenous practices and chemical-free natural farming. Option B: Agricultural Mechanization focuses on farm power, implements, and machinery rather than chemical-free agronomy. Option C: The Farmers-Producers Organization scheme aims at collectivizing agricultural producers for better market access and economies of scale. Option D: Mission Kisan Bharat Scheme 2.0 is not an authorized Central scheme for chemical-free farming.

  11. Q51STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Which of the following district administration models that emerged after India's independence are true? A. The first model emphasizes the separation between regulatory and developmental functions. B. The second model prescribes the integration of regulatory and developmental functions under the District Collector. C. The third model, recommended by the Sarkaria Commission, suggests the integration of regulatory and developmental functions at the district level and decentralization at the lower level. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and B onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • bA and C only
    • cA, B and C
    • dB and C only
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because all three statements accurately summarize the evolutionary models of Indian district administration identified by administrative reforms committees and public administration scholars. Option A: It omits statement C, which correctly states the Sarkaria Commission recommendation on integrating regulatory and developmental functions at the district level alongside local decentralization. Option B: It omits statement B, which validly describes the second model that integrates regulatory and developmental roles under the single command of the District Collector. Option D: It omits statement A, which correctly reflects the post-independence model advocated by the First Administrative Reforms Commission separating development from regulatory administration.

  12. Q52STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    రాష్ట్ర ఎన్నికల సంఘం పాత్ర:

    • aస్థానిక సంస్థలకు ఎన్నికలు నిర్వహించడంసరైన సమాధానం
    • bసముదాయ ఆధారిత సంస్థలకు ఎన్నికలు నిర్వహించడం
    • cరాష్ట్ర శాసనసభకు ఎన్నికలు నిర్వహించడం
    • dరాష్ట్ర సహకార సంఘాలకు ఎన్నికలు నిర్వహించడం
    వివరణ

    Option A సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే గ్రామీణ మరియు పట్టణ స్థానిక సంస్థలకు ఎన్నికలను పర్యవేక్షించడం, మార్గదర్శకత్వం చేయడం మరియు నిర్వహించడం కోసం రాజ్యాంగంలోని అధికరణలు 243K మరియు 243ZA రాష్ట్ర ఎన్నికల సంఘానికి అధికారం ఇస్తాయి. Option B: సముదాయ ఆధారిత సంస్థలు అనధికారిక లేదా ప్రైవేట్ స్వచ్ఛంద సమూహాలు, వీటి అంతర్గత ఎంపికలు రాజ్యాంగబద్ధమైన ఎన్నికల యంత్రాంగం పరిధిలోకి రావు. Option C: రాష్ట్ర శాసనసభకు ఎన్నికలు అధికరణ 324 ప్రకారం భారత ఎన్నికల సంఘం చేత నిర్వహించబడతాయి. Option D: రాష్ట్ర సహకార సంఘాల ఎన్నికలు రాష్ట్ర ఎన్నికల సంఘం ద్వారా కాకుండా, రాష్ట్ర సహకార చట్టాల ప్రకారం రాష్ట్ర సహకార ఎన్నికల అథారిటీ ద్వారా నిర్వహించబడతాయి.

  13. Q53STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Which of the following is the role of the State Election Commission:

    • aConduct of State Legislative Assembly elections
    • bConduct of local body elections.సరైన సమాధానం
    • cConduct of State Cooperative Societies elections
    • dConduct of community-based organizations elections
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the constitutional mandate of the State Election Commission under Articles 243K and 243ZA is the superintendence, direction, and conduct of elections to local bodies, which include Panchayats and Municipalities. Option A: Conduct of State Legislative Assembly elections is vested exclusively in the Election Commission of India under Article 324. Option C: Conduct of State Cooperative Societies elections is assigned to the State Cooperative Election Authority under Article 243ZK. Option D: Conduct of community-based organizations elections pertains to voluntary private associations not governed by constitutional election bodies.

  14. Q54STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Consider the following statements regarding the supply of LPG gas cylinders at subsidized prices for domestic purposes under the Mahalakshmi Scheme: A. This scheme applies to those who possess a white ration card. B. The money required for the implementation of this scheme is transferred to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) on an annual basis. C. Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) pay the subsidy to be paid to beneficiaries through the 'Direct Benefit Transfer' method. D. The number of gas cylinders depends on the average consumption of the household owner/beneficiary over the last five years. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA, B, C and D
    • bA, B and C only
    • cA and C onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • dA and D only
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because statements A and C correctly describe the guidelines of the Mahalakshmi subsidized LPG scheme in Telangana: it covers white ration card holders, and the subsidy component is disbursed to beneficiaries via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) through Oil Marketing Companies. Target beneficiaries must possess a valid Food Security Card (White Ration Card). Subsidy is credited directly to the beneficiary accounts via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Advance funds are released by the State Government to OMCs on a monthly basis, not on an annual basis. The cylinder quota is capped based on the average consumption over the preceding three years, not five years. Option A: Statements B and D are incorrect because advance subsidy releases are handled on a monthly basis and quota calculations rely on the last three years of consumption. Option B: Statement B is incorrect because funds are not transferred on an annual basis. Option D: Statement D is incorrect because the average consumption period considered under the guidelines is three years, not five years.

  15. Q55STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana government's 'Gruha Jyothi' scheme: A. All types of household owners/beneficiaries are eligible for free electricity consumption up to 200 units per month for domestic purposes or small businesses. B. If DISCOMs send the details of the subsidy to be received under this scheme by the 20th of every month, the government will release the subsidy amount to the DISCOMs accordingly. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because under the Gruha Jyothi scheme guidelines, the state government transfers the subsidy directly to the electricity distribution companies after receiving the verified subsidy claims by the 20th of each month. Option A: Statement A is incorrect because the scheme applies solely to domestic residential households possessing valid food security cards, excluding small businesses and non-domestic establishments. Option C: It incorrectly accepts statement A, which wrongly extends eligibility to commercial small businesses. Option D: It incorrectly rejects statement B, which accurately describes the subsidy claim settlement timeline.

  16. Q56Economic data, indices and state rankings

    According to the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2022–23, which of the following statements are true? A. Chhattisgarh has the lowest rural and urban Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE). B. Rural-urban difference in average MPCE is the lowest in Meghalaya. C. Sikkim has the highest rural and urban MPCE. D. Chandigarh has the lowest MPCE in urban areas. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB and C only
    • bB and D only
    • cA and B only
    • dA and C onlyసరైన సమాధానం

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  17. Q57Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Which of the following statements are true in relation to the Five Year Plans of India? A. One of the main objectives of the 5th Five Year Plan was 'Removal of Poverty'. B. To achieve Growth with Stability was one of the objectives of the 4th Five Year Plan. C. The focus of the 7th Plan was on Food, Work and Productivity. D. The main objective of 9th Plan was to achieve Inclusive Growth. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B and C onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • bA, B, C and D
    • cB, C and D only
    • dA and D only

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  18. Q58Population, poverty and work

    According to the National Family Health Survey-5, arrange the following states in descending order based on the percentage of multidimensional poverty in the total population between 2019-21: A. Meghalaya B. Uttar Pradesh C. Jharkhand D. Bihar Choose the correct order:

    • aA, B, C, D
    • bB, C, D, A
    • cD, C, B, Aసరైన సమాధానం
    • dD, B, A, C
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Multidimensional Poverty Index based on national survey data ranks Bihar with the highest proportion of poor, followed in descending order by Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Meghalaya. Bihar: 51.91 percent Jharkhand: 42.16 percent Uttar Pradesh: 37.79 percent Meghalaya: 32.67 percent Option A: It inverts the order by placing Meghalaya first despite it having the lowest multidimensional poverty among the four. Option B: It places Uttar Pradesh ahead of Bihar and Jharkhand, which have significantly higher poverty shares. Option D: It disrupts the ranking by placing Uttar Pradesh ahead of Meghalaya and Meghalaya ahead of Jharkhand.

  19. Q59Population, poverty and work

    Which of the following is/are true in relation to the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 2016-2020? A. It is a grant-based scheme, providing free of cost skill development training and certification. B. It had two components known as Centrally Sponsored Centrally Managed and State Sponsored State Managed. C. It provided skill development training to school, college dropouts and unemployed youth. D. It initiated a process of creating a registry of skills. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B and D only
    • bA, B, C and D
    • cA, B and C only
    • dA, C and D onlyసరైన సమాధానం

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  20. Q60Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Yellow Revolution is related to:

    • aJute production
    • bEgg production
    • cPoultry and meat production
    • dOilseed productionసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because the Yellow Revolution refers to the strategic government initiative launched to dramatically increase the production of edible oilseeds such as mustard, groundnut, and soybean. Option A: Jute production is designated under the Golden Fibre Revolution. Option B: Egg production falls under the Silver Revolution. Option C: Poultry and meat production is associated with the Red Revolution for meat and Silver Revolution for poultry.

  21. Q61Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Which of the following statements about National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA) is/are correct? A. It provides coverage up to 75% of the total rural population. B. It covers the two categories of beneficiaries, i.e. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households and the priority households. C. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are not entitled to get a free meal at the local Anganwadi centres, as well as the maternity benefits. D. It includes only mid-day-meal schemes. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB only
    • bA and D only
    • cA and B onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • dA, B, C and D

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  22. Q62Public finance and the budget

    Which of the following statements related to Interim Union Budget 2024-25 are true? A. In the total outlay of the Union Budget, the share of Gender budget is more than six percent. B. Estimated Fiscal Deficit is more than five percent of Gross Domestic Product. C. Tax receipts are estimated at less than 25 lakh crore rupees. D. The increase in Gender budget allocation is 20% more in 2024-25 budget as compared to the budget estimates of 2023-24. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB and C only
    • bA, B and D only
    • cA and B onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • dC and D only

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  23. Q63External sector and the world economy

    Consider the following statements in connection with the Bretton Woods Conference: A. This conference was held in 1944, at New Hampshire, USA, to discuss the post-war international economic order. B. The conference paved the way for the formation of International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aB only
    • bNeither A nor B
    • cA only
    • dBoth A and Bసరైన సమాధానం

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  24. Q64STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    As per the Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023, which of the following pairs related to the district and the Gross District Domestic Product (GDDP) of that district in 2021–22 (First Revised Estimates) at current prices is/are correctly matched? Name of District GDDP (in ₹ lakh crores) approximately A. Hyderabad ₹ 1.86 B. Rangareddy ₹ 2.20 C. Medchal-Malkajgiri ₹ 1.20 D. Adilabad ₹ 1.05 Choose the correct answer:

    • aC and D only
    • bA onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • cA, B and D only
    • dB and C only

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  25. Q65STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    According to the data estimated in the Telangana Socio-Economic Outlook 2023, the share of the construction sector (a sub-sector in the secondary sector) in the Gross State Value Added of Telangana State's secondary sector (at current prices and provisional advance estimates) in 2022-23 is approximately:

    • a27%
    • b14%
    • c19%సరైన సమాధానం
    • d23%

    అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

  26. Q66STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    According to the Provisional Estimates of Telangana Economy-2023 published by the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Government of Telangana, which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Telangana economy? A. In 2022-23, Telangana's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) at current prices was more than Rs. 13 lakh crores. B. In 2022-23, Telangana's industrial sector achieved a growth rate of 13%. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because statement A is accurate as Telangana Gross State Domestic Product at current prices reached Rs 13,13,391 crore in 2022-23, while statement B is incorrect because the industrial sector growth rate was around 10.5 percent, not 13 percent. Telangana Gross State Domestic Product at current prices for 2022-23: Rs 13,13,391 crore Telangana industrial sector growth rate at current prices for 2022-23: 10.5 percent Option B: B only is incorrect because statement B misstates the industrial growth rate and overlooks the fact that statement A is correct. Option C: Both A and B is incorrect because statement B gives a factually inaccurate growth rate for the industrial sector. Option D: Neither A nor B is incorrect because statement A correctly states that the Gross State Domestic Product surpassed Rs 13 lakh crore.

  27. Q67STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    Arrange the following sectors/items in ascending order based on the proposed allocations (in Rs. Crores) for the financial year 2024-25 in the Telangana State Vote-on-Account Budget presented to the State Legislature on February 10, 2024: A. Scheduled Castes Welfare B. Capital Expenditure C. Education D. Medical and Health Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, D, C
    • bD, C, A, Bసరైన సమాధానం
    • cD, C, B, A
    • dA, C, B, D
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the proposed allocations in the Telangana Vote-on-Account Budget 2024-25 place Medical and Health at the lowest among the four, followed by Education, Scheduled Castes Welfare, and Capital Expenditure. Medical and Health: 11,500 crore rupees Education: 21,389 crore rupees Scheduled Castes Welfare: 21,874 crore rupees Capital Expenditure: 29,669 crore rupees Option A: A, B, D, C incorrectly places Scheduled Castes Welfare before Capital Expenditure and starts with higher allocations instead of the lowest. Option C: D, C, B, A misplaces Capital Expenditure before Scheduled Castes Welfare. Option D: A, C, B, D fails to place Medical and Health first in the ascending order.

  28. Q68STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    According to the Telangana State Vote on Account Budget presented in the Telangana State Assembly on February 10, 2024, for the financial year 2024-25, the estimated total expenditure is approximately

    • aRs. 2.95 lakh crores
    • bRs. 2.40 lakh crores
    • cRs. 2.76 lakh croresసరైన సమాధానం
    • dRs. 2.39 lakh crores
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because the Telangana Vote on Account Budget presented on February 10, 2024, estimated the total expenditure for the financial year 2024-25 at Rs. 2,75,891 crore, which is approximately Rs. 2.76 lakh crores. Estimated total expenditure for 2024-25: Rs. 2,75,891 crore Rounded total: Rs. 2.76 lakh crore Option A: Overstates the budget estimate by nearly Rs. 0.19 lakh crore. Option B: Understates the budget estimate by about Rs. 0.36 lakh crore. Option D: Understates the total expenditure, reflecting closer to the revenue expenditure component alone.

  29. Q69Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Which of the following fluvial landforms are associated with rejuvenated topography? A. Incised Meander B. Entrenched Meander C. Nick Point D. Natural Levees Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, C and D
    • bB, C and D only
    • cA, C and D only
    • dA, B, C onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because base-level fall or tectonic uplift rejuvenates a river, initiating vertical downcutting that produces incised meanders, entrenched meanders, and knick points. Option A: It incorrectly includes natural levees, which are depositional landforms of floodplains in old-stage rivers rather than features of rejuvenation. Option B: It omits incised meanders, which are classic erosional landforms created by renewed downcutting after rejuvenation. Option C: It omits entrenched meanders, which are deep symmetrical valleys directly carved out by rejuvenated meandering streams.

  30. Q70Atmosphere, weather and climate

    Consider the following statements: Assertion (A) : Orographic rainfall occurs when moist air (wind) moves and hits any topographic barrier and is forced upwards. Reason (R) : Orographic rainfall mostly occurs on the windward side. The mountainous region on the leeward side is likely to be dry. Choose the correct answer:

    • a(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
    • c(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    • dBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).సరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because both statements are scientifically true, but the Reason describes the spatial distribution and rain-shadow consequence of relief rain rather than explaining the physical uplift mechanism stated in the Assertion. Option A: The Reason statement is completely true because the windward slope receives copious precipitation while the leeward side remains dry. Option B: The Reason explains where rain falls and why the leeward side is dry, not the primary mechanism of why air expands, cools, and condenses upon encountering a topographic barrier. Option C: The Assertion is completely true as it accurately defines orographic precipitation.

  31. Q71Atmosphere, weather and climate

    Which of the following climates is also known as 'Sclerophyll' ecosystem or biome?

    • aMediterranean climateసరైన సమాధానం
    • bTundra climate
    • cEquatorial climate
    • dMonsoon climate
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the Mediterranean climate is characterized by sclerophyll vegetation featuring thick, leathery, drought-resistant evergreen leaves adapted to survive hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters. Option B: Tundra climate supports lichens, mosses, and dwarf shrubs rather than sclerophyllous forests and scrublands. Option C: Equatorial climate is characterized by broadleaf evergreen rainforests with high moisture demands. Option D: Monsoon climate predominantly hosts tropical deciduous trees that shed leaves during dry periods.

  32. Q72Oceans

    Which of the following statements are correct regarding Continental Shelf? A. Continental shelves are marginal areas of continents submerged in seawater. B. Continental shelves are very wide and extensive along the west coast of South America, where high mountains are very close and parallel to the coast. C. Extensive continental shelves are found around Newfoundland. D. Many marginal seas are located on the continental shelves of the North Atlantic. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and B only
    • bA, B and C only
    • cA, C and D onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • dA, B, C and D only
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because statements A, C, and D are factually accurate, while statement B is incorrect. Continental shelves are narrow or almost absent along coasts with young fold mountains close to the sea, such as the Andes on the western coast of South America. Option A: Omits statements C and D, which are well-established facts regarding extensive fishing banks like Newfoundland and marginal seas in the North Atlantic. Option B: Incorrectly includes statement B, which falsely claims the shelf is very wide along the mountainous western coast of South America. Option D: Incorrectly includes statement B, which contradicts the fact that active margins with coastal mountains have very narrow continental shelves.

  33. Q73Soils, vegetation and wildlife

    Match the following National Parks and their States: National Park State A. Tadoba National Park 1. Karnataka B. Madhav National Park 2. Uttar Pradesh C. Dudhwa National Park 3. Maharashtra D. Bandipur National Park 4. Madhya Pradesh Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    • bA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    • cA-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
    • dA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1సరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because it correctly matches each national park to its respective state. Tadoba National Park: Maharashtra Madhav National Park: Madhya Pradesh Dudhwa National Park: Uttar Pradesh Bandipur National Park: Karnataka Option A: It incorrectly pairs Tadoba with Madhya Pradesh and Madhav with Maharashtra. Option B: It incorrectly associates Dudhwa with Karnataka and Bandipur with Uttar Pradesh. Option C: It incorrectly places Tadoba in Karnataka and Bandipur in Maharashtra.

  34. Q74Natural resources and their distribution

    Consider the following statements regarding 'Manganese' mineral in India: A. Odisha is the state with the highest manganese reserves in India. B. It is an important input in the manufacturing of steel in alloy. C. Pyrolusite is an ore of manganese. D. Gondite and Kodurite deposits are rich in manganese mineral. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bA and B only
    • cA, B and C only
    • dA, B, C and Dసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because all four given statements are factually accurate regarding manganese in India. Odisha accounts for the largest manganese ore reserves in India Manganese is an indispensable alloy element in steel manufacturing to deoxidize and desulfurize Pyrolusite is a primary oxide ore of manganese Gondite and Kodurite rock suites are well-known manganese-bearing geological formations Option A: It excludes statements B, C, and D, all of which are scientifically and factually correct. Option B: It ignores pyrolusite as an ore and the geological classification of Gondite and Kodurite deposits. Option C: It fails to recognize the manganese-rich Gondite and Kodurite series as valid formations.

  35. Q75Natural resources and their distribution

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: India has high solar power generation potential. Statement II: India has 250 to 300 clear sunny days in a year, and the estimated solar energy incidence on India's land area is 5000 trillion kilowatt-hours (Tn kilowatt hour) per year. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

    • aStatement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement Iసరైన సమాధానం
    • bStatement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
    • cStatement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
    • dStatement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because India's geographical advantage of receiving 250 to 300 sunny days and vast solar insolation annually is the direct physical reason for its high solar power generation potential. Option B: It fails to recognize that the solar insolation figures directly provide the logical and physical justification for India's high solar potential. Option C: It marks Statement II as incorrect, despite the cited figures being the official estimates of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Option D: It incorrectly marks Statement I as false, whereas India is globally recognized for its massive solar potential.

  36. Q76Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

    The terms 'Aus', 'Aman' and 'Boro' are related to which crop grown in a year?

    • aThree wheat crops grown in Punjab
    • bThree rice crops grown in West Bengalసరైన సమాధానం
    • cThree cotton crops grown in Maharashtra
    • dThree maize crops grown in Rajasthan
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because 'Aus' (autumn rice), 'Aman' (winter rice), and 'Boro' (summer rice) are the three distinct crops of rice grown in an agricultural year in West Bengal, Assam, and parts of Odisha. Option A: Aus, Aman, and Boro refer to rice rather than wheat, and Punjab does not grow three cycles of wheat in a year. Option C: These terms denote rice cultivation regimes, not cotton crops in Maharashtra. Option D: These terms have no relation to maize cultivation in Rajasthan.

  37. Q77Mapping India: the Survey of India, remote sensing and applied geography

    Consider the following statements regarding Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL): A. It is a road bridge connecting Mumbai city with Navi Mumbai. B. It starts at Worli in South Mumbai, crosses Thane Creek and ends at Chirle village near Nava Sheva. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA onlyసరైన సమాధానం
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because Statement A accurately identifies the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link as a sea bridge connecting Mumbai city with Navi Mumbai, whereas Statement B contains an incorrect western terminus. Option B: Incorrect because Statement B is factually wrong since the bridge begins at Sewri in South Mumbai, not Worli. Option C: Incorrect because Statement B is incorrect, making the option of both statements being correct invalid. Option D: Incorrect because Statement A is entirely correct.

  38. Q78STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    According to Koppen's climate classification, the largest part of Telangana state falls under:

    • aTropical Savanna climate (Aw)సరైన సమాధానం
    • bHumid Subtropical climate (CWa)
    • cMonsoon climate (Am)
    • dHot semi-arid climate (BShw)
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the largest portion of Telangana experiences a Tropical Savanna climate (Aw) under Koppen classification, marked by high temperatures throughout the year and a distinct dry winter season with summer monsoon rains. Option B: Humid Subtropical climate (Cwa) occurs mainly in northern India and the Himalayan foothills. Option C: Monsoon climate (Am) is typical of the high-rainfall western coastal strip of India rather than the interior Deccan plateau. Option D: Hot semi-arid climate (BShw) characterizes parts of the southwestern rain-shadow belt rather than the vast majority of Telangana.

  39. Q79STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    Based on the 2011 Indian Census, arrange the following districts in ascending order according to female literacy (%): A. Nagarkurnool B. Medak C. Jogulamba Gadwal D. Narayanpet E. Wanaparthy Choose the correct order:

    • aC, D, E, B, Aసరైన సమాధానం
    • bD, A, C, E, B
    • cC, D, E, A, B
    • dC, E, D, B, A

    అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

  40. Q80TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

    Consider the following statements: A. Kaleshwar Nala and Bogulavagu irrigation projects are in the Godavari river basin. B. Kodipalli Vagu and Asif Nagar irrigation projects are in the Krishna river basin. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and Bసరైన సమాధానం
    • dNeither A nor B
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because both statements are true; Kaleshwar Nala and Bogulavagu are medium irrigation projects located in the Godavari basin, while Kotipally (Kodipalli) Vagu and Asif Nagar projects are situated in the Krishna river drainage network. Option A: Incorrect because it excludes statement B, which is also geographically correct. Option B: Incorrect because it excludes statement A, which is also geographically correct. Option D: Incorrect because neither statement contains a factual error regarding the river basins.

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