APPSC Group-I Prelims 1994

138 questions from the 1994 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

   Bethamcherla in Andhra Pradesh is famous for what?

   • aKakatiya temples
   • bBirthplace of poet Potana
   • cRiver dam
   • dPrehistoric cavesAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because Bethamcherla is an internationally known prehistoric site in the Kurnool basin, famous for its limestone caves yielding Old Stone Age deposits and bone tools. Option A: Kakatiya temples are concentrated in northern Telangana, not in the Rayalaseema region. Option B: Poet Bammera Potana's birthplace is Bammera village in Jangaon district of Telangana. Option C: Bethamcherla is known for mineral extraction and karst caves, not a prominent river dam.

2. Q2Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

   In which district of Andhra Pradesh was the Bapikonda Buddhist site recently discovered?

   • aGuntur
   • bAnantapur
   • cVisakhapatnamAnswer
   • dSrikakulam
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because Bapikonda is a Buddhist site located on a hillock in Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh, adding to the region's rich concentration of Buddhist heritage along with Thotlakonda and Bavikonda. Option A: Guntur is famous for major sites like Amaravati, Bhattiprolu, and Nagarjunakonda, not Bapikonda. Option B: Anantapur lies in the Rayalaseema region and is not associated with this Buddhist site. Option D: Srikakulam is known for Salihundam and Danavulapadu, not Bapikonda.

3. Q3Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   Who propounded the theory of Pratītyasamutpāda?

   • aAdi Shankaracharya
   • bVardhamana Mahavira
   • cGautama BuddhaAnswer
   • dAjita Kesakambali
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because Pratityasamutpada, the doctrine of dependent origination or conditioned arising, was expounded by Gautama Buddha as the central principle explaining reality and suffering. Option A: Adi Shankaracharya was the champion of Advaita Vedanta and the concept of Maya, not Buddhist Pratityasamutpada. Option B: Vardhamana Mahavira founded the philosophical framework of Anekantavada and the Triratnas in Jainism. Option D: Ajita Kesakambali was an early Indian materialist thinker who denied rebirth, karma, and any spiritual causation.

4. Q4Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   Vajrapana is associated with which religion?

   • aBuddhismAnswer
   • bShaivism
   • cSikhism
   • dJainism
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Vajrapani (the thunderbolt-bearer) is one of the earliest and most prominent Bodhisattvas in Mahayana and Vajrayana Buddhism, symbolizing the Buddha's power. Option B: Shaivism centers on the worship of Lord Shiva and does not feature Bodhisattvas like Vajrapani. Option C: Sikhism is a monotheistic religion founded by Guru Nanak Dev in the fifteenth century CE. Option D: Jainism is centered on the teachings of the Tirthankaras and does not include the Bodhisattva Vajrapani.

5. Q5Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   What is Amaravati famous for?

   • aBuddhist sculptureAnswer
   • bJain sculpture
   • cHindu sculpture
   • dIndo-Islamic sculpture
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Amaravati is internationally celebrated for its great Mahachaitya and exquisite Buddhist relief sculptures carved in distinctive white limestone depicting scenes from the life of Buddha and Jataka tales. Option B: Amaravati was never a principal center for Jain sculptural art. Option C: Although medieval Hindu shrines exist nearby, Amaravati historical global fame stems from its ancient Buddhist monuments. Option D: Indo-Islamic sculpture and architecture arose in India during medieval Sultanate rule, centuries after the heyday of Amaravati art.

6. Q6Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Under whose rule did local self-governance reforms become famous?

   • aKanishka
   • bAshoka
   • cPulakeshin - I
   • dRajaraja CholaAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because local self-governance and village assemblies (Ur, Sabha, and Variyams) reached their peak of systematic organization and fame during the Imperial Chola era, particularly under rulers like Parantaka I and Rajaraja Chola. Option A: Kanishka was a Kushana monarch associated with Buddhist patronage and central governance in North India, not South Indian local self-government. Option B: Ashoka is famous for Dhamma edicts and administrative welfare, but not for the specific institutional village self-governance model referenced here. Option C: Pulakeshin - I was an early Western Chalukyan king known for military conquests and establishing Badami, not for local village autonomy reforms.

7. Q7Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Who was the famous king in the Yadava dynasty?

   • aSinghanaAnswer
   • bRamachandra
   • cVeerarajendra
   • dBhima - II
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Singhana II (Simhana) was the greatest and most powerful monarch of the Yadava (Seuna) dynasty of Devagiri, ruling in the 13th century and expanding the empire across Maharashtra, Karnataka, and parts of Andhra. Option B: Ramachandra was the last prominent Yadava king who was defeated by Alauddin Khalji's forces, marking the decline of the dynasty. Option C: Veerarajendra was an imperial Chola emperor, not a ruler of the Yadava dynasty. Option D: Bhima II belonged to the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty of Gujarat.

8. Q8The Delhi Sultanate

   Significance of the year 712 AD

   • aTimurlang's invasion of Delhi
   • bArabs' invasion of SindhAnswer
   • cShankaracharya died
   • dXuanzang's journey to India
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because in 712 AD, the Arab general Muhammad bin Qasim invaded and conquered Sindh, defeating Raja Dahir and establishing the first Arab Muslim rule in the Indian subcontinent. Option A: Timurlang invaded northern India and sacked Delhi much later, in 1398 AD. Option C: Adi Shankaracharya's traditional period is placed either in the early ninth century or late eighth century, not 712 AD. Option D: Xuanzang traveled across India in the seventh century, between 629 AD and 645 AD, during the reign of Harshavardhana.

9. Q9The Delhi Sultanate

   The 'Grand Trunk Road' was built by.

   • aAkbar
   • bBabur
   • cSher ShahAnswer
   • dAurangzeb
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because Sher Shah Suri developed the great highway known as Sadak-e-Azam, which ran from Sonargaon to the north-western frontiers and was subsequently called the Grand Trunk Road during the British Raj. Option A: Akbar inherited and maintained the imperial road system established by Sher Shah. Option B: Babur spent his brief four-year reign in military campaigns without building major national highways. Option D: Aurangzeb ruled more than a century after the road was laid and focused on southern Deccan campaigns.

10. Q10Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    The king who had the title Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya

    • aKrishnadevarayaAnswer
    • bDevaraya - II
    • cVirupaksha - II
    • dHarihara - II
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Krishnadevaraya assumed the title Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya, meaning the restorer of the Yavana kingdom, after defeating the Sultan of Bijapur and restoring Mahmud Shah Bahmani to the throne at Bidar. Option B: Devaraya - II held the title Gajabetekara, meaning the hunter of elephants, not Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya. Option C: Virupaksha - II was a weak Sangama ruler who did not achieve the military restoration of any Bahmani kingdom. Option D: Harihara - II assumed titles like Maharajadhiraja and Rajaparameshwara, but not Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya.

11. Q11Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Which battle laid the foundation for British rule in India?

    • aFirst Battle of Panipat
    • bCarnatic War
    • cBattle of Talikota
    • dBattle of PlasseyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the British victory at the Battle of Plassey in 1757 over Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah transformed the East India Company from a commercial body into a political power, establishing the bedrock of British rule in India. Option A: The First Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526 between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, establishing the Mughal Empire. Option B: The Carnatic Wars were Anglo-French regional struggles in the Deccan rather than a single decisive engagement establishing British rule over India. Option C: The Battle of Talikota was fought in 1565 and brought about the ruin of the Vijayanagara Empire.

12. Q12Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    When did the Anglo-Padmanabha War take place?

    • a1700 AD
    • b1761 AD
    • c1794 ADAnswer
    • d1798 AD
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Battle of Padmanabham was fought on 10 July 1794 between the forces of the British East India Company led by Colonel Prendergast and Pusapati Chinna Vijayarama Raju II, the Raja of Vizianagaram. Battle of Padmanabham: 10 July 1794 Ruler killed in battle: Pusapati Chinna Vijayarama Raju II Option A: 1700 AD is too early, pre-dating British territorial control in the Northern Circars. Option B: 1761 AD is incorrect as it was the year of the Third Battle of Panipat. Option D: 1798 AD is incorrect because the resistance of Vizianagaram was crushed four years earlier.

13. Q13The Indian National Movement

    Significance of the year 1905?

    • aEstablishment of the Indian National Congress
    • bJallianwala Bagh Massacre
    • cPartition of BengalAnswer
    • dIntroduction of Railways
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Partition of Bengal was carried out by Viceroy Lord Curzon in 1905, triggering widespread protests and the Swadeshi Movement across India. Establishment of the Indian National Congress: 1885 Partition of Bengal: 1905 Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 1919 Introduction of Railways: 1853 Option A: The Indian National Congress was established in December 1885 in Bombay, not 1905. Option B: The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab. Option D: Commercial passenger railways were introduced in India in April 1853 between Bombay and Thane.

14. Q14The Indian National Movement

    Significance of the Chauri Chaura incident?

    • aBeginning of the Non-Cooperation Movement
    • bMahatma Gandhi's emergence as a leader
    • cSuspension of the Non-Cooperation MovementAnswer
    • dHindu-Muslim unity
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the violent clash at Chauri Chaura on 4 February 1922 convinced Mahatma Gandhi that the masses were not yet adequately trained in non-violence, prompting him to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement. Option A: The Non-Cooperation Movement began in 1920, well before the incident took place. Option B: Gandhi had already emerged as the premier leader of the national movement during the Rowlatt Satyagraha and Champaran campaigns. Option D: While Hindu-Muslim unity was an objective of the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation campaigns, Chauri Chaura specifically marked the violent turning point that halted the movement.

15. Q15The Indian National Movement

    What is the name of the village established by Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya during the Chirala-Perala movement?

    • aRampur
    • bRamaraopeta
    • cRamnagarAnswer
    • dSrirampur
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya led the mass exodus of the residents of Chirala and Perala to a new settlement named Ramnagar, situated outside the municipal limits, to protest against the imposition of municipal status and heavy taxes. Option A: Rampur is an incorrect name and was not the settlement created during this struggle. Option B: Ramaraopeta is a locality in Kakinada and has no relation to the Chirala-Perala movement. Option D: Srirampur is an incorrect settlement name not associated with this movement.

16. Q16The Indian National Movement

    Sthanam Narasimha Rao is a famous Telugu

    • aPoet
    • bPainter
    • cStage actorAnswer
    • dSocial reformer
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Sthanam Narasimha Rao was an iconic Telugu stage actor renowned for his mastery of female roles, particularly Satyabhama and Chintamani. Option A: He did not write poetry as his primary vocation. Option B: He was not an artist or painter; his career was entirely committed to theatre. Option D: Although his plays addressed social customs, he was celebrated primarily as a dramatic performer, not an institutional social reformer.

17. Q17The Indian National Movement

    Gudavalli Ramabrahmam is a famous

    • aFarmer leader
    • bMusician
    • cTelugu film directorAnswer
    • dIndustrialist
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Gudavalli Ramabrahmam was a pioneering Telugu film director, producer, and journalist celebrated for socially reformist classics such as Malapilla and Raithu Bidda. Option A: He advocated for peasant issues through cinema and journalism, but his primary identity in cultural history is as a filmmaker. Option B: He was not a musician, though music featured prominently in his theatrical productions and cinema. Option D: He worked in theatre, journalism, and cinema production rather than corporate industry.

18. Q18Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Who was the first Andhra Pradesh poet to use colloquial Telugu in poetry?

    • aUnnava Lakshminarayana
    • bSri SriAnswer
    • cKandukuri Veeresalingam
    • dRallapalli Anantakrishna Sarma
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Sri Sri (Srirangam Srinivasa Rao) revolutionized modern Telugu poetry through 'Maha Prasthanam' by breaking classical meters and effectively deploying colloquial, spoken idiom to express progressive themes. Option A: Unnava Lakshminarayana used spoken dialects primarily in his seminal prose novel 'Malapalli', not as the pioneering poet of colloquial verse. Option C: Kandukuri Veeresalingam championed simple prose, but his poetry remained largely aligned with classical norms. Option D: Rallapalli Anantakrishna Sarma was a traditional scholar, critic, and musicologist rather than a pioneer of colloquial poetry.

19. Q19Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Who is the author of the Telugu novel Malapalli?

    • aUnnava LakshminarayanaAnswer
    • bGurajada Apparao
    • cJashuva
    • dP. Sitaramayya
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Unnava Lakshminarayana wrote the celebrated social novel Malapalli in 1922 while imprisoned in Vellore jail during the Non-Cooperation movement. Option B: Gurajada Apparao is renowned for writing the classic social play Kanyasulkam, not Malapalli. Option C: Gurram Jashuva was a distinguished poet famous for works such as Gabbilam and Firadausi. Option D: P. Sitaramayya was a prominent freedom fighter and historian of the Indian National Congress, not a novelist.

20. Q20Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Who authored the music treatise named 'Vakaparidhi'?

    • aTallapaka AnnamacharyaAnswer
    • bTyagaraja
    • cKshetrayya
    • dBhadrachala Ramadasu
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Tallapaka Annamacharya, reverentially hailed as Andhra Pada-kavita Pitamaha, composed theoretical treatises on music and literature along with his vast corpus of sankirtanas. Option B: Tyagaraja was a prominent Carnatic composer and saint who composed kritis and musical operas such as Nauka Charitram, but did not write this treatise. Option C: Kshetrayya was a master composer of romantic devotional padams rather than theoretical musical treatises. Option D: Bhadrachala Ramadasu was a bhakti vaggeyakara known for his devotion to Lord Rama and devotional keerthanas, not music treatises.

21. Q21Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Who authored the Telugu novel 'Rajasekhara Charitra'?

    • aAdavi Bapiraju
    • bViswanatha Satyanarayana
    • cKandukuri VeeresalingamAnswer
    • dNori Narasimha Sastry
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Kandukuri Veeresalingam authored the novel Rajasekhara Charitra, a pioneering milestone in modern Telugu fiction. Option A: Adavi Bapiraju is celebrated for novels like Narayana Rao, Himabindu, and Gonaganna Reddy. Option B: Viswanatha Satyanarayana wrote monumental works like Veyi Padagalu and Ramayana Kalpavruksham. Option D: Nori Narasimha Sastry was known for historical novels such as Rudrama Devi.

22. Q22Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    The book written by Pabluriki Somana?

    • aManu Charitra
    • bAmuktamalyada
    • cPanditaradhya CharitraAnswer
    • dKeyurabahu Charitra
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Panditaradhya Charitra is a major Shaivite biographical work composed in Dwipada meter by the 12th-13th century poet Palkuriki Somanatha. Option A: Manu Charitra was authored by the Ashtadiggaja poet Allasani Peddana. Option B: Amuktamalyada was composed by the Vijayanagara ruler Sri Krishnadevaraya. Option D: Keyurabahu Charitra was written by the classical poet Manchana.

23. Q23The Preamble

    What is the basis of political power in this country?

    • aStatement, State Assemblies
    • bParliament
    • cPeopleAnswer
    • dConstitution
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constitution of India is founded on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, meaning that all political power and sovereign authority originate from the people. Option A: State Assemblies are regional legislative organs created by the Constitution, not the foundational source of political power. Option B: Parliament derives its powers from the Constitution, which itself derives its legitimacy from the will of the people. Option D: The Constitution is the supreme legal framework of the country, but the ultimate basis of political power behind it is the people.

24. Q24Fundamental Rights

    Under which Article of the Constitution can a person appeal to the Supreme Court regarding the violation of fundamental rights?

    • aArticle 13
    • bArticle 14
    • cArticle 32Answer
    • dArticle 34
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 32 grants the right to approach the Supreme Court directly by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Article 13 declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Article 32 provides remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights via Supreme Court writs. Article 34 restricts Fundamental Rights while martial law is in force. Option A: Article 13 establishes the doctrine of judicial review over unconstitutional laws but does not prescribe the procedure for appealing to the Supreme Court. Option B: Article 14 is a substantive right guaranteeing equality, not the procedural mechanism to invoke the Supreme Court's jurisdiction. Option D: Article 34 deals with the power of Parliament to indemnify persons in service during martial law.

25. Q25Fundamental Rights

    Article 21 during the period of emergency

    • aIs suspended by presidential orders
    • bArticle 21 is not suspended, but its enforcement is suspended
    • cRemains in forceAnswer
    • dIs automatically suspended
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because after the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, Article 359 explicitly bars the President from suspending the right to move any court for the enforcement of Article 21, meaning the right to life and personal liberty remains in force and fully enforceable during an emergency. Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty. Article 359: Empowers the President to suspend enforcement of Part III rights, except Articles 20 and 21. 44th Amendment Act, 1978: Added the safeguard ensuring Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended. Option A: Option A is wrong because the President has no constitutional power to suspend Article 21 or its enforcement. Option B: Option B is wrong because neither Article 21 nor its judicial enforcement is suspended during an emergency. Option D: Option D is wrong because only the six freedoms under Article 19 are subject to automatic suspension under Article 358, not Article 21.

26. Q26Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    In which Part of the Constitution are the Directive Principles contained?

    • aPart - I
    • bPart - II
    • cPart - III
    • dPart - IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy spanning Articles 36 to 51. Part I: The Union and its Territory Part II: Citizenship Part III: Fundamental Rights Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy Option A: Part I deals with the territory of the Union, not Directive Principles. Option B: Part II deals with citizenship rules and provisions. Option C: Part III contains the justiciable Fundamental Rights.

27. Q27Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    What is not included in Article 41 related to Directive Principles?

    • aRight to work
    • bRight to shelterAnswer
    • cRight to education
    • dRight to public assistance
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 41 specifically directs the State to secure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in certain cases, but it does not mention the right to shelter. Article 41 guarantees the right to work. Article 41 guarantees the right to education. Article 41 guarantees the right to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement. Option A: is expressly enumerated as one of the rights under Article 41. Option C: is explicitly stated in the text of Article 41. Option D: is explicitly mentioned in Article 41 for cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement.

28. Q28Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    The reason for the conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is

    • aWritten Constitution
    • bThe judiciary's desire to infuse political ideology
    • cSocial and economic inequalityAnswer
    • dLack of farsighted leaders
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the State's legislative measures to tackle entrenched social and economic inequality often conflicted with individual Fundamental Rights, particularly property rights. Option A: A written Constitution is merely the legal framework and does not generate socioeconomic conflict by itself. Option B: The judiciary interprets constitutional provisions to resolve disputes rather than acting to infuse political ideology. Option D: The Constitution was drafted by far-sighted leaders who intentionally included both sets of provisions to transform Indian society.

29. Q29Amendment and the basic structure

    Who has the power to repeal Fundamental Rights?

    • aParliamentAnswer
    • bSupreme Court
    • cPresident
    • dPrime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because only Parliament holds the constituent power under Article 368 to amend, alter, or repeal provisions of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, provided such changes do not violate the basic structure. Option B: the Supreme Court interprets the Constitution and exercises judicial review, but it lacks the constituent power to amend or repeal provisions. Option C: the President acts as the executive head and gives assent to bills passed by Parliament, but cannot repeal rights independently. Option D: the Prime Minister is the head of the Union Council of Ministers and possesses no independent legislative or constituent authority.

30. Q30Amendment and the basic structure

    The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 is related to what?

    • aPanchayatsAnswer
    • bMunicipalities
    • cMore powers for state governments
    • dElection Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule into the Constitution, granting constitutional status and protections to Panchayati Raj institutions. Option B: Municipalities were accorded constitutional status by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Option C: More powers for state governments is an issue of federal relations, not the subject matter of the 73rd Amendment. Option D: The Election Commission is governed primarily under Article 324 and related provisions, not the 73rd Amendment.

31. Q31The Union executive

    Status of the President of India

    • aHead of StateAnswer
    • bHead of Government
    • cHead of State and Government
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the President of India is the ceremonial and constitutional Head of State representing the nation, whereas the Prime Minister is the Head of Government. Option B: Head of Government is the Prime Minister, who leads the executive branch and the Council of Ministers. Option C: India follows a parliamentary system with a split executive where the Head of State and Head of Government are separate authorities. Option D: Option A correctly reflects the status defined by the Constitution.

32. Q32The Union executive

    On whose recommendation can the President be removed from office before the expiry of the term?

    • aSupreme Court
    • bChief Justice of India
    • cUnion Council of Ministers
    • dBoth Houses of ParliamentAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under Article 61 of the Indian Constitution, the President can be removed from office before the expiry of their term through the process of impeachment carried out by both Houses of Parliament. Article 61(1): Either House of Parliament can initiate an impeachment charge for violation of the Constitution Article 61(2): Notice signed by at least one-fourth of members and passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership Article 61(4): Resolution passed by the other House by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership removes the President Option A: The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction to remove or recommend the removal of the President; its role is limited to inquiring into presidential election disputes under Article 71. Option B: The Chief Justice of India administers the oath of office but possesses no constitutional power regarding impeachment. Option C: The Union Council of Ministers aids and advises the President but cannot vote or initiate resolutions to remove the President.

33. Q33Parliament and the state legislatures

    In which state are there no bicameral legislatures?

    • aRajasthanAnswer
    • bMaharashtra
    • cBihar
    • dUttar Pradesh
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Rajasthan has a unicameral legislature consisting solely of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly. Option B: Maharashtra has a bicameral legislature comprising the Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council. Option C: Bihar has a bicameral legislature consisting of both houses. Option D: Uttar Pradesh operates a bicameral legislature with the largest Legislative Council in India.

34. Q34Parliament and the state legislatures

    Who has the authority to control the expenditure of the Government of India?

    • aParliament
    • bPrime Minister
    • cLok SabhaAnswer
    • dFinance Minister

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

35. Q35Parliament and the state legislatures

    Who was the JPC Chairman who conducted the Soumya inquiry?

    • aGurudasupa
    • bRabi
    • cRam Niwas MirdhaAnswer
    • dGeorge Fernandes
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Ram Niwas Mirdha served as the Chairman of the Joint Parliamentary Committee appointed in 1992 to investigate irregularities in securities and banking transactions. Option A: Gurudas Dasgupta was an active member of the Joint Parliamentary Committee investigating the securities transactions, not its chairman. Option B: Rabi Ray served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1989 to 1991 and did not head this committee. Option D: George Fernandes was a prominent opposition leader and Union Minister at various times, but he never chaired this committee.

36. Q36The judiciary

    The ultimate interpreter of the Indian Constitution is

    • aPresident
    • bLok Sabha Speaker
    • cParliament
    • dSupreme CourtAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution and the final, ultimate authority on the interpretation of constitutional provisions. Option A: The President is the executive head bound by constitutional interpretations rendered by the judiciary. Option B: The Lok Sabha Speaker regulates the business and procedures of the House and does not interpret the Constitution for the nation. Option C: Parliament holds amending and legislative powers, but its enactments remain subject to the Supreme Court's interpretation and judicial review.

37. Q37The judiciary

    Who appoints the Chief Justice of the High Court?

    • aPrime Minister
    • bMinister of Law
    • cPresidentAnswer
    • dGovernor
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the President of India is the constitutional authority who appoints the Chief Justice of a High Court under Article 217. Article 217 Clause 1 vests the power to appoint the Chief Justice and judges of a High Court in the President. Option A: Prime Minister does not possess the constitutional power to appoint judges of the higher judiciary. Option B: Minister of Law participates in the administrative process but does not have the appointing authority. Option D: Governor is only consulted by the President during the appointment process and does not make the appointment.

38. Q38The state government

    In which region of Jammu and Kashmir was the Autonomous Hill Council established?

    • aLehAnswer
    • bGilgit
    • cPoonch
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council, Leh was constituted in 1995 to provide local self-governance and address the developmental needs of the high-altitude region. Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council Act was passed in 1995. LAHDC Leh was established under this Act in 1995. LAHDC Kargil was later established in 2003. Option B: Gilgit is part of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir and has never been under the direct administrative setup of the Jammu and Kashmir government for establishing an autonomous hill council. Option C: Poonch is a border district in the Jammu division governed by regular district administrative structures without an autonomous hill council. Option D: None of the above is incorrect because an autonomous hill council was established in Leh.

39. Q39The state government

    Which state is not related to the special provision in Part XI of the Constitution?

    • aMaharashtra
    • bGujarat
    • cRajasthanAnswer
    • dMizoram
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Rajasthan is not covered under any of the special provisions for states listed in the Constitution under Part XXI. Article 371 covers Maharashtra and Gujarat Article 371-G covers Mizoram Part XXI contains special provisions for eleven distinct states but excludes Rajasthan Option A: Maharashtra is covered under Article 371 for establishing separate development boards. Option B: Gujarat is covered under Article 371 for establishing separate development boards. Option D: Mizoram is covered under Article 371-G for protecting its customary traditions and land rights.

40. Q40Federalism and centre-state relations

    The formation of new states and changes in the boundaries of existing states are done by?

    • aPresident of India
    • bConcerned state
    • cAct of ParliamentAnswer
    • dParliament with the approval of not less than half of the state legislatures
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 3 of the Constitution empowers Parliament alone to form new States and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States by enacting an ordinary law. Article 3: Parliament may by law form a new State or alter the boundaries or name of any State Article 4: Laws under Article 3 are passed by a simple majority and are not deemed constitutional amendments under Article 368 Option A: The President recommends the introduction of the bill but does not have the constitutional authority to change boundaries. Option B: A State Legislature can only express its views on the proposal, which are not binding on Parliament. Option D: Approval or ratification by half of the state legislatures is not required for altering state boundaries.