APPSC Group-I Prelims 1995

138 questions from the 1995 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Local government and decentralisation

    The committee that first suggested the introduction of Panchayati Raj in India.

    • aAshok Mehta Committee
    • bVithal Committee
    • cC.V.K. Rao Committee
    • dBalwant Rai Mehta CommitteeAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was the earliest official committee to suggest the creation of a three-tier Panchayati Raj setup in India. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee: 1957 Ashok Mehta Committee: 1977 G.V.K. Rao Committee: 1985 Option A: The Ashok Mehta Committee was set up in 1977, long after the initial introduction of Panchayati Raj. Option B: The Vithal Committee reviewed Panchayati Raj finances in Andhra Pradesh in the 1970s, not the original pioneer. Option C: The G.V.K. Rao Committee was formed in 1985 to look into administrative arrangements for rural development.

42. Q42Local government and decentralisation

    The constitutional amendment related to urban local bodies in India?

    • a64th Amendment
    • b72nd Amendment
    • c73rd Amendment
    • d74th AmendmentAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 introduced Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule to give constitutional status and protection to Urban Local Bodies in India. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992: Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (Rural Local Bodies) 74th Amendment Act, 1992: Constitutional status to Municipalities (Urban Local Bodies) Option A: 64th Amendment was a bill introduced in 1989 for Panchayati Raj that was not passed by the Rajya Sabha. Option B: 72nd Amendment Act, 1992 relates to the reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of Tripura. Option C: 73rd Amendment relates exclusively to rural local bodies (Panchayati Raj Institutions), not urban local bodies.

43. Q43Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Among the following officers, whose service conditions cannot be changed as long as they are in office?

    • aChairman of the Finance Commission
    • bChairman of the Union Public Service Commission
    • cComptroller and Auditor General
    • dAll the above officersAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

44. Q44Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The increase in salaries and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is....

    • apaid by the Union Ministry of Finance
    • bpaid by the President
    • cpaid from the Consolidated Fund of IndiaAnswer
    • dapproved by Parliament
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constitution specifies that the administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 148(6) mandates that the administrative expenses of the office of the CAG are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India Charged expenditure is non-votable by Parliament Option A: The Ministry of Finance does not independently pay or vote on these funds; they are charged by constitutional mandate. Option B: The President does not pay the salaries from executive discretion; they are legally charged on the Consolidated Fund. Option D: Salaries and allowances are charged upon the Consolidated Fund and not submitted to the vote of Parliament.

45. Q45Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Which institution, even without constitutional status, has become very powerful in the country's development affairs?

    • aPlanning CommissionAnswer
    • bFinance Commission
    • cCabinet Secretariat
    • dPrime Minister's Secretariat
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Planning Commission, despite lacking constitutional or statutory backing, exercised vast executive influence over national Five-Year Plans and state capital resource allocations. Option B: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280. Option C: The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretarial assistance to the Union Cabinet rather than directing national development policy. Option D: The Prime Minister's Secretariat was an administrative office assisting the Prime Minister, not an institution dedicated to developmental planning.

46. Q46Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The institution that coordinates the development schemes implemented by various states.

    • aPlanning Commission
    • bNational Development CouncilAnswer
    • cRegional Council
    • dMinistry of Rural Development
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the National Development Council was set up in August 1952 as the apex body to coordinate policies, evaluate national plans, and harmonize development schemes implemented across various states. Option A: The Planning Commission formulated plans and allocated funds, but the NDC served as the superior coordinating forum between the Centre and the states. Option C: Zonal or Regional Councils deal with inter-state disputes and broad regional cooperation, not comprehensive national development schemes. Option D: The Ministry of Rural Development administers specific rural welfare programs rather than coordinating broader state development plans.

47. Q47Parties, elections and representation

    The person who examines the nomination papers of various candidates and allocates election symbols in Parliament elections.

    • aChief Electoral Officer
    • bState Chief Electoral Officer
    • cConstituency Returning OfficerAnswer
    • dSecretary of the Election Commissioner
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Returning Officer of the constituency is the statutory authority under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 responsible for scrutinising nomination papers and allotting symbols to validly nominated candidates. Option A: The Chief Electoral Officer supervises election operations across an entire state or union territory rather than scrutinising constituency-level nominations. Option B: The State Chief Electoral Officer exercises administrative oversight at the state level and does not scrutinise nomination papers. Option D: The Secretary of the Election Commission handles administrative duties at the Commission headquarters and does not allot symbols or scrutinise nominations.

48. Q48Public policy and governance

    Who is the chairman of the Jain Commission?

    • aJustice K.S. Singh
    • bJustice A.N. Verma
    • cJustice R.N. SarkariaAnswer
    • dJustice S.R. Pandyan

    Explanation coming soon.

49. Q49Economic data, indices and state rankings

    In recent years, which of the following has the highest per capita income?

    • aPunjab
    • bHaryana
    • cDelhiAnswer
    • dWest Bengal
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Delhi consistently registers a significantly higher per capita income than Punjab, Haryana, and West Bengal due to its concentrated urban services economy. Option A: Punjab has a per capita income substantially lower than that of Delhi. Option B: Haryana has a high per capita income among large states, but it is still lower than the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Option D: West Bengal trails far behind Delhi in net state domestic product per capita.

50. Q50Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    In the following context, India undertook planning to achieve growth with justice.

    • aWhen millions of refugees came from Pakistan
    • bWhen India was declared a sovereign democratic republic in 1950Answer
    • cWhen agricultural production growth declined
    • dWhen India gained independence
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the adoption of the Constitution in 1950 and the declaration of India as a sovereign democratic republic established the Directive Principles of State Policy, which mandated the state to promote welfare and achieve growth with social justice through centralized planning. Option A: The refugee crisis from Pakistan led to emergency relief and resettlement initiatives rather than the institutional adoption of Five Year Plans for growth with justice. Option C: Agricultural production fluctuations influenced individual plan priorities but did not provide the overarching constitutional context for adopting planning. Option D: Independence in 1947 started the political transition, but the institutional commitment and machinery for planning emerged after India became a republic in 1950.

51. Q51Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Indicative planning was introduced during the following plan period.

    • aFifth Five Year Plan
    • bSeventh Five Year Plan
    • cEighth Five Year PlanAnswer
    • dSixth Five Year Plan
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because indicative planning was formally adopted during the Eighth Five-Year Plan following the structural economic reforms and liberalization of 1991. Option A: The Fifth Five-Year Plan focused on poverty eradication (Garibi Hatao) and self-reliance under a directive planning model. Option B: The Seventh Five-Year Plan emphasized food, work, and productivity within a traditional state-led framework. Option D: The Sixth Five-Year Plan relied on centralized direct resource allocation and poverty alleviation rather than indicative mechanisms.

52. Q52Population, poverty and work

    Which of the following statements is correct?

    • aIndia's poverty problem is a problem of absolute poverty.Answer
    • bIndia's poverty problem arose due to the prevailing caste system.
    • cIndia's poverty problem arose due to income distribution disparities.
    • dIndia's poverty problem exists due to the poverty problem of the United States of America.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the poverty problem in developing countries like India is predominantly one of absolute poverty, where large numbers of people are unable to attain basic necessities required for physical survival. Option B: Caste hierarchy creates social inequalities and exclusion, but it is not the sole comprehensive cause of India's poverty. Option C: Income distribution disparities define relative poverty and economic inequality, which is secondary to India's primary challenge of absolute deprivation. Option D: The economic status or poverty conditions of the United States have no causal connection to the existence of poverty in India.

53. Q53Population, poverty and work

    Jawahar Rozgar Yojana?

    • aRegional Development Programme
    • bPoverty Alleviation ProgrammeAnswer
    • cElectricity Development Programme
    • dEnvironmental Protection Programme
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was launched in 1989 as a major rural poverty alleviation programme designed to generate supplementary wage employment for the rural poor. Option A: Regional Development Programme is incorrect because JRY targeted individual rural poor households nationwide rather than regional imbalances. Option C: Electricity Development Programme is incorrect because rural electrification was governed by distinct power sector schemes. Option D: Environmental Protection Programme is incorrect because JRY was an employment and infrastructure programme, not an environmental conservation initiative.

54. Q54Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Currently, the following institution recommends minimum support prices in India.

    • aAgricultural Prices Commission (A.P.C.)
    • bGovernment of India
    • cAgriculture Department of the Planning Commission
    • dCommission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (C.A.C.P.)Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is the expert body mandated to analyse production costs and recommend Minimum Support Prices to the Central Government. Option A: Agricultural Prices Commission was the former name of the body before it was reconstituted and renamed as CACP in 1985. Option B: Government of India fixes and announces the MSP through the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, but it does not recommend it. Option C: Agriculture Department of the Planning Commission never held the mandate to recommend agricultural support prices.

55. Q55Industry in the Indian economy

    Which of the following states is highly developed industrially?

    • aAndhra Pradesh
    • bWest Bengal
    • cMaharashtraAnswer
    • dGujarat
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Maharashtra is India's leading industrial state, contributing the largest share to the country's Gross State Domestic Product, manufacturing value added, and industrial output. Option A: Andhra Pradesh has significant industrial growth in pharmaceuticals and auto components, but its overall industrial base is considerably smaller than Maharashtra. Option B: West Bengal was an early industrial hub but experienced substantial relative de-industrialisation and industrial stagnation in subsequent decades. Option D: Gujarat is among the most highly industrialised states, but Maharashtra consistently ranks first in overall industrial output and financial services capital.

56. Q56Money, banking and financial markets

    Monetary policy is the policy of one of the following.

    • aCentral Bank of India
    • bReserve Bank of IndiaAnswer
    • cScheduled Banks
    • dPublic Sector Banks
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of the country mandated with formulating and implementing the monetary policy to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Option A: Central Bank of India is a public sector commercial bank, not the central monetary authority. Option C: Scheduled Banks are commercial or cooperative financial institutions that adhere to monetary policy rather than formulating it. Option D: Public Sector Banks are commercial banks owned predominantly by the government and have no authority to formulate national monetary policy.

57. Q57Money, banking and financial markets

    Who among the following is most severely affected by inflation?

    • aMiddle-class people
    • bPoor, unemployed, and assetless peopleAnswer
    • cRural people
    • dUrban people
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because poor, unemployed, and assetless individuals lack indexed wages, savings buffers, and appreciating physical assets, leaving them entirely exposed to the erosion of purchasing power. Option A: Middle-class people generally earn regular salaries and possess modest financial or physical assets that provide partial relief against price rises. Option C: Rural people include farmers and landholders who can benefit from rising market prices for their agricultural produce. Option D: Urban people mostly belong to the organized workforce where compensation packages frequently include cost-of-living or dearness allowances.

58. Q58Money, banking and financial markets

    Most goods have a tendency for price increases.

    • aStandard of living is improving
    • bPeople are becoming rich.
    • cEconomic situation is improving
    • dPopulation growth is higher than goodsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because when population growth outpaces the growth in the output and availability of goods, aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, exerting upward pressure on market prices. Option A: Standard of living can improve through technological progress and higher productivity without causing prices to rise. Option B: People becoming rich represents wealth accumulation, which does not drive general price increases unless aggregate demand outstrips aggregate supply. Option C: An improving economic situation often expands production capacities and supply chains, which acts to stabilise prices rather than force them up.

59. Q59Public finance and the budget

    An example of an indirect tax?

    • aExcise dutyAnswer
    • bEstate duty
    • cIncome tax
    • dWealth tax
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because excise duty is an indirect tax levied on the manufacture or production of goods within the country, where the liability to pay can be shifted from the manufacturer to the final consumer. Option B: Estate duty is a direct tax formerly levied on the total value of property passing on the death of a person. Option C: Income tax is a direct tax paid directly by an individual or entity to the government based on their earnings. Option D: Wealth tax is a direct tax charged on the net market value of taxable assets owned by a taxpayer.

60. Q60Public finance and the budget

    Which of the following taxes gives the highest net revenue to the Government of India?

    • aImport and export duties
    • bExcise duties
    • cIncome tax
    • dCorporation taxAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Corporation Tax, which is levied on the net profits of domestic and foreign companies, has historically yielded the highest net tax revenue to the Government of India among the conventional taxes listed. Option A: Import and export duties account for a much smaller portion of Union revenue following extensive tariff reductions under trade liberalization. Option B: Excise duties have generated lower net collections than corporate taxes, particularly after the restructuring of central commodity taxes. Option C: Personal income tax collections have traditionally remained below corporate tax collections in the standard reference periods tested by the commission.

61. Q61Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    The era to which the Himalayan mountain system belongs.

    • aPrecambrian
    • bPaleozoic
    • cMesozoic
    • dTertiaryAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Himalayas are young fold mountains that formed during the Alpine-Himalayan orogeny in the Tertiary period of the Cenozoic era due to the collision between the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates. Option A: It represents the oldest geological time span, during which ancient peninsular shield rocks formed, not the young Himalayan ranges. Option B: It witnessed the Caledonian and Hercynian mountain-building phases, which predate the formation of the Himalayas. Option C: It was the era when the Tethys geosyncline accumulated sediments, but the actual uplift of the Himalayas occurred later during the Tertiary period.

62. Q62Soils, vegetation and wildlife

    Which of the following soils is infertile?

    • aBlack soil
    • bAlluvial soil
    • cLaterite soilAnswer
    • dRed soil
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because laterite soils undergo intense leaching due to heavy tropical rainfall and high temperatures, which strips them of soluble bases, lime, and organic matter, rendering them acidic and naturally infertile. Option A: Black soil is incorrect because it is rich in clay, lime, iron, and magnesium, making it highly fertile and suitable for cotton farming. Option B: Alluvial soil is incorrect because it is replenished by annual river silt deposition and is among the most fertile soils in India. Option D: Red soil is incorrect because, although poor in nitrogen and phosphorus, it is far less severely leached than laterite and responds well to fertilizers.

63. Q63India: physiography, drainage and climate

    The reason for the formation of Indian monsoons.

    • aDue to water and land not heating up uniformlyAnswer
    • bDue to cold winds from Central Asia
    • cDue to uniform temperature
    • dNot due to any of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the fundamental driver of the Indian monsoon is the differential heating and cooling of the landmass relative to the surrounding Indian Ocean, which establishes a steep pressure gradient that draws moisture-laden oceanic winds inward. Option B: Cold winds from Central Asia are blocked by the Himalayas and do not generate the monsoon. Option C: Uniform temperatures would negate the thermal gradient needed to drive large-scale seasonal wind reversals. Option D: The differential heating of land and water is the established primary cause, making this option incorrect.

64. Q64India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Which state among the following is not affected by the influence of monsoons?

    • aTamil Nadu
    • bOdisha
    • cAndhra Pradesh
    • dUttar PradeshAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

65. Q65Natural resources and their distribution

    Name the state among the following in India that has the highest mineral wealth.

    • aRajasthanAnswer
    • bMadhya Pradesh
    • cTamil Nadu
    • dBihar
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Rajasthan possesses the greatest diversity and value of mineral reserves among the choices, producing more than 80 different minerals and holding a near-monopoly in resources like lead, zinc, and gypsum. Option B: Madhya Pradesh possesses significant resources of diamond and copper, but its overall mineral diversity and output value are lower than Rajasthan. Option C: Tamil Nadu is known for lignite and heavy mineral beach sands, but lacks the wide spectrum of metallic and non-metallic wealth found in Rajasthan. Option D: Bihar was left with meager mineral wealth after its resource-rich southern plateau region was separated to create Jharkhand in 2000.

66. Q66Natural resources and their distribution

    The rocks where the highest amount of coal is found in India.

    • aDharwar rocks
    • bUpper Gondwana rocks
    • cLower Gondwana rocksAnswer
    • dVindhya mountains
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Lower Gondwana rocks, particularly the Damuda series encompassing the Barakar and Raniganj stages, contain more than 98 percent of India's total coal deposits. Option A: Dharwar rocks are ancient crystalline metamorphic formations rich in metallic minerals such as iron and manganese, but completely devoid of coal. Option B: Upper Gondwana rocks contain predominantly terrestrial sandstones and clays with negligible, non-commercial coal seams. Option D: Vindhya mountains are composed of sedimentary rocks like sandstone, limestone, and shale formed before the evolution of land plants, hence containing no coal.

67. Q67Natural resources and their distribution

    The reason for the groundwater suitability for canal irrigation in the Northern Plains regions.

    • aDue to porous soil
    • bDue to the high level of underground water
    • cDue to the water source of perennial riversAnswer
    • dDue to high population density
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because canals in the Northern Plains depend on perennial rivers originating in the Himalayas that maintain continuous flow throughout the year, sustaining canal systems and recharging groundwater. Option A: Porous soil affects infiltration rates, but without perennial water sources, canal systems cannot remain functional and sustainable. Option B: High underground water levels are largely a result of canal seepage and river systems, not the underlying cause for canal feasibility. Option D: High population density creates high water demand but does not provide the hydrologic suitability for canal irrigation.

68. Q68Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

    Tehri Dam is being constructed on this river.

    • aGanga
    • bBrahmaputra
    • cBhagirathiAnswer
    • dYamuna
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Tehri Dam, the highest dam in India, is built on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand. Option A: The Ganga officially forms downstream at Devprayag where the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers merge. Option B: The Brahmaputra flows through Tibet, Arunachal Pradesh, and Assam, far from the Tehri project. Option D: The Yamuna flows further west and is home to projects like the Lakhwar and Kishau dams.

69. Q69Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

    Which state among the following benefits most from the Sardar Sarovar Project?

    • aMaharashtra
    • bGujaratAnswer
    • cMadhya Pradesh
    • dRajasthan
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Gujarat is the principal beneficiary of the Sardar Sarovar Project, receiving the vast majority of irrigation coverage across drought-prone areas like Saurashtra and Kutch, as well as domestic drinking water for thousands of villages. Option A: Maharashtra primarily receives power generation entitlements rather than substantial irrigation benefits. Option C: Madhya Pradesh has large submergence and hydropower shares, but Gujarat receives the predominant irrigation and drinking water benefits. Option D: Rajasthan receives a minor, tail-end allocation of irrigation water through the main canal.

70. Q70Transport, communication, trade and tourism

    Which cities among the ones mentioned below does the longest passenger train route in India connect?

    • aThiruvananthapuram, Guwahati
    • bJammu Tawi, Guwahati
    • cKanyakumari, Jammu TawiAnswer
    • dFrom Howrah to Bombay via Allahabad
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because among the options listed, the Himsagar Express connecting Kanyakumari and Jammu Tawi covers the longest passenger train route, spanning approximately 3,787 km. Kanyakumari to Jammu Tawi: about 3,787 km Thiruvananthapuram to Guwahati: about 3,552 km Guwahati to Jammu Tawi: about 2,700 km Howrah to Bombay via Allahabad: about 2,150 km Option A: The rail distance between Thiruvananthapuram and Guwahati is about 3,552 km, which is shorter than the Kanyakumari-Jammu Tawi route. Option B: The rail route from Jammu Tawi to Guwahati covers roughly 2,700 km, which is significantly shorter than the route in Option C. Option D: The historical Howrah to Mumbai route via Allahabad covers around 2,150 km, which is far shorter than the trans-national routes.

71. Q71World regional geography

    What is the name of the place with the highest coffee production center in the world?

    • aBirmingham
    • bTokyo
    • cDetroitAnswer
    • dBerlin

    Explanation coming soon.

72. Q72Climate change: policy and response

    Among the following chemicals used in refrigerators, which one is harmful to the ozone layer in the atmosphere?

    • aAmmonia
    • bFreon gasAnswer
    • cCarbon dioxide
    • dNitrogen
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Freon gas is a commercial trade name for chlorofluorocarbons and hydrochlorofluorocarbons, which release chlorine atoms upon exposure to stratospheric ultraviolet light, leading to catalytic ozone breakdown. Option A: Ammonia has an ozone depletion potential of zero because it contains no chlorine or bromine atoms. Option C: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas contributing to global warming, but it does not cause chemical destruction of the stratospheric ozone layer. Option D: Nitrogen is an inert diatomic atmospheric gas that does not deplete stratospheric ozone.

73. Q73Environmental law, institutions and treaties

    What is named Rainbow Warrior?

    • aAmerican Naval Flagship
    • bRussian Submarine
    • cGreenpeace FlagshipAnswer
    • dOcean Research Vessel
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Rainbow Warrior was the active flagship vessel operated by the international non-governmental environmental organization Greenpeace. Option A: American Naval Flagship is incorrect as the vessel was privately owned and operated for environmental activism, not naval warfare. Option B: Russian Submarine is incorrect because Rainbow Warrior was a civilian motor trawler converted for environmental campaigns. Option D: Ocean Research Vessel is incorrect because the ship was famous for direct-action campaigning against whaling, seal hunting, and nuclear testing, not general oceanographic research.

74. Q74Science, technology and society

    What is the name of the science that studies aging?

    • aCraniology
    • bOdontology
    • cGynaecology
    • dGerontologyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because gerontology is the multidisciplinary scientific study of the aging process, old age, and the biological, psychological, and social changes that occur with aging. Option A: Craniology is the study of the shape and characteristics of the skull. Option B: Odontology is the branch of science dedicated to teeth, their structure, and their diseases. Option C: Gynaecology is the medical field focusing on the female reproductive system.

75. Q75Science, technology and society

    The name of the scientific method for destroying bacteria in milk.

    • aSterilization
    • bPurification
    • cPasteurizationAnswer
    • dFermentation
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because pasteurization is the thermal process invented by Louis Pasteur in which milk is heated to a designated temperature for a set duration and then cooled rapidly to destroy disease-causing bacteria without altering its nutritional value. Option A: refers to the destruction of all microbial life including spores, which is not the standard preservation process for commercial milk as it affects flavor. Option B: is a generic term for removing impurities rather than a specific thermal process designed to kill milk-borne pathogens. Option D: is a metabolic process in which microorganisms convert carbohydrates into acids, gases, or alcohol, which causes milk to sour rather than preserving it.

76. Q76Space technology

    Name of the place where Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre is located?

    • aSriharikota
    • bAhmedabad
    • cThiruvananthapuramAnswer
    • dPune
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), the main centre of ISRO for launch vehicle design and development, is situated in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. Option A: It indicates the barrier island in Andhra Pradesh that houses the Satish Dhawan Space Centre launch complex. Option B: It specifies the city containing the Space Applications Centre and the Physical Research Laboratory. Option D: It names an educational and defence hub that does not host VSSC.

77. Q77Defence technology

    Name of the short-range surface-to-surface missile introduced in the Indian armed forces in the year 1994.

    • aPinaka
    • bPrithviAnswer
    • cNag
    • dAkash
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Prithvi (specifically Prithvi-I) is a short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme and inducted into the Indian Army in 1994. Option A: Pinaka is a multi-barrel rocket launcher system, not a surface-to-surface guided ballistic missile inducted in 1994. Option C: Nag is a third-generation anti-tank guided missile, not a short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile. Option D: Akash is a medium-range surface-to-air missile system.

78. Q78Defence technology

    What is the name given to the unmanned aircraft built domestically by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)?

    • aLakshyaAnswer
    • bIndra
    • cAgni
    • dVarun
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Lakshya is a remotely piloted high-speed target drone system indigenously designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment of DRDO. Option B: Indra is a series of 2D mobile surveillance radars developed by DRDO for target detection, not an aircraft. Option C: Agni is a family of medium- to intercontinental-range ballistic missiles developed by DRDO, not an unmanned aircraft. Option D: Varun is not a DRDO-developed unmanned aircraft.

79. Q79Information and communication technology

    The company that first introduced the micro-processor chip?

    • aMotorola
    • bIBM
    • cTexas Instruments
    • dIntelAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Intel released the world's first commercial single-chip microprocessor, the Intel 4004, in November 1971. Option A: Motorola introduced its first microprocessor, the 6800, in 1974, several years after Intel. Option B: IBM manufactured large computer systems and later adopted microprocessors, but did not introduce the first microprocessor chip. Option C: Texas Instruments developed integrated circuits and microcontrollers, but Intel was the first to market a commercial microprocessor chip.

80. Q80Nuclear technology

    To protect nuclear reactors from the fission stage, these are used.

    • aCadmium rodsAnswer
    • bCarbon rods
    • cHeavy water
    • dAluminum rods
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because cadmium has an exceptionally high neutron absorption cross-section, allowing cadmium control rods to be inserted into the reactor core to absorb neutrons and halt or regulate the fission chain reaction. Option B: Carbon rods or graphite blocks act primarily as moderators to slow down neutrons rather than as absorbing rods to halt fission. Option C: Heavy water acts as a moderator and coolant, functioning to thermalize neutrons rather than stop the fission process. Option D: Aluminum has a very low neutron absorption capability and is used for structural cladding, not for controlling or stopping fission.