APPSC Group-I Prelims 1999

24 questions from the 1999 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

   Who, among the following, has not attempted the decipherment of the Harappan script ?

   • aIravatham Mahadevan
   • bRam Sharan SharmaAnswer
   • cS. R. Rao
   • dFather Heras
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Ram Sharan Sharma was a prominent Marxist historian of ancient and early medieval India who focused on socio-economic history and feudalism rather than epigraphic attempts to decipher the Harappan script. Option A: Renowned epigraphist who spent decades analyzing and attempting to decipher the Harappan script using Dravidian parallels. Option C: Archaeologist who excavated Lothal and claimed to have deciphered the Harappan script as an early Indo-Aryan language. Option D: Pioneer scholar who attempted a Proto-Dravidian decipherment of the Indus script.

2. Q2The Mauryan Empire

   Who was the founder of the Mauryan Dynasty?

   • aChandragupta MauryAnswer
   • bAsoka
   • cBindusara
   • dSkandagupta
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire in 322 BCE after overthrowing Dhana Nanda, the last ruler of the Nanda dynasty, with the assistance of Chanakya. Option B: Ashoka was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya and the third ruler of the dynasty. Option C: Bindusara was the son and direct successor of Chandragupta Maurya. Option D: Skandagupta was a monarch belonging to the imperial Gupta dynasty, not the Mauryan dynasty.

3. Q3The Mauryan Empire

   Asoka's victory over Kalinga is mentioned in

   • aRock Edict XIIIAnswer
   • bRock Edict XII
   • cSepacate Kalinga Ed
   • dArthasatra
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Major Rock Edict XIII provides a vivid personal account of Ashoka's conquest of Kalinga, expressing his deep sorrow over the bloodshed and his subsequent shift to Dhammavijaya. Option B: Major Rock Edict XII is dedicated to religious tolerance and respect among different sects. Option C: The Separate Kalinga Edicts (at Dhauli and Jaugada) describe principles of administrative justice and paternal governance toward subjects, not the conquest itself. Option D: Kautilya's Arthashastra is a treatise on statecraft written earlier and does not record Ashoka's historical campaign in Kalinga.

4. Q4The Delhi Sultanate

   Who among the following is the author of ‘Dayabhaga’ ?

   • aVigneswara
   • bKulluk Bhatta
   • cVisvarutra
   • dJimutavahanaAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because Jimutavahana authored Dayabhaga, an influential treatise on Hindu law concerning property inheritance that became the guiding legal code in Bengal and Assam. Option A: Vigneswara authored the Mitakshara, the opposing school of Hindu law on joint family property. Option B: Kulluk Bhatta was an eminent commentator on the Manusmriti, producing the Manvartha-muktavali. Option C: Visvarutra was an early legal scholar who wrote a commentary on the Yajnavalkya Smriti.

5. Q5Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

   ............... was the Prime Minister of England, when India became independent.

   • aChurchill
   • bAttleeAnswer
   • cChamberlain
   • dWilson
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Clement Attlee of the Labour Party served as the British Prime Minister from July 1945 to October 1951, overseeing the passage of the Indian Independence Act 1947. Option A: Churchill headed the wartime coalition government until his defeat in the July 1945 general election. Option C: Chamberlain was the Prime Minister from 1937 to 1940, well before the transfer of power. Option D: Wilson served as Prime Minister much later, during the 1960s and 1970s.

6. Q6Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

   India made its first atomic explosion in

   • a1951
   • b1961
   • c1974Answer
   • d1984
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because India conducted its first successful nuclear detonation, code-named Operation Smiling Buddha, on 18 May 1974 at the Pokhran test range in Rajasthan. Option A: 1951 marked the launch of India's First Five-Year Plan, decades before nuclear testing capability was realized. Option B: 1961 was the year of the liberation of Goa and the first NAM summit, not a nuclear explosion. Option D: 1984 was the year of Operation Blue Star; India's second series of nuclear tests occurred in 1998.

7. Q7Fundamental Rights

   Judicial Remedy whereby the State inquires into the legality of detaining a person is better known as

   • aHabeas CorpusAnswer
   • bCertiorari
   • cMandamus
   • dQuo Warranto
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Habeas Corpus literally translates to 'to have the body of', and functions as a judicial remedy to inspect the lawful grounds of a person's detention. Option B: Certiorari is issued to quash the order of an inferior court or tribunal, not to assess unlawful detention. Option C: Mandamus is a judicial order commanding a public authority to perform a statutory duty. Option D: Quo Warranto is issued to examine the validity of a person's claim to a public office.

8. Q8Amendment and the basic structure

   Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is related to the abolition of titles and special privileges of the former rulers of princely states?

   • a24th Amendment
   • b26th AmendmentAnswer
   • c42th Amendment
   • dNone of the above
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because the 26th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971 omitted Articles 291 and 362, thereby abolishing the privy purses, titles, and privileges granted to former rulers of princely states. Option A: 24th Amendment reaffirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights. Option C: 42nd Amendment made widespread changes during the Emergency, including modifying the Preamble and adding Fundamental Duties. Option D: None of the above is incorrect because the 26th Amendment is the precise amendment that abolished these privileges.

9. Q9Amendment and the basic structure

   Through which amendment and in which year was the voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years in India?

   • a54th Amendment, 1991
   • b76th Amendment, 1996
   • c61st Amendment, 1989Answer
   • d57th Amendment, 1986
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act amended Article 326 to lower the voting age for Lok Sabha and legislative assembly elections from 21 to 18 years, taking effect in 1989. Article 326 governs elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies 61st Constitutional Amendment Act passed in 1988 Enforced on 28 March 1989 Option A: The 54th Amendment of 1986 revised the salaries of Supreme Court and High Court judges. Option B: The 76th Amendment of 1994 included the Tamil Nadu reservation act under the Ninth Schedule. Option D: The 57th Amendment of 1987 provided for tribal reservations in northeastern state assemblies.

10. Q10Parliament and the state legislatures

    Which Lok Sabha was dissolved after a vote of no confidence motion against the V.P. Singh Government in 1991?

    • a7th Lok Sabha
    • b8th Lok Sabha
    • c9th Lok SabhaAnswer
    • d11th Lok Sabha
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the 9th Lok Sabha was dissolved in 1991 following the defeat of the V.P. Singh government on a confidence motion in late 1990 and the subsequent collapse of the successor government. 9th Lok Sabha duration: December 1989 to March 1991 V.P. Singh confidence vote lost: November 1990 Dissolution of 9th Lok Sabha: March 1991 Option A: 7th Lok Sabha lasted from 1980 to 1984 under the Congress government. Option B: 8th Lok Sabha completed its full term from 1984 to 1989 under Rajiv Gandhi. Option D: 11th Lok Sabha existed from 1996 to 1997, well after the events of 1990 and 1991.

11. Q11Parliament and the state legislatures

    When an advance grant is made by the Parliament, pending the regular passage of the Budget, it is called

    • aVote on - accountAnswer
    • bToken grant
    • cSupplementary grant
    • dVote on credit
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a Vote on Account is an advance grant made by Parliament under Article 116(1)(a) to cover government expenditure until the regular budget and Appropriation Bill are passed. Article 116(1)(a): Vote on account for advance expenditure Article 116(1)(b): Vote of credit for unexpected demands Article 115(1)(a): Supplementary grant when original funds are insufficient Token grant: Sanction for a new service met through reallocation Option B: A token grant is obtained to execute a new service where the expenditure is met by reappropriation of savings rather than fresh advance funds. Option C: A supplementary grant is sought when the amount authorised for a service in the regular budget is found to be insufficient. Option D: A vote on credit is granted for unexpected national demands that cannot be stated with budget details.

12. Q12The state government

    When there is no majority party in State Legislative Assembly, the principal consideration governing the choice of the Chief Minister by Governor of the State is the for

    • aability of the person who is most likely to command a stable majorityAnswer
    • blargest political party int he Legislative Assembly
    • cthe combination of several parties as a unit
    • dthe loyalty and support of the party members of their respective party programmes
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because in a hung assembly, the primary constitutional duty and discretionary power of the Governor is to appoint a person who is most capable of securing and commanding a stable majority in the Legislative Assembly. Option B: Merely leading the single largest party does not guarantee the ability to secure a confidence vote or form a stable government. Option C: A combination of parties is only chosen if it actually demonstrates the numbers to command a majority. Option D: Internal party discipline and programmatic loyalty are internal political affairs, not constitutional criteria for the Governor's selection.

13. Q13Federalism and centre-state relations

    Sarkaria Commission Owas set up reviewing the relations between

    • aThe Prime Minister and President
    • bLegislature and Executive
    • cExecutive and the Judiciary
    • dCentre and the StatesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1983 with the specific mandate to examine and review the working of existing arrangements between the Union and the States. Option A: Misstates the mandate, as the commission did not examine executive relationships within the Union government. Option B: Pertains to separation of powers rather than the federal distribution of powers examined by the commission. Option C: Pertains to inter-branch relations rather than federal Centre-State relations.

14. Q14Local government and decentralisation

    Which of the following committees on Panchayati Raj institutions recommended the setting up of Social Justice Committees in Zilla Parishads for the effective functioning of local bodies?

    • aThe Administrative Reforms Committee
    • bThe Ashok Mehta CommitteeAnswer
    • cThe Vengal Rao Committee
    • dThe Santhanam Committee
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Ashok Mehta Committee (1978) specifically recommended the formation of Social Justice Committees within Zilla Parishads to safeguard and promote the socio-economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections. Option A: The Administrative Reforms Commission did not make this specific institutional recommendation for Zilla Parishads. Option C: The Vengal Rao Committee investigated Panchayati Raj functioning in Andhra Pradesh but is not credited with this seminal institutional proposal. Option D: The Santhanam Committee (1963) dealt primarily with Panchayati Raj finances and prevention of corruption.

15. Q15Local government and decentralisation

    The present pattern of Panchayat owes its parentage to

    • aAshok Mehta Committee
    • bBalwantrai Mehta CommitteeAnswer
    • cVasanth Rao Naik Committee
    • dRajamannar Committee
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (appointed in 1957) submitted its report recommending a three-tier democratic decentralization system (Panchayati Raj), which became the structural blueprint for modern Panchayati Raj in India. Option A: Ashok Mehta Committee recommended a two-tier model, which was not the foundational pattern adopted. Option C: Vasantrao Naik Committee was a state-level committee in Maharashtra established to evaluate the Balwant Rai Mehta framework. Option D: Rajamannar Committee dealt with Centre-State relations, not rural local governance.

16. Q16Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The principles concerning the provisions of the grants - in - aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India are recommended by the

    • aFinance CommissionAnswer
    • bPlanning Commission
    • cNational Development Council
    • dAdministrative Reforms Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Article 280(3)(b) tasks the Finance Commission with recommending the principles that govern grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States from the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 280(3)(b): principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States Article 275: statutory grants-in-aid out of the Consolidated Fund of India Option B: Planning Commission allocated discretionary plan assistance without statutory authority under Article 280. Option C: National Development Council reviewed Five-Year Plans and did not formulate statutory grants-in-aid principles. Option D: Administrative Reforms Commission suggests administrative reorganizations and does not handle fiscal transfers.

17. Q17Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Who among the following is the Chairman of the National Commission for SC and ST?

    • aB. S. Ramoowalia
    • bRam Vilas Paswan
    • cH. HanumanthappaAnswer
    • dNone of these
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because H. Hanumanthappa served as the Chairman of the combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes between 1995 and 1998. 65th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1990: Created the multi-member National Commission for SC and ST H. Hanumanthappa: Served as Chairman from October 1995 to October 1998 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003: Bifurcated the body into two distinct commissions under Articles 338 and 338A Option A: B. S. Ramoowalia was a Union Minister for Welfare and also served in the National Commission for Minorities, not as the head of this commission. Option B: Ram Vilas Paswan was a prominent parliamentarian and cabinet minister but never held the office of Chairman of this constitutional commission. Option D: H. Hanumanthappa served as the Chairman, making the selection of none of these factually incorrect.

18. Q18India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which one of the following posts has been newly created by the UN General Assembly?

    • aSecretary - General
    • bDeputy Secretary - GeneralAnswer
    • cPresident
    • dVice - President
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the post of Deputy Secretary-General was newly established by the UN General Assembly in December 1997 through resolution 52/12 B to assist the Secretary-General in handling major administrative and developmental operations. Option A: is wrong because the office of the Secretary-General is a principal post established under the original UN Charter of 1945. Option C: is wrong because the office of the President of the General Assembly was created at the inception of the UN in 1945. Option D: is wrong because Vice-Presidents of the General Assembly were established alongside the Assembly itself in 1945 to preside over sessions in the President's absence.

19. Q19India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which one of the following is not a member ofG-15?

    • aChile
    • bKenya
    • cNigeria
    • dPakistanAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Pakistan is not, and has never been, a member of the Group of 15 (G-15). Option A: Chile is an official member of the G-15 from Latin America. Option B: Kenya is an official member of the G-15 from Africa. Option C: Nigeria is a founding member of the G-15 from Africa.

20. Q20Other countries' constitutions: presidential and parliamentary systems compared

    In which country dominant role in country?

    • aEnglandAnswer
    • bCanada
    • cIndia
    • dSwitzerland

    Explanation coming soon.

21. Q21India state by state: capitals, districts and where places are

    'Bhitargaon' is situated in the state of ?

    • aUttar PradeshAnswer
    • bMadhya Pradesh
    • cAndhra Pradesh
    • dBihar
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Bhitargaon, renowned for its ancient Gupta-era terraced brick temple, is situated in the Kanpur district of Uttar Pradesh. Option B: Madhya Pradesh is incorrect because prominent Gupta temples there are found at Tigawa and Nachna, not Bhitargaon. Option C: Andhra Pradesh is incorrect because Bhitargaon is located in the northern Gangetic plain. Option D: Bihar is incorrect because Bhitargaon does not belong to the eastern plains of Magadha.

22. Q22People: appointments, honours and passings

    Who is the President of Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) ?

    • aVenkayya Naidu
    • bKushabhau ThakreAnswer
    • cAtal Bihari Vajapayee
    • dMurali Manohar Joshi

    Explanation coming soon.

23. Q23People: appointments, honours and passings

    Who has been selected for the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 1997 ?

    • aRonald Reagan
    • bJimmy CarterAnswer
    • cKofi Annan
    • dGeorge Bush
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because former United States President Jimmy Carter was conferred the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 1997 for his global efforts towards conflict resolution and human rights. Option A: Ronald Reagan was never selected for the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize. Option C: Kofi Annan received the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2003, not 1997. Option D: George Bush was never awarded the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize.

24. Q24Events, summits and observances

    In myanmar the pro-democracy leader Ms. Aung San Suu Kyi is the leader of the

    • aNational Congress for
    • bNational League
    • cNational League for DemocracyAnswer
    • dLeague for Democracy
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Aung San Suu Kyi is the co-founder and long-time leader of the National League for Democracy (NLD), a major political party in Myanmar. Formation of the party: 27 September 1988 Full official party name: National League for Democracy (NLD) Option A: National Congress for is an incomplete and incorrect title for her party. Option B: National League omits the essential words for Democracy. Option D: League for Democracy lacks the word National in the party's registered name.