APPSC Group-I Prelims 2002

284 questions from the 2002 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Name the only Indian Prime Minister who never faced Parliament during his tenure?

    • aChaudhary Charan SinghAnswer
    • bAtal Bihari Vajpayee
    • cChandrashekhar
    • dVishwanath Pratap Singh
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Chaudhary Charan Singh served as Prime Minister from July 1979 to January 1980 and resigned before the Lok Sabha could convene, making him the only Prime Minister who never faced Parliament. Option B: Atal Bihari Vajpayee faced Parliament repeatedly across his three terms, including during confidence and no-confidence motions. Option C: Chandrashekhar faced Parliament during his tenure from 1990 to 1991 and proved his majority on the floor of the Lok Sabha. Option D: Vishwanath Pratap Singh faced Parliament during his tenure and stepped down after losing a vote of confidence on the floor of the House.

42. Q42Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    In which of the following years did India's first nuclear test take place?

    • a1951
    • b1961
    • c1974Answer
    • d1984
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because India conducted its first nuclear detonation test at the Pokhran test site in Rajasthan on 18 May 1974. Option A: 1951 is incorrect because India's nuclear program was in its initial developmental stage under Homi Bhabha and had not conducted any tests. Option B: 1961 is incorrect because India had not developed or detonated a nuclear explosive device at that time. Option D: 1984 is incorrect because India's first nuclear test had already taken place a decade earlier in 1974.

43. Q43Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Who declared the year 1999 as the 'Year of the Jawans' to change the situations in the military field and to face future events?

    • aGeorge Fernandes
    • bLal Krishna Advani
    • cAtal Bihari Vajpayee
    • dGeneral V.P. MalikAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because General V. P. Malik, as the Chief of the Army Staff of the Indian Army, declared the year 1999 as the 'Year of the Jawan' to enhance soldier welfare and operational focus. Option A: George Fernandes was the Union Minister of Defence and did not make this internal military service declaration. Option B: Lal Krishna Advani served as the Union Home Minister and was not associated with Army service themes. Option C: Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister and did not officially issue this institutional military declaration.

44. Q44Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Durgapur Steel Plant was built with whose cooperation?

    • aSoviet Union
    • bFrance
    • cBritainAnswer
    • dGermany
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Durgapur Steel Plant in West Bengal was set up during the Second Five-Year Plan with technological and financial assistance from the United Kingdom. Rourkela Steel Plant: West Germany Bhilai Steel Plant: Soviet Union Durgapur Steel Plant: Britain Bokaro Steel Plant: Soviet Union Option A: Soviet Union collaborated on the Bhilai and Bokaro plants, not Durgapur. Option B: France did not assist in setting up any of India's Second Five-Year Plan steel plants. Option D: Germany provided technological cooperation for the Rourkela Steel Plant in Odisha.

45. Q45Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Who was the first woman Vice-Chancellor selected for Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences?

    • aDr. S. KanthaAnswer
    • bDr. R.V. Patil
    • cDr. M.C. Modi
    • dDr. M.S. Joshi
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Dr. S. Kantha was appointed as the first Vice-Chancellor of Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences (RGUHS), Bengaluru, when it was established in 1996. Option B: Dr. R.V. Patil is an incorrect name not associated with this founding post. Option C: Dr. M.C. Modi was a renowned Indian eye surgeon famous for performing mass eye surgeries, not the first VC of RGUHS. Option D: Dr. M.S. Joshi is an incorrect option and was never the Vice-Chancellor of RGUHS.

46. Q46History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    Einstein received the Nobel Prize for his work on......

    • aPhotoelectric effectAnswer
    • bRelativity
    • cBose-Einstein statistics
    • dBrownian motion
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Albert Einstein was awarded the 1921 Nobel Prize in Physics specifically for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect, which established the particle nature of light. Option B: The Nobel Committee considered the theories of relativity too controversial and insufficiently supported by experimental proof at the time. Option C: Bose-Einstein statistics was formulated in 1924, years after Einstein received his 1921 Nobel Prize. Option D: Einstein explained Brownian motion in 1905, but this was not cited by the Nobel Committee as the basis of his prize.

47. Q47Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Which of the following is a work by Kancharla Gopanna?

    • aSumati Shatakam
    • bBhaskara Shatakam
    • cDasarathi ShatakamAnswer
    • dVemana Shatakam
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Dasarathi Shatakam, a collection of devotional verses dedicated to Lord Rama of Bhadrachalam, was composed by Kancharla Gopanna, also celebrated as Bhakta Ramadasu. Option A: Sumati Shatakam is a famous didactic work composed by Baddena. Option B: Bhaskara Shatakam was authored by Marana Venkaiah under the pen name Bhaskara. Option D: Vemana Shatakam is a compilation of philosophical and moral verses composed by Yogi Vemana.

48. Q48Living traditions: temples, communities and social custom

    Farmers in Egypt are called by the following name?

    • aRemayins
    • bFellahinsAnswer
    • cBushmen
    • dTuaregs
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Fellahins is the traditional term used across Egypt and the Arab world to describe peasant farmers and agricultural laborers. Option A: Remayins is not an authentic ethnic or occupational designation for Egyptian agriculturalists. Option C: Bushmen are indigenous hunter-gatherer communities of Southern Africa. Option D: Tuaregs are nomadic pastoralists inhabiting the Saharan interior, not Egyptian settled cultivators.

49. Q49Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Which of the following had the greatest influence on the Indian Constitution?

    • aGovernment of India Act, 1935Answer
    • bU.S.A. Constitution
    • cBritish Constitution
    • dUnited Nations Charter
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Government of India Act, 1935 had the most profound impact on the Indian Constitution, directly supplying the federal scheme, the judiciary, governor offices, and emergency provisions. Option B: The US Constitution influenced the Bill of Rights and judicial independence, which form a smaller proportion of the text compared to the 1935 Act. Option C: The British Constitution provided the parliamentary form of government and rule of law, but the structural machinery was heavily drawn from the 1935 Act. Option D: The United Nations Charter is an international treaty that provided general human rights ideals, not constitutional machinery.

50. Q50The Preamble

    What is the main source of political power in India?

    • aPeopleAnswer
    • bConstitution
    • cParliament
    • dParliament and State Legislatures
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Preamble begins with the phrase We, the People of India, establishing that ultimate political sovereignty and power emanate from the citizens. Option B: The Constitution is the supreme law, but it derives its legitimacy and authority directly from the people. Option C: Parliament exercises derived legislative authority under the Constitution, not original sovereign political power. Option D: Parliament and State Legislatures are representative governing bodies created by the Constitution rather than the ultimate source of power.

51. Q51The Preamble

    What is the source of political power in India?

    • aConstitution
    • bParliament
    • cPeopleAnswer
    • dPresident
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the doctrine of popular sovereignty affirms that the people of India are the fundamental source of all political power. Option A: The Constitution is the foundational legal document of governance, but it is enacted and ordained by the people. Option B: Parliament derives its authority through democratic elections conducted among the citizenry. Option D: The President is the formal constitutional head of the Union, deriving executive power through the constitutional framework.

52. Q52Fundamental Rights

    Which of the following rights was considered by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution?

    • aRight to Freedom of Speech
    • bRight to Constitutional RemediesAnswer
    • cRight to Equality
    • dRight to Freedom of Religion
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Dr. B.R. Ambedkar termed the Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32 as the very heart and soul of the Constitution, since no fundamental right can be meaningful without an effective mechanism for judicial enforcement. Article 32 provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies. Option A: It refers to Article 19(1)(a), which is vital but was not referred to with this specific famous phrase by Dr. Ambedkar. Option C: It covers Articles 14 to 18, which form the bedrock of democratic values but are distinct from this specific designation. Option D: It covers Articles 25 to 28, which guarantee secular freedom of conscience rather than the overarching enforcement machinery.

53. Q53Fundamental Rights

    What is the legal remedy implemented by the government to inquire whether a person's detention is lawful or not?

    • aHabeas CorpusAnswer
    • bCertiorari
    • cMandamus
    • dQuo Warranto
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Habeas Corpus is the primary judicial remedy used to investigate whether a person has been deprived of personal liberty through lawful means or detained illegally. Option B: Certiorari is issued to quash the decision of an inferior court or tribunal acting without or in excess of jurisdiction. Option C: Mandamus is used to enforce the performance of a mandatory statutory or public duty. Option D: Quo Warranto is used to challenge a person holding a public office without lawful authority.

54. Q54Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    In which of the following states is the Uniform Civil Code in force?

    • aDelhi
    • bRajasthan
    • cMaharashtra
    • dGoaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Goa retained the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 after liberation, making it the only Indian state where a common civil code governs all communities irrespective of religion. Option A: Follows religious community-based personal laws rather than a Uniform Civil Code. Option B: Follows personal laws based on religion for marriage, succession, and adoption. Option C: Follows separate personal laws applicable across different religious groups.

55. Q55Amendment and the basic structure

    Among the following, which is not a basic feature of the Constitution?

    • aFederalism
    • bSecularism
    • cJudicial Review
    • dJudicial ActivismAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because judicial activism is a method of dynamic judicial interpretation and public interest adjudication, rather than an entrenched basic feature of the Indian Constitution. Option A: Federalism is a recognized basic feature affirmed in the S.R. Bommai case. Option B: Secularism is an established basic feature of the Constitution declared in Kesavananda Bharati and S.R. Bommai. Option C: Judicial Review was explicitly held to be a basic feature in cases like Minerva Mills and L. Chandra Kumar.

56. Q56The Union executive

    Among the following who served as Presidents, who refused to sign the Indian Post Office Amendment Bill?

    • aDr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
    • bGiani Zail SinghAnswer
    • cDr. Zakir Husain
    • dSri R. Venkataraman
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because President Giani Zail Singh refused to sign the Indian Post Office Amendment Bill in 1986 by exercising a pocket veto, keeping the bill pending indefinitely. 1986 Indian Post Office Amendment Bill was passed by Parliament 1986 President Giani Zail Singh exercised pocket veto by taking no action on the bill 1989 President R. Venkataraman returned the bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration Option A: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan served as President from 1962 to 1967, well before the postal bill controversy of 1986. Option C: Dr. Zakir Husain served as President from 1967 to 1969 and had no involvement with this 1986 legislation. Option D: Sri R. Venkataraman returned the bill to Parliament in 1989, but the initial refusal to sign through pocket veto was exercised by Giani Zail Singh.

57. Q57The Union executive

    Which of the following is true regarding the Prime Minister of India?

    • aThe President appoints the Prime MinisterAnswer
    • bParliament elects the Prime Minister
    • cThe Lok Sabha elects the Prime Minister
    • dThe Prime Minister acts as the leader of the parliamentary party in the Lok Sabha
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Constitution unambiguously specifies that the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. Article 75(1): The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. Option B: Parliament as a collective body does not elect the Prime Minister; the post is filled by appointment by the President. Option C: The Lok Sabha does not hold an election to choose the Prime Minister; it only tests the confidence of the executive. Option D: The Prime Minister may be a member of either House of Parliament, so they do not inherently serve as the leader of the parliamentary party in the Lok Sabha if they belong to the Rajya Sabha.

58. Q58Parliament and the state legislatures

    What is the total number of members in the Lok Sabha?

    • a150
    • b542Answer
    • c450
    • d600
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because 542 is the closest option reflecting the operational membership of the Lok Sabha, specifically corresponding to the number of seats contested during the 2019 general elections. Constitutional maximum strength under Article 81: 550 members Actual elected membership across the nation: 543 members Seats contested in the initial phase of the 2019 general election: 542 members Option A: 150 falls far below the constitutional minimum and actual size of the House. Option C: 450 significantly undercounts the actual representation of parliamentary constituencies. Option D: 600 exceeds the constitutional limit permissible for the Lok Sabha.

59. Q59Parliament and the state legislatures

    Among the following, who achieved the distinction of being the first to hold the status of a recognized opposition leader in the Lok Sabha?

    • aA.K. Gopalan
    • bY.B. ChavanAnswer
    • cSyama Prasad Mookerjee
    • dIndira Gandhi
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Y.B. Chavan became the first formally recognized Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha in 1977, following the statutory recognition granted by the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. Option A: A.K. Gopalan led the Communist group in the first Lok Sabha, but his party lacked the requisite 10 percent of total seats and was not officially recognized as the Opposition Leader. Option C: Syama Prasad Mookerjee was the founder of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh and an opposition figure, but was never officially recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. Option D: Indira Gandhi served as the Leader of the Opposition later, from 1977 to 1978, after Y.B. Chavan.

60. Q60Parliament and the state legislatures

    What is the quorum required for a Lok Sabha meeting?

    • a50 percent of all members
    • b25 percent of all members
    • c15 percent of all members
    • d10 percent of all membersAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the quorum to constitute a sitting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members. Article 100(3) of the Constitution sets the quorum at one-tenth of total membership. Lok Sabha quorum requires 10 percent of the total members present. Option A: 50 percent is an excessively high requirement far beyond constitutional provisions. Option B: 25 percent does not reflect the constitutional quorum rule. Option C: 15 percent is not the required fraction specified in the Constitution.

61. Q61Parliament and the state legislatures

    The advance payment sanctioned by the Parliament even before the general budget is approved in the Parliament is referred to as the following?

    • aVote on AccountAnswer
    • bToken Grant
    • cAdditional Grant
    • dVote on Credit
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a Vote on Account allows the Lok Sabha to authorize the executive to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India in advance to cover expenditure until the full budget is formally passed. Article 116(a) provides for the Vote on Account. It meets short-term expenditure requirements before the Appropriation Bill is enacted. Option B: A token grant is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service are available by re-appropriation, requiring a nominal sum. Option C: An additional grant is sanctioned when an unforeseen need emerges during the year for which no provision was made in the budget. Option D: A vote on credit is granted for meeting unexpected demands upon the resources of India whose details cannot be stated with ordinary precision.

62. Q62Parliament and the state legislatures

    Mark with the Senate on the bill.

    • aPlanning Commission
    • bNational Development Council
    • cDeputy Prime Minister
    • dLok SabhaAnswer

    Explanation coming soon.

63. Q63Parliament and the state legislatures

    When both houses meet together to carry out the legislative process, which of the following high officials presides over it?

    • aPresident of India
    • bVice-President
    • cSpeaker of Lok SabhaAnswer
    • dSenior most member of Parliament
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. Article 118(4): Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting. Rule 5 of the Joint Sittings Rules: In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides, followed by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Option A: The President summons the joint sitting under Article 108 but does not preside over it. Option B: The Vice-President is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and cannot preside over a joint sitting because he is not a member of either House. Option D: Seniority of membership does not determine who presides over a joint sitting.

64. Q64The state government

    When no political party gets a majority in the State Legislature, what is the main thing the Governor should consider for the election of the Chief Minister?

    • aSearching for a capable person who has the possibility of getting a stable majorityAnswer
    • bThe largest political party in the State Legislature
    • cThe largest coalition of many parties
    • dThe loyalty of its members to the party program
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because in a hung assembly situation, the primary constitutional duty of the Governor is to identify and invite a leader who has the best prospect of securing a vote of confidence and giving the state a stable government. Option B: The largest single party may be explored first, but it is not chosen if it lacks the capacity to secure a majority. Option C: Coalitions are considered, but forming the largest group is secondary to the actual ability to demonstrate a stable majority. Option D: Party program loyalty is an internal political matter and not a constitutional criterion for appointing the Chief Minister.

65. Q65Federalism and centre-state relations

    Appointments to All India Services are made by

    • aThe President of IndiaAnswer
    • bGovernors of the states to which the appointments belong
    • cUnion Public Service Commission
    • dPublic Service Commissions of the states to which the appointments belong
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the President of India is the constitutional appointing authority for members of the All India Services. Article 311: Civil servants cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to their appointing authority All India Services recruitment rules: Formal warrants of appointment are issued in the name of the President of India Option B: State Governors only assign cadres and state postings but do not hold the power to appoint officers into the All India Services. Option C: The Union Public Service Commission is solely a recruiting and recommending body, not the appointing authority. Option D: State Public Service Commissions conduct recruitment only for state civil services, not All India Services.

66. Q66Federalism and centre-state relations

    The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the relations between which of the following?

    • aBetween the Prime Minister and the President
    • bBetween the Legislature and the Executive
    • cBetween the Executive and the Judiciary
    • dBetween the Centre and the StatesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the Central Government in June 1983 specifically to review and examine the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States across all spheres. Option A: The relationship between the Prime Minister and the President is governed by constitutional provisions such as Articles 74, 75, and 78, not the mandate of this commission. Option B: The relationship between the Legislature and the Executive concerns the parliamentary system of governance and horizontal separation of powers, which was not the subject of this inquiry. Option C: The relationship between the Executive and the Judiciary pertains to judicial appointments and independence, falling outside the purview of the Sarkaria Commission.

67. Q67Federalism and centre-state relations

    A proclamation of constitutional emergency leads to what?

    • aPresident's Rule / Governor's RuleAnswer
    • bTemporary suspension of right to freedom
    • cCut in employees' salaries
    • dConduct of interim elections
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because an emergency declared on the grounds of the failure of constitutional machinery in a state under Article 356 is commonly termed President's Rule or Governor's Rule. Option B: Temporary suspension of rights under Article 19 occurs during a National Emergency under Article 352, not a constitutional emergency. Option C: Salary reductions for state or union employees are authorized during a Financial Emergency under Article 360. Option D: Interim elections are not an automatic legal result of imposing President's Rule.

68. Q68Local government and decentralisation

    Democratic decentralization based on Panchayat Raj systems was recommended by

    • aBalwant Rai Mehta CommitteeAnswer
    • bMahalanobis Committee
    • cAshok Mehta Committee
    • dGadgil Committee
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the phrase and concept of democratic decentralization was first recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1957, laying the foundation for the three-tier Panchayati Raj system. Option B: Mahalanobis Committee was constituted to examine national income distribution and economic concentration, having no role in local governance. Option C: Ashok Mehta Committee reviewed Panchayati Raj in 1978 and suggested a two-tier model, but it was not the originator of the democratic decentralization framework. Option D: Gadgil Committee formulated the criteria for allocating central plan assistance to states, not institutional decentralization.

69. Q69Local government and decentralisation

    What is the origin of the current Panchayati Raj system?

    • aAshok Mehta Committee
    • bBalwant Rai Mehta CommitteeAnswer
    • cVasantrao Naik Committee
    • dRajamannar Committee
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the modern Panchayati Raj system originated from the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957), which proposed the establishment of a three-tier structure comprising Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, and Zilla Parishads. Option A: Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted in 1977 and suggested a two-tier model, not the original three-tier structure. Option C: Vasantrao Naik Committee was appointed by the Maharashtra government in 1960 to operationalize the Balwant Rai Mehta model locally. Option D: Rajamannar Committee was formed by the Tamil Nadu government in 1969 to examine Centre-State administrative relations.

70. Q70Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Constitutionally, who has the power to determine the states' tax shares?

    • aMinistry of Finance
    • bFinance CommissionAnswer
    • cPlanning Commission
    • dNational Development Council
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Constitution confers the power to determine the states' tax shares upon the Finance Commission under Article 280(3)(a). Article 280(3)(a): allocation between the States of the respective shares of net proceeds Article 270: sharing of Union taxes between Union and States Option A: Ministry of Finance executes budgetary disbursements but does not constitutionally determine the allocation formula. Option C: Planning Commission was an extra-constitutional body responsible for national development plans, not constitutional tax shares. Option D: National Development Council was a deliberative body for five-year plans with no role in tax devolution.

71. Q71Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Who was the chairman of the 11th Finance Commission?

    • aK.C. Pant
    • bM.N. Ahluwalia
    • cA.M. KhusroAnswer
    • dBrahmananda Reddy
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because renowned economist Professor A.M. Khusro was appointed as the Chairman of the Eleventh Finance Commission, covering the award period 2000 to 2005. Tenth Finance Commission Chairman: K.C. Pant Eleventh Finance Commission Chairman: A.M. Khusro Twelfth Finance Commission Chairman: C. Rangarajan Option A: K.C. Pant served as the Chairman of the Tenth Finance Commission, not the Eleventh. Option B: M.N. Ahluwalia was never appointed as the Chairman of any Finance Commission. Option D: Brahmananda Reddy served as the Chairman of the Sixth Finance Commission in 1972.

72. Q72Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The principles that determine the amount sanctioned to the states from the Consolidated Fund of India are recommended by the following institution?

    • aFinance CommissionAnswer
    • bPlanning Commission
    • cNational Development Council
    • dAdministrative Reforms Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Article 280(3)(b) of the Constitution of India mandates the Finance Commission to recommend the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 280(3)(a): Recommendations on sharing of net tax proceeds between the Union and States Article 280(3)(b): Principles governing grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India Option B: The Planning Commission was an extra-constitutional body that allocated plan assistance, not the constitutional grants-in-aid under Article 280. Option C: The National Development Council was an apex deliberation forum for five-year plans rather than a recommendatory authority on constitutional financial transfers. Option D: The Administrative Reforms Commission examines the organizational framework and administrative efficiency of governance, not fiscal devolution to the states.

73. Q73Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Who among the following was selected as the Director General of the National Human Rights Commission?

    • aM.S. Venkatachaliah
    • bS.K. Poof
    • cD.R. KarthikeyanAnswer
    • dS.K. Srivastava
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because D.R. Karthikeyan, a distinguished IPS officer who headed the SIT that investigated the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case, served as the Director General (Investigation) of the National Human Rights Commission. Option A: M.S. Venkatachaliah was a former Chief Justice of India who served as the Chairperson of the NHRC, not its Director General. Option B: S.K. Poof is an incorrect and fictitious option. Option D: S.K. Srivastava did not serve as the Director General of the NHRC.

74. Q74Parties, elections and representation

    Who is the President of the Bharatiya Janata Party?

    • aVenkaiah Naidu
    • bKushabhau ThakreAnswer
    • cAtal Bihari Vajpayee
    • dMurli Manohar Joshi

    Explanation coming soon.

75. Q75Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    The act introduced in place of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), which has been in force for the last three decades

    • aForeign Exchange Service Act (FESA)
    • bForeign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)Answer
    • cForeign Exchange Control Act (FECA)
    • dForeign Exchange Distribution Act (FEDA)
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1973 was repealed and replaced by the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) of 1999 to facilitate external trade and payments and promote orderly development of the foreign exchange market in India. FERA enacted: 1973 FEMA enacted: 1999, replacing FERA Option A: No such statute named Foreign Exchange Service Act was enacted to replace FERA. Option C: No legislation titled Foreign Exchange Control Act replaced FERA in India. Option D: Foreign Exchange Distribution Act is a non-existent statute.

76. Q76India's foreign policy and international relations

    On what single condition is India ready to sign the CTBT agreement?

    • aNeutralizing hydrogen bombs
    • bBanning chemical weapons
    • cLifting sanctions
    • dComplete nuclear disarmamentAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because India has consistently maintained that it will only become a party to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) if it is linked to a time-bound and non-discriminatory framework for complete universal nuclear disarmament. Option A: Neutralizing hydrogen bombs is a partial weapon-reduction measure that does not address India's core objection against the discriminatory nature of the nuclear order. Option B: Banning chemical weapons is already governed by the Chemical Weapons Convention of 1993 and is irrelevant to the nuclear testing regime. Option C: Lifting sanctions addresses bilateral economic penalties rather than India's principled geopolitical stance on the treaty text.

77. Q77India's foreign policy and international relations

    What is the current number of members in the United Nations General Assembly?

    • a185Answer
    • b175
    • c195
    • d190

    Explanation coming soon.

78. Q78India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following posts was newly created by the United Nations General Assembly?

    • aSecretary General
    • bDeputy Secretary GeneralAnswer
    • cHead of State
    • dDeputy Head of State
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the post of Deputy Secretary-General was newly created by the United Nations General Assembly in late 1997 through resolution 51/128 as part of institutional reform. 1945: UN Charter establishes the post of Secretary-General 1997: UN General Assembly resolution 51/128 creates the post of Deputy Secretary-General Option A: The post of Secretary-General was established in 1945 by the original UN Charter, not newly created later. Option C: Head of State is a domestic government post and not a position created by the United Nations General Assembly. Option D: Deputy Head of State is a national administrative office and not a United Nations Secretariat position.

79. Q79India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following countries is not a member of the G-15 organization?

    • aChile
    • bKenya
    • cNigeria
    • dPakistanAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Pakistan is not, and has never been, a member of the Group of 15 (G-15). Option A: Chile is one of the member states representing Latin America in the G-15. Option B: Kenya is one of the member states representing Africa in the G-15. Option C: Nigeria is a prominent founding member from Africa in the G-15.

80. Q80Other countries' constitutions: presidential and parliamentary systems compared

    One of the following is the basis for Charles's views on sovereignty and government?

    • aJuristsAnswer
    • bBami
    • cButua
    • dMistus-Fus-Sirus

    Explanation coming soon.