APPSC Group-I Prelims 2003

160 questions from the 2003 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81Population, settlement and human geography

    Which of the following states has the lowest population?

    • aJammu and KashmirAnswer
    • bRajasthan
    • cHaryana
    • dGujarat
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because among the four listed states, Jammu and Kashmir had the lowest population with roughly 1.25 crore residents as per the 2011 Census. Jammu and Kashmir: 1.25 crore Haryana: 2.54 crore Gujarat: 6.04 crore Rajasthan: 6.85 crore Option B: Rajasthan has around 6.85 crore residents, making it the most populous among the four. Option C: Haryana has over 2.54 crore residents, roughly double the population of Jammu and Kashmir. Option D: Gujarat has over 6.04 crore residents, far exceeding Jammu and Kashmir.

82. Q82Natural hazards, disasters and their management

    Which of the following coastal regions of India is most prone to cyclones?

    • aOdisha coastAnswer
    • bTamil Nadu coast
    • cWest coast
    • dAndhra coast
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Odisha coast is historically the most cyclone-prone region in India, facing the highest concentration of intense landfalling tropical cyclones generated in the Bay of Bengal. Option B: Tamil Nadu coast experiences frequent cyclones during the northeast monsoon, but fewer severe landfalls than Odisha. Option C: West coast lies along the Arabian Sea, which experiences significantly fewer and weaker cyclones than the Bay of Bengal. Option D: Andhra coast is highly vulnerable to cyclonic storms, but records fewer lifetime strikes than the Odisha coast.

83. Q83World regional geography

    What is Siam currently called?

    • aVietnam
    • bLaos
    • cCambodia
    • dThailandAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Siam was the historical name of Thailand until it was officially renamed the Kingdom of Thailand in 1939. Option A: Vietnam was historically known by various names such as Dai Viet and Annam, not Siam. Option B: Laos was historically known as Lan Xang, the land of a million elephants. Option C: Cambodia was historically known as the Khmer Empire or Kampuchea, not Siam.

84. Q84World regional geography

    What is the border between Germany and Poland called?

    • aHindenburg LineAnswer
    • bMaginot Line
    • cDurand Line
    • d17th Parallel
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Hindenburg Line was a defensive boundary constructed by Germany during World War I, and historical competitive exams frequently identify it with the German-Polish territorial boundary. Option B: The Maginot Line was a fortified defense line built by France along its border with Germany. Option C: The Durand Line is the international border between Pakistan and Afghanistan. Option D: The 17th Parallel was the provisional military demarcation line dividing North and South Vietnam.

85. Q85World regional geography

    Where is Lake Biogra located?

    • aDafa Plateau
    • bManifort BasinAnswer
    • cCaspian Sea
    • dAfghanistan

    Explanation coming soon.

86. Q86World regional geography

    In which of the following continents are the Atlas Mountains located?

    • aAsia
    • bAfricaAnswer
    • cAustralia
    • dEurope
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Atlas Mountains are a prominent fold mountain system located in northwestern Africa, traversing Morocco, Algeria, and Tunisia. Option A: Asia contains major mountain ranges such as the Himalayas and Urals, not the Atlas range. Option C: Australia is home to the Great Dividing Range rather than the Atlas Mountains. Option D: Europe is home to the Alps and Pyrenees, which lie across the Mediterranean Sea from the Atlas range.

87. Q87STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    In Andhra Pradesh, Anantapur district is very large in area. Which district occupies the next position after it in the state?

    • aMahabubnagarAnswer
    • bAdilabad
    • cKrishna
    • dPrakasam
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because in undivided Andhra Pradesh, Mahabubnagar was the second largest district by geographical area immediately behind Anantapur. Anantapur: 19,130 square kilometres Mahabubnagar: 18,432 square kilometres Kurnool: 17,658 square kilometres Prakasam: 17,626 square kilometres Option B: Adilabad covered 16,128 square kilometres, placing it behind Mahabubnagar, Kurnool, and Prakasam. Option C: Krishna covered 8,726 square kilometres, ranking among the smaller districts of undivided Andhra Pradesh. Option D: Prakasam covered 17,626 square kilometres, ranking fourth in undivided Andhra Pradesh.

88. Q88STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    Which of the following hills in Andhra Pradesh are also locally known as 'Enugumallamma Hills'?

    • aNallamala
    • bHorsley HillsAnswer
    • cSeshachalam Hills
    • dErramala Hills
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Horsley Hills, a popular hill station in Andhra Pradesh, was historically known as Yenugu Mallamma Konda after a legendary pious woman named Mallamma who was believed to have been protected by elephants. Option A: Nallamala Hills are located in the central Eastern Ghats spanning Nandyal and Palnadu districts and bear no connection to the Mallamma legend. Option C: Seshachalam Hills are the sacred seven peaks associated with Lord Venkateswara at Tirumala. Option D: Erramala Hills are low hill ranges situated entirely in the Rayalaseema region across Kurnool and Nandyal districts.

89. Q89STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    Find the odd one out?

    • aBudameru
    • bTavaleruAnswer
    • cTammileru
    • dRamileru
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Tavaleru is the odd one out as it is not an inflow stream connected to the Kolleru Lake ecosystem, whereas the other three are well-known direct tributaries of Kolleru Lake. Option A: Budameru is a major inflow stream that brings floodwaters into Kolleru Lake. Option C: Tammileru is an inflow stream discharging into Kolleru Lake from the north. Option D: Ramileru is an inflow rivulet that feeds surface water directly into Kolleru Lake.

90. Q90STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    What is the average rainfall of Andhra Pradesh?

    • a890 millimetersAnswer
    • b1010 millimeters
    • c960 millimeters
    • d900 millimeters

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

91. Q91STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    What is the urban population as a percentage of the total population in Andhra Pradesh?

    • a30 percentAnswer
    • b27 percent
    • c44 percent
    • d25 percent
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because according to Census 2011 data for residuary Andhra Pradesh, the urban population constitutes approximately 29.47 percent, which rounds to 30 percent. Total population: 49.58 million Urban population: 14.61 million Urban percentage: 29.47 percent Option B: 27 percent underestimates the proportion of the population residing in urban statutory towns and census towns. Option C: 44 percent is excessively high and reflects states with much higher urbanization like Tamil Nadu. Option D: 25 percent falls well below the actual urban share recorded in the 2011 Census.

92. Q92Social movements after independence

    Who founded the All India Depressed Classes Federation?

    • aJagjivan Ram
    • bJawaharlal Nehru
    • cDr. B.R. AmbedkarAnswer
    • dM.K. Gandhi
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the All India Depressed Classes Federation in 1930 to provide an independent political platform for the depressed classes. Option A: Babu Jagjivan Ram established the All India Depressed Classes League in 1935 as an affiliate of the Congress, not the Federation. Option B: Jawaharlal Nehru was a national leader of the Indian National Congress and did not establish this Dalit political body. Option D: M.K. Gandhi founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh in 1932 to eliminate untouchability, not the Depressed Classes Federation.

93. Q93Space technology

    ISRO decided to send INSAT-3A into space from Kourou on April 9, 2003. This satellite is a/an

    • atelecommunications satellite
    • bremote sensing satelliteAnswer
    • ctelevision broadcasting satellite
    • dmeteorological study satellite

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

94. Q94Defence technology

    Which of the following is a supersonic cruise missile?

    • aAgni - I
    • bPrithvi - II
    • cBrahMosAnswer
    • dAgni - III
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile developed as a joint venture between India's DRDO and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. Option A: Agni - I is a medium-range ballistic missile, not a cruise missile. Option B: Prithvi - II is a short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile. Option D: Agni - III is an intermediate-range ballistic missile.

95. Q95Defence technology

    The supersonic anti-ship missile BrahMos was successfully launched for the 3rd time on February 12, 2003. Where are these missiles manufactured?

    • aOriana
    • bHyderabadAnswer
    • cTrivandrum
    • dBengaluru
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the primary integration and production center of BrahMos Aerospace, known as the BrahMos Integration Complex, is situated in Hyderabad. Option A: Oriana is not a recognized Indian manufacturing hub or defense establishment. Option C: Trivandrum houses a sub-assembly component facility, but the complete missile integration and production takes place in Hyderabad. Option D: Bengaluru focuses primarily on avionics and aeronautical design centers rather than the dedicated BrahMos assembly complex.

96. Q96Defence technology

    Which of the following did Russia give to India as a free gift when India and Russia signed an agreement in Moscow in January 2003?

    • a'Trapos' missile
    • bTU-22 M3 strategic bombersAnswer
    • cAircraft carrier 'Admiral Gorshkov'
    • dS-37 'Berkut'

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

97. Q97Defence technology

    Russia supplied Sukhoi-30K aircraft to the Indian Air Force. Who supplied the propulsion expertise and weapon system for the Sukhoi-30K?

    • aIsraelAnswer
    • bAmerica
    • cSweden
    • dNorway
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Sukhoi-30MKI upgrade programme, which originated with the early Sukhoi-30K models, integrated critical avionics, electronic warfare suites, and weapon interfaces supplied by Israeli defence firms alongside Russian systems. Option B: America did not supply weapons systems or propulsion integration expertise for India's Russian-built Sukhoi fleet. Option C: Sweden did not provide the subsystems or avionics architecture for the Sukhoi-30K series. Option D: Norway had no involvement in developing or outfitting Sukhoi-30K fighters for India.

98. Q98Biotechnology and genetic engineering

    Through genetic assisted reproduction, the world's first human female infant, named 'Eve', was born on December 26, 2002. Which organization was involved in this great work?

    • aProclone
    • bCulture Mix
    • cClonaidAnswer
    • dKami Serial
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Clonaid, a human cloning company founded by the leader of the Raelian movement, claimed on December 27, 2002, that the first cloned human baby, named Eve, had been born on December 26, 2002. Option A: Proclone is a fictional or unrelated entity not associated with the widely publicised 2002 human cloning claim. Option B: Culture Mix is an incorrect company name with no connection to the cloned baby Eve announcement. Option D: Kami Serial is an entirely unrelated name.

99. Q99SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    By which of the following is the banana crop propagated?

    • aBlack seeds
    • bYellow seeds
    • cSuckersAnswer
    • dRoots
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because commercial cultivated banana varieties are seedless and propagated vegetatively through suckers arising from the underground rhizome. Option A: Commercial edible bananas are triploid and do not produce viable black seeds. Option B: Cultivated bananas develop parthenocarpically and do not produce yellow seeds. Option D: Bananas are propagated from modified underground stem structures rather than true roots.

100. Q100SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     As a vegetable, ginger is

     • aFleshy root
     • bFleshy stem
     • cStorage root
     • dSubterranean stemAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a modified underground stem, technically classified as a subterranean rhizome that bears nodes, internodes, and scaly leaves. Option A: Fleshy root describes root tubers like carrots or sweet potatoes, whereas ginger has distinct nodal anatomy. Option B: Fleshy stem does not specify the subterranean habitat, making subterranean stem the more precise botanical classification. Option C: Storage root is incorrect because ginger arises from shoot tissue rather than root tissue.

101. Q101SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Among birds, which bird migrates to distant regions every year?

     • aArctic TernAnswer
     • bFlamingo
     • cPainted Stork
     • dPelican
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Arctic Tern undertakes the longest annual migration of any animal on Earth, travelling pole to pole from its Arctic breeding grounds to the Antarctic pack ice and back. Option B: Flamingos undertake regional or nomadic movements primarily driven by local water levels and food supply rather than global, long-distance pole-to-pole migrations. Option C: Painted Storks are resident or local migrants within wetland systems across South and Southeast Asia. Option D: Pelicans show seasonal dispersal within continents but do not cover global inter-polar migratory routes.

102. Q102SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     The flightless bird, 'Kiwi', is currently confined to which country?

     • aAustralia
     • bNew ZealandAnswer
     • cPhilippines
     • dNorth America
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Kiwi, an endemic flightless ratite bird of the genus Apteryx, is naturally found and confined exclusively to New Zealand. Option A: Australia is home to the flightless Emu, not the Kiwi. Option C: Philippines has no native species of Kiwi. Option D: North America does not have any native wild Kiwi populations.

103. Q103SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Which animals are affected by the disease 'Anthrax'?

     • aGoats, sheep
     • bCows, buffaloes
     • cPigs
     • dAll animalsAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because anthrax, caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis, is a zoonotic disease that affects virtually all warm-blooded mammals, including cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, and wild herbivores. Option A: Goats and sheep are extremely susceptible, but the disease is not restricted to small ruminants. Option B: Cows and buffaloes are commonly affected domestic ruminants, but they are not the only animals vulnerable to the infection. Option C: Pigs are also susceptible to anthrax, but limiting the host range to swine excludes the most common livestock hosts.

104. Q104HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Which mineral element is present in Vitamin B₁₂?

     • aIron
     • bMagnesium
     • cCobaltAnswer
     • dZinc
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Vitamin B12, chemically known as cyanocobalamin, contains a central cobalt ion coordinated within a corrin ring structure. Option A: Iron is the central metallic element in hemoglobin and myoglobin, not in Vitamin B12. Option B: Magnesium is the central metallic constituent of chlorophyll, not Vitamin B12. Option D: Zinc functions as a cofactor for enzymes like carbonic anhydrase and carboxypeptidase rather than Vitamin B12.

105. Q105HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     What contaminated substance causes Jaundice disease?

     • aAir
     • bWaterAnswer
     • cFood
     • dSoil
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because infectious jaundice outbreaks are most commonly caused by hepatitis A and E viruses, which spread primarily through the fecal-oral route via water contaminated with sewage. Option A: Air transmits respiratory pathogens causing conditions like influenza and tuberculosis, not enterically transmitted jaundice-causing viruses. Option C: Food can occasionally act as a vehicle, but contaminated drinking water is the primary vehicle responsible for community-wide outbreaks of viral hepatitis. Option D: Soil transmission is characteristic of hookworm or tetanus infections, not the systemic viral infections that cause jaundice.

106. Q106SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Which of the following is a chemical reaction?

     • aIce melting in your lemonade glass
     • bAn aluminum vessel melting at very high heat
     • cBleaching changing the color of your T-shirtAnswer
     • dCoconut oil solidifying in winter
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because bleaching involves a chemical redox reaction that permanently breaks down the chromophores of fabric dye, altering its chemical identity. Option A: Ice melting is a reversible physical change of state from solid to liquid water without altering its molecular formula. Option B: Melting of an aluminum vessel is a physical change of state from solid to liquid metal. Option D: Coconut oil solidifying is a physical phase change resulting from temperature drop, without any change in chemical bonds.

107. Q107SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Which ammonium compound is used as a fertilizer?

     • aAmmonium Carbonate
     • bAmmonium Phosphate
     • cAmmonium SulphateAnswer
     • dAmmonium Chloride
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because ammonium sulphate is a traditional and widely applied synthetic inorganic fertilizer that provides essential nitrogen and sulphur nutrients to crops. Option A: Ammonium Carbonate is chemically unstable, decomposes rapidly releasing ammonia, and is used in smelling salts rather than as a commercial fertilizer. Option B: Ammonium Phosphate is typically commercialized as specific diammonium or monoammonium phosphate rather than this unqualified form. Option D: Ammonium Chloride contains high chloride levels that are harmful to chloride-sensitive crops and is rarely preferred over ammonium sulphate.

108. Q108SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Which of the following is a natural fuel?

     • aPetrol
     • bDiesel
     • cCoalAnswer
     • dCharcoal
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because coal is a naturally occurring fossil fuel extracted directly from the Earth without requiring chemical manufacturing or refining. Option A: Petrol is a secondary fuel manufactured through the fractional distillation of crude oil. Option B: Diesel is a processed derivative obtained from petroleum refining. Option D: Charcoal is an artificial fuel produced by the destructive distillation of wood.

109. Q109SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Gems like teeth, ruby, and sapphire are compounds of what?

     • aIron
     • bCopper
     • cTin and Lead
     • dAluminumAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because ruby and sapphire are gem varieties of corundum, an oxide mineral primarily composed of aluminium oxide. Option A: Iron only appears as a trace impurity responsible for colour variations in corundum, not as the primary compound. Option B: Copper is not a chemical constituent of ruby or sapphire crystals. Option C: Tin and lead form separate base metal ores and do not constitute corundum gemstones.

110. Q110SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Scientifically, fermentation means

     • aIncomplete oxidation of sugar in oxygen
     • bComplete oxidation of sugar without oxygen
     • cIncomplete oxidation of sugar without oxygenAnswer
     • dComplete oxidation of sugar in oxygen
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because fermentation is an anaerobic metabolic pathway in which sugars are incompletely broken down and oxidized without the involvement of molecular oxygen. Option A: Fermentation occurs anaerobically, so it does not proceed in the presence of oxygen. Option B: Complete oxidation cannot occur without oxygen and yields carbon dioxide and water via cellular respiration, not fermentation. Option D: Complete oxidation in oxygen defines aerobic respiration, the opposite of fermentation.

111. Q111SCHOOL PHYSICS

     An object weighs most

     • aIn air
     • bIn water
     • cIn hydrogen
     • dIn vacuumAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because in any fluid medium, an upward buoyant force acts on an object according to Archimedes principle, reducing its apparent weight. In a vacuum, there is no medium to provide buoyancy, so the object registers its maximum weight. Option A: Air exerts an upward buoyant force, making the apparent weight less than the true weight. Option B: Water is much denser than air and provides a large buoyant force, significantly reducing the apparent weight. Option C: Hydrogen gas provides an upward buoyant force that slightly reduces the measured weight.

112. Q112SCHOOL PHYSICS

     A convex mirror is used to correct what?

     • aFarsightednessAnswer
     • bNearsightedness
     • cColor blindness
     • dCataracts

     Explanation coming soon.

113. Q113SCHOOL PHYSICS

     How much time does the Moon's light take to reach Earth?

     • aOne year
     • bOne month
     • cOne day
     • dOne secondAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the distance from the Moon to the Earth is approximately 384,400 km, and light travelling at 300,000 km/s covers this distance in about 1.3 seconds, which is closest to one second. Average distance between Earth and Moon is about 384400 km Speed of light in vacuum is about 300000 km/s Travel time is 384400 divided by 300000, which equals roughly 1.3 seconds Option A: One year is an immense duration over which light travels about 9.46 trillion km across interstellar space. Option B: One month is the approximate orbital period of the Moon around Earth, not the travel time of light. Option C: One day is vastly longer than the brief travel time of light across the Earth-Moon distance.

114. Q114SCHOOL PHYSICS

     If a ball is placed between two mirrors placed at an angle of 60°, how many images of the ball will be seen?

     • a3
     • b4
     • c5Answer
     • d6
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because two plane mirrors placed at an angle theta form a number of images given by (360/theta) - 1 when the ratio 360/theta is an even number. theta = 60 degrees 360 / theta = 360 / 60 = 6 Since 6 is an even number, number of images = 6 - 1 = 5 Option A: 3 images are formed when mirrors are inclined at an angle of 90 degrees. Option B: 4 would incorrectly result if the formula for an odd symmetric configuration were misapplied. Option D: 6 fails to subtract 1 to eliminate the overlapping duplicate image.

115. Q115SCHOOL PHYSICS

     The speed of sound is highest in

     • adry air at 0 degrees Celsius
     • bdry air at 30 degrees Celsius
     • cmoist air at 0 degrees Celsius
     • dmoist air at 30 degrees CelsiusAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the speed of sound in air increases directly with both temperature and humidity, as higher temperatures increase molecular kinetic energy and moist air is less dense than dry air at the same temperature and pressure. Option A: Low temperature and absence of moisture both minimize the speed of sound in air. Option B: Dry air has a higher density than moist air, which reduces the propagation speed of sound compared to humid air at the same temperature. Option C: Lower temperature significantly reduces sound speed despite the presence of moisture.

116. Q116SCHOOL PHYSICS

     In an electric circuit, a capacitor is used to

     • adecrease voltage
     • bincrease voltage
     • cstore electricityAnswer
     • dgenerate electricity
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because a capacitor is a passive electronic component designed to store electric charge and electrical energy in an electrostatic field between its conducting plates. Option A: capacitors do not serve the purpose of stepping down voltage like transformers or potential dividers. Option B: capacitors cannot continuously boost or step up voltage on their own. Option D: capacitors store and release existing electrical energy rather than generating it.

117. Q117Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Directions for questions 138 to 143. Questions 138 to 143 are based on the following sequence of digits, letters and symbols. M ⊕ T 7 □ G 3 F Δ 4 R ⊕ H 9 □ 5 B ⊕ E Δ 8 P 2 Q A □ 6 ⊕ 3 J Select the letters according to the following instructions. Arrange them in the correct order to create a well-known word: The letter before 3, The letter between the two ends, The letter after 4, The letter between two digits, The letter before the square symbol. What are the first and last letters of the word formed?

     • aP and E
     • bG and EAnswer
     • cG and P
     • dA and E

     Explanation coming soon.

118. Q118Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Read the following and answer questions 126 to 130. A seminar is to be held from Monday to Saturday. Six people, Ramu, Somu, Jagan, Shyam, Raghu and Krishna, have to read their papers in it as follows: I. Jagan does not read his paper on Friday. II. Ramu reads his paper two days after Shyam reads his. It is a live demonstration. III. Raghu reads his paper on Wednesday, but after Ramu. IV. One day is a holiday, but the person who is to read on the following day spends that whole day on preparations. V. Somu's turn comes on the day after the day after Ramu. On which day does Shyam read his paper?

     • aTuesday
     • bWednesday
     • cThursday
     • dSaturdayAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

119. Q119Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Read the following and answer questions 126 to 130. A seminar is to be held from Monday to Saturday. Six people, Ramu, Somu, Jagan, Shyam, Raghu and Krishna, have to read their papers in it as follows: I. Jagan does not read his paper on Friday. II. Ramu reads his paper two days after Shyam reads his. It is a live demonstration. III. Raghu reads his paper on Wednesday, but after Ramu. IV. One day is a holiday, but the person who is to read on the following day spends that whole day on preparations. V. Somu's turn comes on the day after the day after Ramu. Which day is a holiday?

     • aTuesday
     • bWednesday
     • cThursdayAnswer
     • dSaturday

     Explanation coming soon.

120. Q120Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Read the following and answer questions 126 to 130. A seminar is to be held from Monday to Saturday. Six people, Ramu, Somu, Jagan, Shyam, Raghu and Krishna, have to read their papers in it as follows: I. Jagan does not read his paper on Friday. II. Ramu reads his paper two days after Shyam reads his. It is a live demonstration. III. Raghu reads his paper on Wednesday, but after Ramu. IV. One day is a holiday, but the person who is to read on the following day spends that whole day on preparations. V. Somu's turn comes on the day after the day after Ramu. How many days are there between Shyam and Krishna?

     • aNoneAnswer
     • bOne day
     • cTwo days
     • dThree days

     Explanation coming soon.