TGPSC Group-I Prelims 1990

131 questions from the 1990 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    The First Hydroelectric Project was started in India at

    • aPapanashanam
    • bShiva SamudramAnswer
    • cLonavala
    • dHirakud
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Shivanasamudra Hydroelectric Project on the Kaveri river in Karnataka was commissioned in 1902, making it the first major hydroelectric power station in India. Shivanasamudra: 1902 Tata Hydroelectric (Lonavala): 1915 Papanasam: 1944 Hirakud: 1957 Option A: Papanashanam hydro plant was built much later in Tamil Nadu in 1944. Option C: Lonavala hydro power installations began operating around 1915. Option D: Hirakud is a multipurpose river valley project commissioned post-independence in 1957.

42. Q42History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    A renowned surgeon of ancient India was

    • aAryabhatta
    • bBhaskaracharya
    • cBhasaAnswer
    • dVarahamihira

    Explanation coming soon.

43. Q43Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    The name of the Mughal Governor who Nizam-ul-Mulk defeated and became the First Nizam of Hyderabad

    • aAbul Hasan Tanashah
    • bHasan Quli Khan
    • cMubariz KhanAnswer
    • dAzam Shah
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Mir Qamar-ud-din Khan defeated the Mughal subahdar of the Deccan, Mubariz Khan, at the Battle of Shakar Kheda in 1724 to establish his autonomous rule as Nizam-ul-Mulk, the first Nizam of Hyderabad. Battle of Shakar Kheda: 11 October 1724 Mughal governor killed in battle: Mubariz Khan Title assumed by the victor: Asaf Jah I Option A: Abul Hasan Qutb Shah, known as Tanashah, was the last ruler of the Golconda Sultanate defeated by Aurangzeb in 1687. Option B: Hasan Quli Khan was a general and noble, not the governor defeated at Shakar Kheda. Option D: Azam Shah was a Mughal prince and son of Aurangzeb who was killed at the Battle of Jajau in 1707.

44. Q44Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    The author is ‘Simhasana Dvatrimsika’ is

    • aSrinatha
    • bKoravi GoparajuAnswer
    • cKrishnadevaraya
    • dDhurjati
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Koravi Goparaju composed Simhasana Dvatrimsika, a popular Telugu narrative kavya depicting the thirty-two tales of King Vikramaditya. Option A: Srinatha wrote classical works such as Harivilasamu, Kasikhandamu, and Palnati Vira Charitra, not Simhasana Dvatrimsika. Option C: Krishnadevaraya authored the famous Telugu work Amuktamalyada. Option D: Dhurjati is renowned for his Shaivite masterpiece Sri Kalahasteeswara Mahatyamu and Sri Kalahasteeswara Satakamu.

45. Q45Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    The first poet to translate the Mahabharata into Telugu was

    • aTikkana
    • bNanne Choda
    • cBhima Kavi
    • dNannayaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Nannaya Bhattaraka, revered as the Adi Kavi of Telugu literature, was the first poet to begin translating Vyasa's Sanskrit Mahabharata into Telugu during the 11th century under the patronage of Eastern Chalukya king Rajaraja Narendra. Option A: Tikkana was the second poet of the Kavitrayam and continued the translation from the Virata Parva in the 13th century. Option B: Nanne Choda was a Shaiva poet famous for the classic kavya Kumara Sambhavamu, not for translating the Mahabharata. Option C: Vemulawada Bhima Kavi was an early medieval poet who did not begin the translation of the Telugu Mahabharata.

46. Q46Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The most important feature of the Act of 1935 was the introduction of

    • aDyarchy
    • bAdult Franchise
    • cProvincial AutonomyAnswer
    • dSeparate electorate
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Government of India Act, 1935 replaced dyarchy in the provinces with provincial autonomy, granting them independent legal authority and responsible government. Option A: Dyarchy was removed from the provinces and proposed only for the federal executive, which never materialized. Option B: Adult Franchise was never provided under this Act, which limited voting rights to roughly ten percent of the adult population based on property and educational qualifications. Option D: Separate electorate was originally instituted under the Indian Councils Act 1909 and merely retained and extended, not introduced, by the 1935 Act.

47. Q47Fundamental Rights

    Constitution provides protection to Freedom of Press through

    • aArticle-14
    • bArticle-21
    • cArticle-32
    • dArt Article -19Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because freedom of the press is implicitly protected under the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a). Article 14: Equality before law Article 19: Freedom of speech and expression, including press freedom Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty Article 32: Right to constitutional remedies Option A: Article 14 ensures equal protection of the laws, not freedom of the press. Option B: Article 21 safeguards life and personal liberty. Option C: Article 32 is the mechanism to enforce fundamental rights via writs.

48. Q48Fundamental Rights

    One among the following is authorized to impose restrictions of Fundamental Rights:

    • aParliamentAnswer
    • bPrime Minister
    • cPresident
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Constitution specifically empowers the Parliament to frame laws imposing reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights, such as under clauses (2) to (6) of Article 19. Option B: The Prime Minister has no independent constitutional authority to enact restrictions on Fundamental Rights. Option C: The President can suspend the enforcement of rights during an emergency pursuant to constitutional provisions, but cannot legislatively enact substantive restrictions on them. Option D: Option A is the correct and authorized authority under the Constitution.

49. Q49Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Economic democracy is envisaged through

    • aFundamental Rights
    • bPreamble
    • cDirective Principles of State PolicyAnswer
    • dUnion List
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Directive Principles of State Policy aim to secure social and economic democracy by guiding the State to ensure an adequate means of livelihood, equitable resource distribution, and reduction of income inequalities. Option A: Fundamental Rights primarily establish political democracy by securing civil liberties against arbitrary State action. Option B: The Preamble outlines the core philosophy and ultimate goals of the Constitution, but the detailed socio-economic roadmap is contained in the Directive Principles. Option D: The Union List merely allocates legislative subjects between the Centre and the States, without prescribing ideological or economic goals.

50. Q50Amendment and the basic structure

    The Right of Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right from

    • a1975
    • b1976
    • c1978Answer
    • d1979
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right with the enactment of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1978, which removed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Enacted year: 1978 Deleted provisions: Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 New legal status: ordinary constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII Option A: is the year of the 39th Amendment and declaration of the National Emergency, not when property rights were deleted. Option B: is the year of the 42nd Amendment, which modified Directive Principles but kept property rights under Part III. Option D: is the year the 44th Amendment largely came into force, but the amendment itself was enacted in 1978.

51. Q51Parliament and the state legislatures

    Starred Question in the Parliament invites a

    • aWritten answer
    • bOral answerAnswer
    • cNo answer
    • dDebate
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because a starred question is distinguished by an asterisk mark and requires an oral answer from the concerned Minister on the floor of the House, which can be followed by supplementary questions. Option A: A written answer is provided for an unstarred question, not a starred question. Option C: All admitted parliamentary questions require an official answer from the relevant ministry. Option D: A question does not initiate a general debate; it only elicits factual information and brief supplementary inquiries.

52. Q52The state government

    The Governor is impeached through

    • aUnion Parliament
    • bState Legislature
    • cSupreme Court
    • dcannot be impeachedAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Constitution does not provide any procedure or mechanism for the impeachment of a Governor; the Governor can simply be removed at any time by the President. Option A: Union Parliament has impeachment powers for the President and judges, but not for the Governor. Option B: State Legislatures have no power to initiate or pass an impeachment motion against the Governor. Option C: The Supreme Court plays no role in removing a Governor through impeachment.

53. Q53The state government

    The term of office of a Governor of a State is

    • a6 years
    • b5 yearsAnswer
    • c7 years
    • d3 years
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 156(1) and 156(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, subject to which the normal term of office is five years from the date of entering upon it. Article 156(3): Five-year term from the date of entering office Option A: 6 years is the term of a Member of the Legislative Council or Rajya Sabha, not the Governor. Option C: 7 years is not a prescribed constitutional tenure for any public office in India. Option D: 3 years is incorrect as the Constitution specifies a normal duration of five years.

54. Q54Federalism and centre-state relations

    Residuary power is vested with

    • aState
    • bCentreAnswer
    • cPresident
    • dPrime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, all residuary legislative powers are vested in the Centre through Parliament. Article 248: Exclusive residuary powers of legislation with Parliament Entry 97 of List I: Any other matter not enumerated in List II or List III Option A: Incorrect because the Indian federal structure does not assign residuary powers to the States. Option C: Incorrect because residuary power is a legislative power of Parliament, not an individual power of the President. Option D: Incorrect because the Constitution confers legislative competence on Parliament, not on the Prime Minister.

55. Q55Local government and decentralisation

    Ashok Mehta Committee 1979 reviews

    • aCentre - State relations
    • bPanchayati Raj InstitutionsAnswer
    • cRole of the Governor
    • dWorking of the Public Sectors
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Janata Party government constituted the Ashok Mehta Committee in December 1977 to review the working of Panchayati Raj Institutions and suggest measures to revitalise them. Option A: Centre - State relations is incorrect because Centre-State relations were reviewed by the Sarkaria Commission and the Punchhi Commission. Option C: Role of the Governor is incorrect because this subject falls under constitutional commissions studying federal relations rather than local governance bodies. Option D: Working of the Public Sectors is incorrect because public sector undertakings were evaluated by bodies such as the Arjun Sengupta Committee.

56. Q56Local government and decentralisation

    Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report is associated with

    • aPanchayat RajAnswer
    • bCommunity Development
    • cPlanning Commission
    • dZonal Councils
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report submitted in November 1957 is universally associated with the blueprint and establishment of the three-tier Panchayat Raj system in India. Option B: The committee evaluated the Community Development Programme, but its landmark institutional outcome and report itself are fundamentally identified with creating Panchayat Raj. Option C: The Planning Commission was established in 1950 via an executive resolution and was not created or guided by this committee report. Option D: Zonal Councils were established pursuant to the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, an entirely separate administrative exercise.

57. Q57Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    C - DOT is the name given to

    • aA new computer language
    • bCentre for Development of TelematicsAnswer
    • cCouncil for Development and Training
    • dCommittee of Developing Nations
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because C-DOT stands for Centre for Development of Telematics, an autonomous telecom research and development centre set up by the Government of India in 1984 under the Department of Telecommunications. Option A: C-DOT is a premier telecommunications research institution, not a computer programming language. Option C: Council for Development and Training is an invented title unrelated to C-DOT. Option D: Committee of Developing Nations is an incorrect political expansion that does not describe this telecom entity.

58. Q58India's foreign policy and international relations

    Name the two countries which were involved in the Tin Bigha issue

    • aPakistan - India
    • bIndia - BangladeshAnswer
    • cBangladesh - Pakistan
    • dIndia - Lanka
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Tin Bigha Corridor is a strip of Indian territory leased to Bangladesh to provide transit access to the Dahagram-Angarpota enclaves. Option A: names Pakistan, which ceased administering the enclave territory after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971. Option C: excludes India, the sovereign nation that controls and leased the corridor. Option D: names Sri Lanka, which shares a maritime boundary with India and has no territorial connection to Tin Bigha.

59. Q59Polity in the news: new committees, commissions of inquiry and cases in the courts

    The number of Women Judges in the Delhi High Court is

    • a3
    • b4
    • c5
    • d2Answer

    Explanation coming soon.

60. Q60Polity in the news: new committees, commissions of inquiry and cases in the courts

    High Court in recent times passed strictrules against a State Government in regard to the nomination of 12 persons to the Legislative Council

    • aGujarat
    • bMaharashtraAnswer
    • cWest Bengal
    • dAndhra Pradesh
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Bombay High Court made critical observations against Maharashtra Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari regarding an undue delay of over eight months in deciding on the Council of Ministers' recommendation to nominate 12 members to the Maharashtra Legislative Council. Option A: Gujarat has a unicameral legislature and therefore has no Legislative Council. Option C: West Bengal abolished its Legislative Council in 1969 and does not have nominated MLCs. Option D: Andhra Pradesh did not face High Court strictures over a delayed gubernatorial nomination of 12 MLCs.

61. Q61What an economy is measured by

    Who is associated with the estimation of national income statistics in India ?

    • aK. N. Raj
    • bA. K. Sen
    • cDadabhai NaurojiAnswer
    • dSukhamoy Chakravarty
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Dadabhai Naoroji is recognized as the pioneer of national income statistics in India through his foundational computations in the late nineteenth century. Option A: K. N. Raj was an economist primarily associated with the First Five Year Plan and agricultural economics rather than national income estimation. Option B: A. K. Sen is renowned for welfare economics, social choice theory, and poverty measurement rather than national income statistics. Option D: Sukhamoy Chakravarty was known for development planning models and monetary policy analysis rather than early national income estimates.

62. Q62What an economy is measured by

    The high rate of growth in the economy depends upon

    • ahigh savings rateAnswer
    • bhigh taxation rates
    • chigh administrative efficiency
    • doptimal Allocation of Resources
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because according to foundational economic models like the Harrod-Domar model, a high savings rate generates the investment and capital accumulation necessary to drive rapid economic growth. Option B: High taxation rates reduce disposable income and corporate profits, which often dampens private investment and growth. Option C: Administrative efficiency provides institutional support, but cannot independently sustain high growth without capital formation. Option D: Optimal resource allocation improves static productive efficiency, but sustained high growth fundamentally requires continuous capital accumulation driven by savings.

63. Q63What an economy is measured by

    The share of Primary Sector in India during the last four decades of planning has

    • aIncreased
    • bDecreasedAnswer
    • cNot changed
    • dNot shown any perceptible change
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because structural transformation in the Indian economy has led to a consistent decline in the primary sector's relative contribution to national income, even as overall output increased. Option A: Increased is incorrect because structural change in a developing economy shifts output share away from agriculture toward secondary and tertiary sectors. Option C: Not changed is incorrect because the primary sector share fell from over 50 percent in the early planning era to under 20 percent. Option D: Not shown any perceptible change is incorrect because the decline in share has been substantial and well-documented across plan periods.

64. Q64Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    The proposed total outlay in the public sector during India's 8th Five Year Plan is

    • aRs. 1,00,000 Crores
    • bRs. 3, 45, 000 CroresAnswer
    • cRs. 5,00,000 Crores
    • dRs. 10,00,000 Crores
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Eighth Five Year Plan document initially earmarked a public sector outlay of 3,45,000 crore rupees to maintain fiscal discipline while encouraging private participation. Eighth Five Year Plan period: 1992 to 1997 Total planned outlay for the public sector: 3,45,000 crore rupees Option A: Rs. 1,00,000 Crores is incorrect because it significantly understates the Eighth Plan allocation and corresponds more closely to Sixth Plan levels. Option C: Rs. 5,00,000 Crores is incorrect because it overshoots the targeted public outlay decided in the plan draft. Option D: Rs. 10,00,000 Crores is incorrect because an outlay of this magnitude was reached only in later plans like the Tenth and Eleventh Plans.

65. Q65Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    The per capita availability of cloth in India during the planning period has

    • aIncreasedAnswer
    • bDecreased
    • cConstant
    • dNo perceptible change
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the overall per capita availability of cloth in India expanded considerably over the course of the planning era due to modernization of the textile sector and the growth of synthetic and blended fabrics. Option B: Decreased is incorrect as post-independence industrial policies led to an overall rise in fabric production outstripping population growth over the decades. Option C: Constant is incorrect because per capita availability fluctuated and registered significant long-term growth across the Five-Year Plans. Option D: No perceptible change is incorrect as the per-person availability of cotton and man-made fabrics showed notable progress since 1951.

66. Q66Industry in the Indian economy

    The main thrust for development of Small Scale Industries in India was given by the Industrial Policy Resolution of

    • a1948
    • b1956
    • c1977Answer
    • d1980
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Industrial Policy Statement of 1977 placed its central thrust on promoting cottage and small-scale industries and established District Industries Centres to foster local entrepreneurship. 1948: Emphasized mixed economy and post-independence economic direction 1956: Emphasized rapid development of heavy and machine-building industries 1977: Shifted main thrust directly to small, tiny, and cottage industries 1980: Focused on economic federation, capacity utilization, and modernization Option A: The 1948 resolution demarcated public and private domains rather than focusing primarily on small-scale units. Option B: The 1956 resolution prioritized the public sector and heavy core industries over small-scale units. Option D: The 1980 policy sought to reverse the decentralized approach of 1977 in favor of industrial efficiency and modernization.

67. Q67Money, banking and financial markets

    The Central Bank in India is

    • aSBI
    • bNABARD
    • cSBH
    • dRBIAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Reserve Bank of India was set up under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, as the apex monetary authority and central bank of India. Option A: SBI is incorrect because it is a public sector commercial bank, not the central bank. Option B: NABARD is incorrect because it is an apex development financial institution dedicated to agriculture and rural development. Option C: SBH is incorrect because it was a commercial bank functioning as an associate bank of the State Bank of India prior to its merger.

68. Q68External sector and the world economy

    The URUGUAY Round of Multilateral Trade operated under

    • aThe Word Bank
    • bTheGATTAnswer
    • cUNESCO
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations (1986-1994) was conducted under the framework of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), leading directly to the Marrakesh Agreement and the creation of the World Trade Organization (WTO). Option A: The World Bank provides development finance and economic policy advice rather than hosting multilateral tariff and trade rounds. Option C: UNESCO is a United Nations agency dedicated to education, science, and culture, having no mandate over international trade negotiations. Option D: The GATT was the governing body that launched and hosted the round, making Option B the correct choice.

69. Q69External sector and the world economy

    SDR means,

    • aSudanese Democratic People's Republic
    • bSoviet Union formed for democratic rights
    • cSpecial Drawing RightsAnswer
    • dNone of these.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because SDR stands for Special Drawing Rights, an international supplementary foreign exchange reserve asset defined and maintained by the International Monetary Fund. Option A: It invents an unrelated political name instead of the official financial asset created by the IMF. Option B: It misidentifies the acronym as a political union for democratic rights. Option D: It is incorrect because Special Drawing Rights is the established definition.

70. Q70The Earth in the solar system

    Which of the following statements is wrong for the planet Venus ?

    • aIt can be seen during whole nightAnswer
    • bAfter Sun and Moon, it is the most bright object in the sky
    • cIts rotation and revolution are in opposite direction
    • dIts surface temperature is about 450° C
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Venus is an interior or inferior planet with an orbit closer to the Sun than Earth's, meaning it never appears far from the Sun in the sky and can only be seen near sunrise or sunset, never throughout the whole night. Option B: After the Sun and the Moon, Venus genuinely is the brightest natural celestial object visible in Earth's sky. Option C: Venus genuinely exhibits retrograde rotation, spinning from east to west opposite to the direction of its orbital revolution. Option D: Venus genuinely has an average surface temperature of around 450 to 465 degrees Celsius due to an extreme runaway greenhouse effect.

71. Q71The Earth in the solar system

    The fuel which is burning inside the Sun is

    • aCoal
    • bUranium
    • cOxygen
    • dHydrogenAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Sun produces its vast energy through thermonuclear reactions that consume hydrogen as the fundamental fuel in its core. Option A: Coal involves chemical combustion requiring carbon and oxygen, whereas the Sun generates energy through nuclear fusion. Option B: Uranium is fuel for nuclear fission reactors, whereas the Sun operates via nuclear fusion of light elements. Option C: Oxygen is not the fuel driving the solar energy engine; it is a minor heavier element present in the Sun.

72. Q72Atmosphere, weather and climate

    Why does atmosphere warm up ?

    • aSunlightAnswer
    • bAbsence of water
    • cAbsence of Vegetation
    • dPresence of Vegetation
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because solar radiation is the ultimate energy source driving the warming of the Earth and its atmosphere, primarily through terrestrial reradiation of absorbed sunlight. Option B: The absence of water does not generate thermal energy; water vapor is actually an effective greenhouse gas that aids in warming. Option C: The absence of vegetation can alter local surface reflectivity and humidity, but it is not the energy source that warms the atmosphere. Option D: The presence of vegetation cools the local microclimate through evapotranspiration and shading rather than warming the atmosphere.

73. Q73India: physiography, drainage and climate

    In the Indian territory, the magnetic equator is passing nearer to

    • aTrivandrumAnswer
    • bShriharikota
    • cAllahabad
    • dSrinagar
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Earth's magnetic equator passes across the southern tip of peninsular India very close to Trivandrum in Kerala, leading to the selection of Thumba nearby for an equatorial rocket launching station. Option B: Shriharikota lies at roughly 13.7 degrees North geographic latitude, situated several degrees north of the magnetic equator. Option C: Allahabad lies at roughly 25.4 degrees North geographic latitude, situated far into northern India. Option D: Srinagar lies at roughly 34 degrees North geographic latitude, thousands of kilometers north of the magnetic equator.

74. Q74Population, settlement and human geography

    Nutritional density is derived from

    • aTotal population divided by total Geographical area
    • bTotal population divided by total cultivated landAnswer
    • cTotal Agricultural population divided by total cultivated area
    • dHuman carrying capacity of an area in relation to a given land - use system.
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because nutritional density (also known as physiological density) is defined as the total human population divided by the total cultivated or arable land area, indicating the pressure of population on food-producing land. Option A: Total population divided by total geographical area defines crude or arithmetic population density. Option C: Total agricultural population divided by total cultivated area defines agricultural density. Option D: Human carrying capacity describes the maximum population an ecosystem can sustain, which is an ecological concept rather than a direct formula for nutritional density.

75. Q75Population, settlement and human geography

    The District with 100% Literacy in India is

    • aTrivandrum
    • bKurnool
    • cErnakulamAnswer
    • dChandigarh
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Ernakulam district in Kerala was officially declared the first district in India to achieve 100 percent literacy on 4 February 1990, following a massive community-driven literacy campaign. Option A: Trivandrum achieved high literacy later but was not the first district designated as fully literate. Option B: Kurnool district has literacy levels well below universal literacy. Option D: Chandigarh is a union territory and city that has high literacy, but it was not the first designated 100 percent literate district.

76. Q76Population, settlement and human geography

    The most highly urbanized State in India is

    • aWest Bengal
    • bMaharashtraAnswer
    • cU. P.
    • dTamilnadu

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

77. Q77India state by state: capitals, districts and where places are

    Which of the following is true of Ernakulam district in Kerala ?

    • aIt has highest density of population in India
    • bIt has achieved hundred percent literacyAnswer
    • cIt has highest percentage of unemployment
    • dIt is a famous hill station
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Ernakulam became the first district in India to achieve full literacy following a massive social campaign launched in 1989. Option A: North East Delhi holds the highest population density among Indian districts, not Ernakulam. Option C: Ernakulam has relatively strong economic indicators and does not have the highest unemployment percentage in India. Option D: Ernakulam is a coastal and commercial lowland district anchored by the port city of Kochi, not a hill station.

78. Q78Wildlife and forest conservation

    The Largest Tiger reservoir in India

    • aGir forest (Gujarat)
    • bBandipur Sanctuary (Karnataka)
    • cSrisailam wild life Sanctuary (A.P.)Answer
    • dDandakaranya (M. P.)
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve encompasses the largest geographical area among all designated tiger reserves in India. Option A: Gir Forest in Gujarat is an Asiatic lion sanctuary and national park, not a tiger reserve. Option B: Bandipur Sanctuary in Karnataka covers a substantially smaller reserve area. Option D: Dandakaranya is a vast physiographic region covering parts of central-eastern India, not an officially designated tiger reserve.

79. Q79Environment in the news: named projects, missions, reports and rankings

    The Tehri Dam in Uttar Pradesh is held up because of

    • aForeign aid not forthcoming
    • bOpposition by envornmentalistsAnswer
    • cChange of site
    • dRegional disputes
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the construction of the Tehri Dam faced severe delays due to intense opposition and prolonged protests led by environmentalists like Sunderlal Bahuguna over seismic hazards and ecological destruction. Option A: Foreign aid was obtained from the Soviet Union, so lack of foreign aid was not the primary hold-up. Option C: Change of site was never undertaken as the dam was built at its planned site near Tehri. Option D: Regional disputes among states were not the central cause of the prolonged agitation and delay.

80. Q80Environment in the news: named projects, missions, reports and rankings

    Planet Protection Fund was proposed by

    • aIndira Gandhi
    • bMenaka Gandhi
    • cRajiv GandhiAnswer
    • dU. N.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi proposed the creation of a Planet Protection Fund under the auspices of the United Nations at the Belgrade Non-Aligned Movement Summit in September 1989. Option A: Indira Gandhi highlighted poverty and environment at the 1972 Stockholm Conference but did not propose the Planet Protection Fund. Option B: Menaka Gandhi was an environmental activist and minister but did not propose this international fund. Option D: U. N. is the international body before which the proposal was made, not the originator of the proposal.