TGPSC Group-I Prelims 1995

138 questions from the 1995 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81Biotechnology and genetic engineering

    The method of growing more plants in a short period.

    • aGenetic engineering
    • bPlant breeding
    • cTissue cultureAnswer
    • dPollination
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because tissue culture enables rapid micropropagation, producing thousands of identical, pathogen-free plants from tiny tissue explants in a short time under sterile conditions. Option A: Genetic engineering introduces or alters specific genes rather than functioning as a rapid multiplication technique for mass propagation. Option B: Plant breeding requires multiple generations of conventional crossing and selection, making it a time-consuming process. Option D: Pollination is the natural transfer of pollen for sexual reproduction and does not provide rapid, large-scale plant multiplication.

82. Q82SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    What is the function that performs suicide in animals?

    • aAid to kidneys
    • bFunction of hematopoietic tissueAnswer
    • cAid to liver
    • dBlood pressure regulation

    Explanation coming soon.

83. Q83SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    The growth-promoting substance that aids in the production of seedless grapes.

    • a2-4 D
    • bEthylene acid
    • cCytokinin
    • dAuxinAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because auxins promote parthenocarpy, which leads to the development of seedless fruits in plants such as grapes and tomatoes. Option A: 2-4 D is a synthetic auxin commonly applied as a selective herbicide to eliminate broadleaf weeds rather than for fruit development. Option B: Ethylene is a gaseous hormone primarily responsible for fruit ripening and abscission, not parthenocarpy. Option C: Cytokinin primarily promotes cell division and delay of senescence rather than the induction of seedless fruit development.

84. Q84SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    One of the following is not a true fossil.

    • aRimulas
    • bArabia FibersAnswer
    • cFlack Dur
    • dThirasmid

    Explanation coming soon.

85. Q85SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    A compound that affects organisms of its own species and is secreted externally from the body of an organism is called this.

    • aSubarmone
    • bSurrormone
    • cSurror Transmitter
    • dPheromoneAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because pheromones are ectohormones released into the external environment by an organism that elicit an innate behavioural or endocrine response in conspecifics, meaning members of the same species. Option A: Subarmone is a fabricated word with no scientific standing in biological nomenclature. Option B: Surrormone is an invented term not recognized in endocrinology or animal communication. Option C: Surror Transmitter is a non-existent phrase mimicking neurotransmitters.

86. Q86SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?

    • aTail in humans
    • bSplint bone in horse
    • cHair on human body
    • dNictitating membrane in frogAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the nictitating membrane in frogs is a fully functional, transparent third eyelid that moves across the eye to provide protection and lubrication while allowing vision underwater. Option A: Tail in humans is reduced to the coccyx, a non-functional remnant of ancestral vertebrate tails. Option B: Splint bones in horses are reduced remnants of the second and fourth digits with no weight-bearing role. Option C: Hair on the human body is largely rudimentary and serves no vital thermoregulatory role compared to ancestral fur.

87. Q87SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    This is related to the formation of pearls.

    • aPearl
    • bPinctadaAnswer
    • cPylitis
    • dNalitis
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Pinctada is the genus of marine pearl oysters belonging to the family Pteriidae, which are primarily cultivated for producing natural and commercial pearls. Option A: Pearl is the lustrous object produced inside the mollusc, not the organism or agent responsible for its biological formation. Option C: Pylitis, or pyelitis, is a pathological condition referring to inflammation of the renal pelvis in the kidney. Option D: Nalitis is an irrelevant medical-sounding term unrelated to pearl production.

88. Q88HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Which vitamin dissolves diseases?

    • aVitamin A
    • bVitamin B₁₂
    • cVitamin CAnswer
    • dVitamin D
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) acts as an essential antioxidant and immune-enhancing nutrient historically recognized for combating, resisting, and curing diseases such as scurvy and various infections. Option A: Vitamin A primarily maintains epithelial integrity and visual function rather than acting as a broad disease-curing agent. Option B: Vitamin B12 is essential for hematopoiesis and myelin sheath maintenance, not general disease resolution. Option D: Vitamin D is primarily responsible for regulating calcium homeostasis and bone mineralization.

89. Q89HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Which of the pairs given below, has low amounts of fat and cholesterol.

    • aOkra
    • bCucumber
    • cRadish
    • dEdible mushroomsAnswer

    Explanation coming soon.

90. Q90HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Those rich in iron and other elements.

    • aPulses
    • bPotatoes
    • cMillets
    • dLeafy vegetablesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because green leafy vegetables, such as spinach and amaranth, are exceptionally rich natural sources of non-heme iron as well as essential minerals like calcium, magnesium, and trace elements. Option A: Pulses are primarily valued as rich sources of plant proteins rather than the richest source of diverse micronutrients and iron relative to leafy greens. Option B: Potatoes are predominantly a source of carbohydrates and starch with modest mineral content. Option C: Millets contain dietary fiber and minerals, but leafy greens have a significantly higher concentration of iron and vital micronutrients per serving.

91. Q91SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    What is the main component in soap?

    • aSodium stearateAnswer
    • bSodium citrate
    • cPotassium tartrate
    • dSodium salicylate
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because traditional soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids, with sodium stearate being the most common major constituent formed by the saponification of fats. Option B: Sodium citrate is the sodium salt of citric acid, used as an anticoagulant or food additive, not as a cleansing soap. Option C: Potassium tartrate is a salt of tartaric acid used in baking and medicine, not a surfactant. Option D: Sodium salicylate is an analgesic and antipyretic compound, not a fatty acid cleansing agent.

92. Q92SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Crude common salt is hygroscopic due to the following impurities.

    • aCaSO₄ and MgSO₄
    • bCaCl₂ and MgCl₂Answer
    • cCaBr₂ and MgBr₂
    • dCaCO₃ and MgCO₃
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because pure sodium chloride is not deliquescent, but crude rock or sea salt contains magnesium chloride and calcium chloride, which readily absorb moisture from the atmosphere. Option A: Calcium sulfate and magnesium sulfate are not the primary deliquescent impurities responsible for the hygroscopic nature of crude common salt. Option C: Bromide salts occur in negligible trace quantities in common salt and are not the cause of its hygroscopic property. Option D: Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate are insoluble in water and non-hygroscopic.

93. Q93SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Which of the following is an alloy?

    • aQuartz
    • bGraphite
    • cDiamond
    • dNichromeAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because nichrome is an alloy primarily composed of nickel and chromium, commonly used as a heating element due to its high resistivity and oxidation resistance. Option A: Quartz is a chemical compound of silicon and oxygen, not an alloy. Option B: Graphite is an allotrope of pure carbon. Option C: Diamond is another crystalline allotrope of carbon, not an alloy.

94. Q94SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    When ornaments are made with gold, copper or silver is also added because......

    • aPure gold is not useful for drawing into a thin wire or molding into a thin sheet.
    • bPure gold is very hard.
    • cPure gold is very brittle.
    • dPure gold is too soft to use.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because pure 24-karat gold is too soft and malleable to maintain its shape, so metals like copper or silver are added to increase its hardness and durability for jewellery making. Option A: Pure gold is extremely ductile and malleable, making it very suitable for drawing into fine wires and sheets. Option B: Pure gold is a soft metal, not a very hard one. Option C: Pure gold bends and deforms easily instead of being brittle.

95. Q95SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Railway lines are made of steel. Because...

    • aSteel does not have malleable nature
    • bSteel does not rust due to smell
    • cSteel is strong enough to bear the weight of railway coachesAnswer
    • dSteel is cheaper than other metals
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because steel possesses extremely high tensile strength, elasticity, and load-bearing capacity, allowing it to withstand the heavy dynamic loads and continuous mechanical stresses exerted by trains. Option A: Steel is malleable, but malleability is not the governing mechanical requirement for supporting train weights. Option B: Rusting is an electrochemical reaction that depends on moisture and oxygen, having no relation to smell. Option D: Railway-grade steel is more expensive than basic pig iron or cast iron, but it is selected for its superior mechanical strength.

96. Q96SCHOOL PHYSICS

    In oil lamps, the reason for oil rising up through the wicks is due to the oil's

    • aCapillarity propertyAnswer
    • bPressure difference
    • cViscosity property
    • dTemperature difference
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the narrow spaces between the fibers of the wick act as fine capillary tubes, allowing capillary action driven by surface tension and adhesive forces to pull the oil upward against gravity. Option B: Pressure differences do not drive fluid movement through the porous wick fibers. Option C: Viscosity is the fluid resistance to flow, which actually opposes the liquid rising rather than causing it. Option D: Temperature difference is not the mechanism responsible for drawing oil up an unlit or newly lit wick.

97. Q97SCHOOL PHYSICS

    The orbital period of a satellite orbiting very close to the Earth's surface is approximately.

    • a3000 sec.
    • b4000 sec.
    • c5000 sec.Answer
    • d6000 sec.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the orbital period of a satellite orbiting near Earth's surface is roughly 84.6 minutes, which corresponds to approximately 5078 seconds, closest to 5000 seconds. Radius of Earth R = 6.4 x 10^6 m Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s^2 Orbital period T = 2 * pi * sqrt(R / g) T = 2 * 3.1416 * 808 ≈ 5078 seconds Option A: 3000 sec. corresponds to 50 minutes, which is far too fast for a stable Earth orbit. Option B: 4000 sec. corresponds to 66.7 minutes, which would require Earth's gravity to be far stronger than it is. Option D: 6000 sec. corresponds to 100 minutes, which represents an orbit hundreds of kilometers above the surface rather than close to it.

98. Q98SCHOOL PHYSICS

    Ice cubes melt faster in water than in air. Why?

    • aWater is heavier than air.
    • bHeat energy is less in water than in air.
    • cThe composition of water and ice is the same.
    • dHeat energy is more in water than in air.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because liquid water has a much higher density and heat capacity than air, meaning a given volume of water stores and transfers far more thermal energy to the ice per unit time. Option A: Density differences influence thermal contact, but higher weight itself is not the thermal mechanism causing faster melting. Option B: Water possesses greater thermal energy than an equal volume of air at the same temperature, not less. Option C: The identical chemical composition of water and ice does not determine the comparative heat transfer rate with air.

99. Q99SCHOOL PHYSICS

    The phenomenon that makes bright colors appear on soap films due to sunlight?

    • aChromatic aberration
    • bInterferenceAnswer
    • cTotal internal reflection
    • dDiffraction
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because thin film interference between light waves reflected from the outer and inner surfaces of the soap film results in constructive interference for specific wavelengths, producing vibrant colors. Option A: Chromatic aberration is a lens defect where different colors focus at different points, not a thin film phenomenon. Option C: Total internal reflection reflects light within a denser medium without causing the path differences that create distinct color patterns. Option D: Diffraction describes the bending of waves around narrow apertures or obstacles rather than reflections from thin boundaries.

100. Q100SCHOOL PHYSICS

     If you want to see your full image in a plane mirror, its minimum length should be.

     • adepends on the distance from the mirror to you
     • bshould be equal to your height
     • cshould be half of your heightAnswer
     • dshould be double your height
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the law of reflection dictates that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection, meaning rays from the top of the head and bottom of the feet require a reflecting surface equal to exactly half the person's height to reach the eyes. Option A: The required mirror height is mathematically independent of the distance between the person and the mirror. Option B: A mirror equal to full body height is double the required minimum length. Option D: Double the height is an unnecessary size that far exceeds what is needed.

101. Q101SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Lasers can be useful in various walks of life. These are

     • agenerators of very high frequency sound waves
     • bgenerators of very high intensity sound waves
     • cgenerators of coherent light wavesAnswer
     • dgenerators of very fast electrons
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because lasers produce monochromatic, directional, and coherent light waves through the process of stimulated emission of radiation. Option A: Lasers are optical devices producing electromagnetic waves, not acoustic sound waves. Option B: Lasers generate electromagnetic radiation, not acoustic sound waves. Option D: Lasers emit photons rather than beams of fast-moving electrons.

102. Q102Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Yesterday, if I looked at my wristwatch after 59 minutes, I feel it is wrong. The reason for this is.

     • aMy watch is a standard watch
     • bMy watch is running one minute slow
     • cMy watch is very fast
     • dMy watch is very fast at one point and slow at anotherAnswer

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

103. Q103Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Most people use cigarettes. Because...

     • aThey have a lot of money to spend
     • bIt is their habitAnswer
     • cIt is a fashionable process
     • dTo be attentive in their work, smoking cigarettes increases intelligence and keeps body nerves in proper condition
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because tobacco smoking involves nicotine dependence, making regular cigarette smoking primarily a habitual addiction rather than a luxury, fashion choice, or health aid. Option A: smoking is prevalent across all socioeconomic classes, not just among people with excess money to spend. Option C: fashion or social trends may initiate smoking, but continuous use is sustained by habit and addiction. Option D: smoking does not enhance intelligence or maintain nervous system health; nicotine is harmful to the human body.

104. Q104Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     In questions 143 and 144, if α means much greater than, β means equal to, θ means not less than, γ means less than, δ means not equal to, and η means not greater than, then which of the following is correct or can be equally inferred. 143. b α 2b and 2b θ r

     • aa γ r
     • ba β r
     • ca η r
     • da α rAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

105. Q105Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     In questions 143 and 144, α means 'greater than', β means 'equal to', θ means 'less than', γ means 'not less than', δ means 'not equal to' and η means 'not greater than'. Which of the following can be correctly inferred, or is it uncertain? 2x δ y and y β 3z

     • a3z η 3y
     • b2x δ 3zAnswer
     • c2x η 3z
     • dy δ 6x

     Explanation coming soon.

106. Q106Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     There are 20 teachers in a school. They teach Mathematics or Physics. If 12 of them teach Mathematics and 4 (four) teach Physics and Mathematics, how many teachers teach Physics?

     • a4
     • b8
     • c12Answer
     • d16
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because applying the principle of inclusion-exclusion for two sets shows that 12 teachers teach Physics. n(M ∪ P) = n(M) + n(P) - n(M ∩ P) 20 = 12 + n(P) - 4 20 = 8 + n(P) n(P) = 20 - 8 = 12 Option A: It gives only the number of teachers who teach both subjects, not all teachers who teach Physics. Option B: It calculates the teachers who teach only Physics rather than the total teaching Physics. Option D: It incorrectly adds the intersection to the total instead of subtracting the math-only group.

107. Q107Series, analogy and odd man out

     Indicate the correct number in place of the question mark (?).

     
     • a10
     • b11Answer
     • c12
     • d13

     Explanation coming soon.

108. Q108Series, analogy and odd man out

     What is the number to be written in the blank space in the following series? 0, 7, 26, .......

     • a47
     • b56
     • c63Answer
     • d72
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because each term represents the cube of consecutive positive integers minus 1. 1^3 - 1 = 0 2^3 - 1 = 7 3^3 - 1 = 26 4^3 - 1 = 63 Option A: 47 does not follow the rule of n^3 - 1. Option B: 56 equals 4^3 - 8 rather than 4^3 - 1. Option D: 72 equals 4^3 + 8, adding instead of subtracting.

109. Q109Series, analogy and odd man out

     The number to be written in the following blank space 266, 196, 256, 169, .......

     • a265
     • b200
     • c256Answer
     • d526
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because each successive term is the square of the sum of the digits of the preceding term. 2 + 6 + 6 = 14, and 14^2 = 196 1 + 9 + 6 = 16, and 16^2 = 256 2 + 5 + 6 = 13, and 13^2 = 169 1 + 6 + 9 = 16, and 16^2 = 256 Option A: 265 is a digit rearrangement rather than the square of 16. Option B: 200 is not a perfect square. Option D: 526 is an anagram of 256 rather than the square of the sum of digits.

110. Q110Series, analogy and odd man out

     In questions 141 and 142, one of them is not related to the other three. Indicate it.

     • aFlat
     • bApartment
     • cGarageAnswer
     • dQuarter
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because a Garage is an outbuilding or space used specifically for parking vehicles or storage, whereas Flat, Apartment, and Quarter are residential dwelling units used for human habitation. Option A: Flat is a residential living accommodation for people. Option B: Apartment is a residential suite of rooms for living. Option D: Quarter is a residential unit provided for housing.

111. Q111Coding, decoding and relations

     If ENGLAND is represented by the numbers 1234526 and FRANCE by 785291, then what number represents GREECE?

     • a832252
     • b935545
     • c381171
     • d381191Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because each letter in GREECE corresponds to a specific number given in the codes for ENGLAND and FRANCE. G = 3 from ENGLAND R = 8 from FRANCE E = 1 from ENGLAND and FRANCE C = 9 from FRANCE GREECE = 381191 Option A: 832252 uses the wrong digits throughout, mistaking G for 8 and R for 3. Option B: 935545 erroneously maps G to 9 and E to 5. Option C: 381171 assigns 7 to C, which is actually the code for F.

112. Q112Coding, decoding and relations

     If MADRAS is written as 'ARSARS', indicate how 'BANGALORE' can be written among the following.

     • aAGLENANO
     • bAGLAGLAGLAnswer
     • cAGLGALORE
     • dAGLRBORE
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the letters at the even positions of MADRAS (2nd, 4th, and 6th), which are A, R, and S, form the sequence ARS that repeats to match the six-letter length. Applying the same logic to BANGALORE, the letters at positions 2, 4, and 6 are A, G, and L, forming the three-letter block AGL that repeats three times to match the nine-letter length, yielding AGLAGLAGL. Option A: rearranges letters from the word into an arbitrary permutation rather than repeating the even-positioned pattern. Option C: preserves the original ending of the word instead of completing the full length with the repeating three-letter unit. Option D: introduces letters from other positions of the word rather than repeating the derived three-letter sequence.

113. Q113Coding, decoding and relations

     If 'A' is the father of 'B' and 'C', 'D' is the mother of 'A', and 'E' is the father of 'A', then which of the following is not true.

     • a'A' is the brother of 'C'
     • b'A' is the son of 'D'
     • c'D' is the wife of 'E'
     • d'E' is the father of 'C'.Answer

     Explanation coming soon.

114. Q114Coding, decoding and relations

     Instruction: Questions from 136 to 139 are based on the following details. There are 6 members in a family: A, B, C, D, E, F. 'C' is the sister of 'A', 'A' is the brother of 'E''s husband. 'D' is the father of 'A' and 'D' is the grandfather of 'F'. In this family, the number of fathers is 2, the number of brothers is 3, and there is only one mother. 136. Who among the following are brothers?

     • aABCAnswer
     • bABD
     • cABF
     • dNone of these

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

115. Q115Coding, decoding and relations

     Directions: Questions 136 to 139 are based on the following information. There are 6 members A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. 'C' is the sister of 'A', and 'A' is the brother of 'E''s husband. 'D' is the father of 'A' and the grandfather of 'F'. In this family there are 2 fathers, 3 brothers and one mother. Who is the mother in this family?

     • aB
     • bC
     • cD
     • dNoneAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

116. Q116Coding, decoding and relations

     Directions: Questions 136 to 139 are based on the following information. There are 6 members A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. 'C' is the sister of 'A', and 'A' is the brother of 'E''s husband. 'D' is the father of 'A' and the grandfather of 'F'. In this family there are 2 fathers, 3 brothers and one mother. Who is the husband of 'E'?

     • aA
     • bBAnswer
     • cC
     • dNone of these

     Explanation coming soon.

117. Q117Shapes, figures and Venn diagrams

     State how many triangles are there in the following figure.

     
     • a18
     • b23Answer
     • c27
     • d30

     Explanation coming soon.

118. Q118Number system and basic operations

     The number which is the square root of (ja2 - 1/ja 2) up to 3 decimal places?

     • a0.414Answer
     • b0.512
     • c0.612
     • d0.712

     Explanation coming soon.

119. Q119Number system and basic operations

     The number of bananas in one bunch is one-third of the number of bananas in the second bunch. If the number of fruits in the second bunch is 3 less than the number of fruits in the first bunch, what is the number of fruits in the first bunch?

     • a9
     • b12Answer
     • c16
     • d18

     Explanation coming soon.

120. Q120Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     A sum was divided between 'A' and 'B'. If 3 times the share received by 'A' is equal to 2 times the share received by 'B', what is 'A''s share of the total sum?

     • a2/3
     • b3/5
     • c2/5Answer
     • d1/3
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the given relation 3A = 2B means that A gets 2 parts out of every 5 parts of the total sum. 3 * A = 2 * B A / B = 2 / 3 Total parts = 2 + 3 = 5 A's share of total = 2 / 5 Option A: 2/3 is incorrect because it represents the ratio of A's share to B's share, not to the total sum. Option B: 3/5 is incorrect because it represents B's share of the total sum. Option D: 1/3 is incorrect because it does not satisfy the equation 3A = 2B.