TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2002

286 questions from the 2002 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81India's foreign policy and international relations

    What is the current number of members in the United Nations General Assembly?

    • a185Answer
    • b175
    • c195
    • d190

    Explanation coming soon.

82. Q82India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following posts was newly created by the United Nations General Assembly?

    • aSecretary General
    • bDeputy Secretary GeneralAnswer
    • cHead of State
    • dDeputy Head of State
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the post of Deputy Secretary-General was newly created by the United Nations General Assembly in late 1997 through resolution 51/128 as part of institutional reform. 1945: UN Charter establishes the post of Secretary-General 1997: UN General Assembly resolution 51/128 creates the post of Deputy Secretary-General Option A: The post of Secretary-General was established in 1945 by the original UN Charter, not newly created later. Option C: Head of State is a domestic government post and not a position created by the United Nations General Assembly. Option D: Deputy Head of State is a national administrative office and not a United Nations Secretariat position.

83. Q83India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following countries is not a member of the G-15 organization?

    • aChile
    • bKenya
    • cNigeria
    • dPakistanAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Pakistan is not, and has never been, a member of the Group of 15 (G-15). Option A: Chile is one of the member states representing Latin America in the G-15. Option B: Kenya is one of the member states representing Africa in the G-15. Option C: Nigeria is a prominent founding member from Africa in the G-15.

84. Q84Other countries' constitutions: presidential and parliamentary systems compared

    One of the following is the basis for Charles's views on sovereignty and government?

    • aJuristsAnswer
    • bBami
    • cButua
    • dMistus-Fus-Sirus

    Explanation coming soon.

85. Q85Other countries' constitutions: presidential and parliamentary systems compared

    In the administration of which country do powers play a prominent role?

    • aEnglandAnswer
    • bCanada
    • cIndia
    • dSwitzerland

    Explanation coming soon.

86. Q86Polity in the news: new committees, commissions of inquiry and cases in the courts

    Which state's High Court ruled that benches are illegal and unconstitutional?

    • aTamil Nadu High Court
    • bKerala High CourtAnswer
    • cWest Bengal High Court
    • dKarnataka High Court
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Full Bench of the Kerala High Court in the landmark case of Bharat Kumar v. State of Kerala (1997) held that the calling and holding of bandhs (referred to here via typographical error as benches) are illegal and unconstitutional, a verdict later upheld by the Supreme Court. Option A: Tamil Nadu High Court is incorrect because the historic constitutional judgment declaring bandhs illegal originated in Kerala. Option C: West Bengal High Court is incorrect because the Calcutta High Court was not the court that delivered this initial landmark ruling. Option D: Karnataka High Court is incorrect because it did not author the principal ruling holding forced closures and bandhs unconstitutional.

87. Q87Polity in the news: new committees, commissions of inquiry and cases in the courts

    The Srikrishna Commission was appointed to investigate the riots that occurred in which of the following cities?

    • aDelhi
    • bMumbaiAnswer
    • cKolkata
    • dMadras
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Justice B N Srikrishna Commission was appointed by the Maharashtra government in January 1993 to investigate the causes and consequences of the communal violence that rocked Mumbai in December 1992 and January 1993. Option A: The 1984 anti-Sikh violence in Delhi was probed by commissions such as the Nanavati Commission, not the Srikrishna Commission. Option C: Kolkata was not the subject city of the communal riot inquiries conducted by Justice Srikrishna. Option D: Madras did not experience the large-scale communal violence investigated by this commission.

88. Q88STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Who appoints the State Finance Commission?

    • aComptroller and Auditor General
    • bPrime Minister
    • cState GovernmentAnswer
    • dIndian Finance Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because under Article 243-I and Article 243-Y of the Constitution of India, the State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor acting on the aid and advice of the State Government. Article 243-I: Constitution of Finance Commission to review financial position of Panchayats Article 243-Y: Application of Finance Commission provisions to Municipalities Frequency: Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year Option A: The Comptroller and Auditor General audits government revenues and expenditures and has no role in setting up finance commissions. Option B: The Prime Minister heads the Union executive and is not involved in constituting state commissions. Option D: The Indian Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article 280 for Union-State tax distributions, not for intra-state local bodies.

89. Q89What an economy is measured by

    National income in India is calculated by.

    • aIndian Standards Institute
    • bIndian Statistical Institute
    • cCentral Statistical OrganizationAnswer
    • dNational Council of Applied Economic Research
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Central Statistical Organisation, now operating as the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, is the official government agency responsible for compiling and publishing national accounts data in India. Option A: Indian Standards Institute is wrong because it is the predecessor of the Bureau of Indian Standards, which formulates industrial quality and product benchmarks. Option B: Indian Statistical Institute is wrong because it is an academic and research institution, not the governmental body tasked with calculating national income. Option D: National Council of Applied Economic Research is wrong because it is an independent, non-profit economic research think tank.

90. Q90Economic thought: the thinkers, the schools and the Nobel prize

    What is Amartya Kumar Sen's birthplace?

    • aMahan Bagh
    • bLumbini Garden
    • cLalbagh
    • dShanti NivasAnswer

    Explanation coming soon.

91. Q91Economic thought: the thinkers, the schools and the Nobel prize

    In which field did Amartya Kumar Sen receive the prestigious Nobel Prize?

    • aEthics
    • bPolitical Science
    • cPhilosophy
    • dEconomicsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Amartya Sen was awarded the 1998 Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel for his groundbreaking contributions to welfare economics and social choice theory. Option A: Ethics is not a designated category among the Nobel Prizes, although Sens economic work extensively incorporates ethical philosophy. Option B: Political Science does not have a designated Nobel Prize category. Option C: Philosophy is not one of the award disciplines established under the Nobel Foundation or the Swedish central bank.

92. Q92Economic data, indices and state rankings

    According to the 2002 National Human Development Report, which of the following states is known to have achieved the highest standard of living?

    • aMaharashtra
    • bKeralaAnswer
    • cAndhra Pradesh
    • dWest Bengal
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the National Human Development Report 2001 (published in 2002 by the Planning Commission) placed Kerala at the top of the Human Development Index across Indian states, reflecting its superior achievements in life expectancy, literacy, and overall living standards. Option A: Maharashtra performed moderately well on income metrics but lagged Kerala on broader human development and composite living standard indices. Option C: Andhra Pradesh ranked in the middle tier among major states across the key parameters in the 2002 report. Option D: West Bengal was ranked in the lower-middle tier due to slower progress on health and educational indicators.

93. Q93Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    During the Eighth Five-Year Plan period, the growth rate eventually increased and reached this level.

    • a6.7 percentAnswer
    • b8.0 percent
    • c9.0 percent
    • d7.6 percent
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Eighth Five-Year Plan achieved an actual average GDP growth rate of approximately 6.68 percent, which is officially cited as 6.7 percent. Eighth Plan period: 1992 to 1997 Targeted GDP growth rate: 5.6 percent Actual GDP growth achieved: 6.7 percent Option B: 8.0 percent was neither the target nor the achieved growth rate for the Eighth Plan. Option C: 9.0 percent was targeted in later plans such as the Eleventh Plan, not achieved in the Eighth Plan. Option D: 7.6 percent was the growth achieved during the Tenth Five-Year Plan, not the Eighth.

94. Q94Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

    • aBombay Plan - John Mathai
    • bPeople's Plan - M. VisvesvarayaAnswer
    • cGandhian Plan - Srimannarayan
    • dSecond Plan - P.C. Mahalanobis
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the People's Plan was drafted by M.N. Roy in 1945, whereas Sir M. Visvesvaraya authored the pioneering book Planned Economy for India in 1934. Option A: John Mathai was one of the eight prominent industrialists and signatories who formulated the Bombay Plan in 1944. Option C: Sriman Narayan Agarwal formulated the Gandhian Plan in 1944. Option D: P.C. Mahalanobis developed the famous two-sector and four-sector growth model on which the Second Five-Year Plan was based.

95. Q95Population, poverty and work

    In 1999, the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was restructured as

    • aJawahar Samridhi Yojana
    • bJawahar Gram Yojana
    • cGram Samridhi Yojana
    • dJawahar Gram Samridhi YojanaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because in April 1999, the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was restructured and renamed as the Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana to dedicatedly focus on rural village infrastructure and secondary wage employment. April 1989: Jawahar Rozgar Yojana launched April 1999: Jawahar Rozgar Yojana restructured as Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana Option A: Jawahar Samridhi Yojana is incorrect as the word Gram was part of the official restructured title. Option B: Jawahar Gram Yojana is an incorrect title that was never used for the restructured scheme. Option C: Gram Samridhi Yojana is incorrect because the prefix Jawahar was retained in the official title.

96. Q96Population, poverty and work

    In which year was the Integrated Rural Development Programme launched?

    • a1976
    • b1979
    • c1980Answer
    • d1984
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched nationwide on October 2, 1980. Option A: 1976 refers to the year the concept of IRDP was first proposed in the central budget, but it was not the year the full programme was launched. Option B: 1979 marks the launch of TRYSEM as a component of IRDP, not the launch of IRDP itself. Option D: 1984 falls during the Sixth Five-Year Plan period after IRDP was already operational across the country.

97. Q97Population, poverty and work

    The Antyodaya Programme was launched for the first time in the following state?

    • aTamil Nadu
    • bOdisha
    • cWest Bengal
    • dRajasthanAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Rajasthan was the first state in India to launch the Antyodaya Programme in 1977 to assist the poorest families in rural areas. Launch year: 1977 Pioneering state: Rajasthan Chief Minister at the time: Bhairon Singh Shekhawat Option A: Tamil Nadu did not pioneer this programme. Option B: Odisha was not the first state to launch the scheme. Option C: West Bengal did not originate the Antyodaya Programme.

98. Q98Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Among non-food grain crops, which of the following crop is cultivated in the largest area?

    • aJute
    • bOilseedsAnswer
    • cCotton
    • dSugarcane
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because oilseeds collectively account for the largest cultivated area among all non-food grain crop categories in India, covering around 26 to 28 million hectares annually. Oilseeds cultivated area: 26 to 28 million hectares Cotton cultivated area: 12 to 13 million hectares Sugarcane cultivated area: 4.5 to 5.0 million hectares Jute cultivated area: 0.7 to 0.8 million hectares Option A: Jute occupies a relatively small area of less than one million hectares, mainly confined to West Bengal, Bihar, and Assam. Option C: Cotton covers roughly 12 to 13 million hectares, which is less than half the acreage devoted to oilseeds. Option D: Sugarcane cultivation spans approximately 5 million hectares, far below the area under oilseeds.

99. Q99Agriculture in the Indian economy

    NABARD helps in rural development in the following way?

    • aBy directly providing loans to farmers
    • bBy financially refinancingAnswer
    • cBy helping Gram Panchayats
    • dBy helping Zilla Parishads
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because NABARD functions as an apex refinancing agency that provides refinance support to commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks, and cooperative banks for rural and agricultural development. Option A: NABARD does not disburse retail loans directly to individual farmers. Option C: NABARD channels credit through scheduled financial institutions rather than directly assisting the administration of Gram Panchayats. Option D: NABARD does not support rural credit by extending administrative or direct fiscal grants to Zilla Parishads.

100. Q100Agriculture in the Indian economy

     Prices of agricultural products are determined by the following institution?

     • aCentral Government
     • bState Government
     • cAgricultural Products Marketing Board
     • dAgricultural Prices CommissionAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Agricultural Prices Commission, set up in 1965 and later renamed the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices in 1985, was established specifically to advise and determine agricultural price policy in India. Option A: Central Government notifies and approves the final MSP on the advice of the Commission rather than independently determining the price structure. Option B: State Government does not have the constitutional or statutory authority to determine nationwide agricultural support prices. Option C: Agricultural Products Marketing Board regulates physical market yards and trade practices rather than determining national support prices.

101. Q101Industry in the Indian economy

     Among the following, which is India's largest industry?

     • aIron and Steel Industry
     • bTextile IndustryAnswer
     • cFertilizer Industry
     • dCement Industry
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the textile industry is India's largest industry, accounting for the largest share of industrial production, substantial export earnings, and the highest workforce employment after agriculture. Option A: Iron and Steel is a basic capital goods industry, but its total employment and overall production volume are far smaller than textiles. Option C: Fertilizer is a specialized chemical sector with a much narrower output base and workforce. Option D: Cement is an essential infrastructure manufacturing sector, but it does not match the scale or employment generation of textiles.

102. Q102Public finance and the budget

     What is deficit budget policy?

     • aDepending on foreign loans
     • bBorrowing and spending
     • cNot spending enough for development
     • dSpending more than incomeAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because a deficit budget policy refers to a fiscal stance in which the government's total planned expenditures exceed its total estimated revenues or income during a financial year. Option A: Depending on foreign loans is only one specific method of financing a deficit, not the definition of a deficit budget. Option B: Borrowing and spending describes the means of funding the shortfall rather than defining the condition of deficit budgeting itself. Option C: Not spending enough for development describes an austerity or contractionary stance, which contradicts the expansionary nature of deficit budgeting.

103. Q103Public finance and the budget

     From the 2002-2003 budget, which item was removed from the various factors determining the mandatory submission of income tax returns?

     • aTelephoneAnswer
     • bCell phone
     • cMembership in any club by paying a specific fee
     • dForeign travel
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Union Budget 2002-2003 modified the telephone criterion under the one-by-six scheme of Section 139(1) of the Income Tax Act, removing cellular phones from the statutory definition of telephone to relieve ordinary mobile users from mandatory filing. Option B: Cell phone was the specific technology excluded by amending the statutory telephone factor rather than being listed as an independent factor under the original six criteria. Option C: Club membership remained an active criterion under the one-by-six scheme until the scheme was entirely abolished in 2006. Option D: Foreign travel remained an active criterion under the one-by-six scheme throughout that period and was not deleted in the 2002-2003 budget.

104. Q104Public finance and the budget

     What was the subsidy spent for the Public Distribution System in the financial year 2000-2001?

     • a2,400 crore rupees
     • b4000 crore rupees
     • c8,400 crore rupees
     • d8,100 crore rupeesAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the food subsidy earmarked specifically for the Public Distribution System in the Union Budget of 2000-2001 stood at approximately 8,100 crore rupees. Option A: 2,400 crore rupees is incorrect because it reflects only a fraction of the targeted food subsidy allocated in that fiscal year. Option B: 4000 crore rupees is incorrect because it severely underestimates the operational costs and procurement subsidy of the Public Distribution System for 2000-2001. Option C: 8,400 crore rupees is incorrect because this figure does not match the official budgetary allocation of 8,100 crore rupees recorded for the Public Distribution System.

105. Q105External sector and the world economy

     With the aim of promoting mango exports, where was a new export zone recently established?

     • aMaharashtra
     • bBihar
     • cTamil Nadu
     • dUttar PradeshAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because an Agri Export Zone (AEZ) specifically dedicated to mangoes and mango products was established in Uttar Pradesh covering regions such as Lucknow, Malihabad, and Saharanpur. Option A: Maharashtra already had established export zones for Alphonso mangoes earlier and was not the state referenced in this specific initiative. Option B: Bihar did not establish this dedicated mango export zone. Option C: Tamil Nadu focuses primarily on export zones for flowers and other fruits rather than this designated mango export hub.

106. Q106External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following is not imported from India?

     • aManufactured goods
     • bPackaged goods, textiles
     • cGems
     • dMilk, milk productsAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because while India is the world's largest producer of milk, almost the entirety of the output is absorbed by massive domestic consumption, meaning foreign nations do not significantly import milk and milk products from India. Option A: Manufactured goods are major merchandise items that other nations consistently import from India. Option B: Packaged goods, textiles are prominent, traditional Indian export items heavily imported by global markets. Option C: Gems and processed jewellery represent one of India's top foreign trade categories purchased and imported globally.

107. Q107External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following countries produces the most natural hydrogen fiber in the entire world?

     • aChina
     • bIndia
     • cRussiaAnswer
     • dU.S.A

     Explanation coming soon.

108. Q108External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following countries has the most developed pulp and paper industry?

     • aU.S.A
     • bCentral America
     • cCanadaAnswer
     • dMexico

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

109. Q109External sector and the world economy

     The country that produces the most Cocoa in the world?

     • aGhana
     • bIvory CoastAnswer
     • cNigeria
     • dBrazil
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Ivory Coast (Cote d'Ivoire) is the world's largest producer of cocoa beans, accounting for over forty percent of the global supply. Option A: Ghana is the second-largest producer of cocoa globally, trailing Ivory Coast. Option C: Nigeria is a major African cocoa producer but ranks fourth in global production behind Ivory Coast, Ghana, and Indonesia. Option D: Brazil produces cocoa primarily in Bahia but consumes most of it domestically and ranks well below West African producers.

110. Q110STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

     Which state government progressed independently in the power sector without the help of the Central Government?

     • aMaharashtra
     • bKarnataka
     • cJammu and Kashmir
     • dAndhra PradeshAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Andhra Pradesh pioneered independent power sector initiatives, restructuring, and self-reliance in capacity additions and round-the-clock power supply schemes largely driven at the state level. Option A: Maharashtra is incorrect because its power sector restructuring and additions were undertaken within central reform framework programs. Option B: Karnataka is incorrect because it relied extensively on central public sector undertakings and centrally assisted power schemes. Option C: Jammu and Kashmir is incorrect because its power infrastructure has been heavily funded and supported directly through central assistance and central packages.

111. Q111The Earth in the solar system

     How long does it take for the planet Saturn to orbit the Sun once?

     • a1) One year
     • b2) 12 years
     • c3) 29 yearsAnswer
     • d4) 248 years
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Saturn orbits the Sun at an average distance of about 1.4 billion kilometers, completing one revolution in approximately 29.5 Earth years. Earth orbital period: 1 year Jupiter orbital period: approximately 12 years Saturn orbital period: approximately 29.5 years Pluto orbital period: approximately 248 years Option A: One year is the orbital period of Earth. Option B: 12 years is the approximate orbital period of Jupiter. Option D: 248 years is the orbital period of the dwarf planet Pluto.

112. Q112The Earth in the solar system

     What is 'Cosmic Dust'?

     • aSubstance found on the Moon
     • bDust generated by the Sun
     • cSmall pieces of matter spread throughout spaceAnswer
     • dDust found in constellations
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because cosmic dust consists of microscopic solid particles and aggregates of matter distributed throughout interstellar, interplanetary, and circumstellar space. Option A: Regolith or lunar soil specifically denotes the surface material of the Moon rather than cosmic dust broadly. Option B: Solar emissions primarily consist of high-energy electromagnetic radiation and charged solar wind plasma, not solid dust particles. Option D: Constellations are arbitrary optical arrangements of distant stars seen from Earth, not physical regions defined by dust.

113. Q113The Earth in the solar system

     Sea of Tranquility is located in one of the following?

     • aPacific Ocean
     • bAtlantic Ocean
     • cIndian Ocean
     • dNot any oceanAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Sea of Tranquility (Mare Tranquillitatis) is not a terrestrial body of water, but a basaltic lunar mare located on the Moon, famously known as the landing site of Apollo 11. Option A: Pacific Ocean is an earthly ocean, whereas the Sea of Tranquility lies on the surface of the Moon. Option B: Atlantic Ocean is a terrestrial body of water on Earth. Option C: Indian Ocean is an earthly body of water.

114. Q114The Earth in the solar system

     Why do we always see the same face of the Moon?

     • aBecause it is smaller than the Earth.
     • bBecause it revolves on its axis in the opposite direction to the Earth.
     • cBecause the time it takes to revolve around the Earth is equal to the time it takes to rotate on its own axis.Answer
     • dBecause it revolves around the Earth at the same speed as the Earth revolves around the Sun.
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Moon is tidally locked to Earth, meaning its rotation period on its axis is identical to its revolution period around Earth, keeping the same hemisphere turned toward us at all times. Option A: The relative size of the Moon compared to Earth does not influence which side remains visible. Option B: The Moon rotates in the same prograde direction as Earth's rotation and orbit, not the opposite direction. Option D: The Moon orbits Earth in about 27.3 days, whereas Earth's revolution around the Sun takes approximately 365.25 days.

115. Q115Interior of the Earth and its landforms

     Which of the following is the largest delta in the world?

     • aGanga River DeltaAnswer
     • bNile River Delta
     • cMississippi River Delta
     • dAmazon River Delta
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta, also known as the Sundarbans Delta, covers an area of approximately 100,000 square kilometers, making it the largest river delta on Earth. Option B: It covers around 24,000 square kilometers, which is significantly smaller than the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta. Option C: It is a bird-foot delta that covers around 28,000 square kilometers, far less than the Ganga-Brahmaputra system. Option D: The Amazon does not form a classic subaerial delta because intense oceanic tides and currents disperse its sediments into the Atlantic Ocean.

116. Q116Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Among the following cities, in which city do the sun's rays not fall vertically on the Earth?

     • aHyderabad
     • bDelhiAnswer
     • cKolkata
     • dMumbai
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Sun shines vertically overhead only in regions between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5 degrees S), and Delhi is situated north of this zone. Hyderabad: approximately 17.4 degrees N Mumbai: approximately 19.1 degrees N Kolkata: approximately 22.6 degrees N Delhi: approximately 28.6 degrees N Option A: Hyderabad is south of the Tropic of Cancer and receives perpendicular rays twice a year. Option C: Kolkata is south of the Tropic of Cancer and experiences vertical sunlight twice a year. Option D: Mumbai is south of the Tropic of Cancer and receives overhead sunlight twice a year.

117. Q117Oceans

     Among the following, which is the most saline?

     • aDead SeaAnswer
     • bCaspian Sea
     • cLake Uta
     • dRed Sea
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Dead Sea has a hypersaline environment with a salinity around 238 to 330 parts per thousand, which is far higher than the Caspian Sea and the Red Sea. Dead Sea: about 238 to 330 parts per thousand Lake Uta (Great Salt Lake): about 220 parts per thousand Red Sea: about 36 to 41 parts per thousand Caspian Sea: about 12 to 13 parts per thousand Option B: Caspian Sea is a brackish water body with salinity far lower than hyper-saline lakes. Option C: Lake Uta has a high salinity around 220 parts per thousand, which is lower than the Dead Sea. Option D: Red Sea is among the most saline open seas at around 40 parts per thousand, but it is far below landlocked hypersaline lakes.

118. Q118Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     The rainforest in the Amazon basin is called by the following name?

     • aCampos
     • bSelvasAnswer
     • cPampas
     • dLlanos
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the broadleaf evergreen equatorial rainforests of the Amazon river basin in South America are traditionally termed Selvas. Option A: Campos refers to tropical grassland areas situated mainly in central and southern Brazil. Option C: Pampas denotes the fertile temperate grasslands located primarily in Argentina and Uruguay. Option D: Llanos refers to the tropical savannah grassland biome found in Venezuela and Colombia.

119. Q119India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Which is the highest mountain peak in India?

     • aMount Everest
     • bKanchenjungaAnswer
     • cK₂
     • dKailash

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

120. Q120India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Bhavatarini Peak is located in the following region?

     • aKashmir
     • bNepalAnswer
     • cTibet-Nepal
     • dXinjiang-Tibet

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.