TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2007

72 questions from the 2007 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   In Nashik and Kanheri, among the following, which sect of Buddhism was prominent?

   • aSarvastivadins
   • bSthaviravadins
   • cTheravadins
   • dBhadrayanikaAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because the Bhadrayanika sect, an early offshoot of the Vatsiputriya school of Buddhism, had a prominent monastic presence in the Western Deccan as evidenced by inscriptions at the Nashik and Kanheri cave complexes. Option A: The Sarvastivadins were prominent in northern India, Kashmir, and Mathura rather than being the signature sect at Nashik and Kanheri. Option B: Sthaviravadins represent the broad parent lineage rather than the specific sect designated in the Satavahana-era cave donations. Option C: Theravadins flourished primarily in Sri Lanka and mainland Southeast Asia rather than forming the specific community identified at these sites.

2. Q2Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   During the Kushana period, among the following, which style of art developed?

   • aMathura
   • bAmaravati
   • cGandharaAnswer
   • dSarnath
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because the Gandhara style of art flourished extensively under the patronage of the Kushana rulers, particularly Kanishka, in regions such as Peshawar and Taxila. Option A: Mathura art also developed under the Kushanas, but Gandhara is uniquely recognized as the distinct style of this frontier empire. Option B: Amaravati art developed in the Krishna-Godavari basin under the patronage of the Satavahanas and Ikshvakus, not the Kushanas. Option D: Sarnath sculpture reached its artistic zenith much later under the Gupta dynasty.

3. Q3Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Author of Mṛcchakaṭika:

   • aShudrakaAnswer
   • bBhasa
   • cVarahamihira
   • dKalidasa
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Mrcchakatika, also known as The Little Clay Cart, is a celebrated ten-act Sanskrit drama authored by King Shudraka. Option B: Bhasa was an early classical playwright who composed works such as Svapnavasavadatta and Urubhanga. Option C: Varahamihira was a polymath and astronomer who authored scientific texts like Panchasiddhantika and Brihat Samhita. Option D: Kalidasa wrote major classical plays including Abhijnanasakuntalam and Malavikagnimitram.

4. Q4Gupta and post-Gupta India

   In India, a new type of social structure called the Jajmani system became prevalent:

   • aAfter the Vedic period
   • bDuring the Mauryan period
   • cDuring the Gupta period
   • dAfter the Gupta eraAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because the Jajmani system, which organized village labor through traditional, hereditary relationships of service and grain remuneration, gained widespread prevalence in the post-Gupta early medieval era. Option A: The post-Vedic era saw urbanization and early state formation rather than the medieval Jajmani division of village labor. Option B: The Mauryan period maintained a centralized economy with extensive state involvement in production and revenue. Option C: The Gupta period initiated the land-grant economy, but the fully evolved Jajmani village institution became prevalent only in the subsequent era.

5. Q5Gupta and post-Gupta India

   The famous Jagannath Temple in Puri was built in the 12th century by:

   • aAnantavarman ChodagangaAnswer
   • bBhanudeva
   • cPrataparudra
   • dKapilendra
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because King Anantavarman Chodaganga of the Eastern Ganga dynasty began the construction of the present Jagannath Temple at Puri in the 12th century CE. Option B: Bhanudeva was a later Eastern Ganga ruler who did not build this temple. Option C: Prataparudra was a 16th-century ruler belonging to the Suryavamshi Gajapati dynasty. Option D: Kapilendra founded the Suryavamshi Gajapati dynasty in the 15th century, centuries after the temple's construction.

6. Q6Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Among the following kings of Kashmir, which king built the Martand Temple dedicated to the Sun God?

   • aJayasimha Vinayaditya
   • bLalitaditya MuktapidaAnswer
   • cKshemagupta
   • dAvantivarman
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Lalitaditya Muktapida, the most illustrious ruler of the Karkota dynasty of Kashmir, commissioned the grand Martand Sun Temple in the eighth century CE. Option A: Jayasimha Vinayaditya ruled Kashmir much later during the Lohara dynasty. Option C: Kshemagupta was a tenth-century ruler of the Utpala dynasty. Option D: Avantivarman founded the Utpala dynasty and constructed temples dedicated to Vishnu and Shiva at Avantipur.

7. Q7The Delhi Sultanate

   The Sultan who brought the Ashoka Stupa to Delhi:

   • aGhiyasuddin Tughlaq
   • bFiruz TughlaqAnswer
   • cAlauddin Khalji
   • dMuhammad bin Tughlaq
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Firuz Tughlaq had two Ashokan pillars brought to Delhi, one from Topra in Haryana and another from Meerut in Uttar Pradesh. Option A: Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq focused on building the fortress city of Tughlaqabad and did not transport Ashokan monuments. Option C: Alauddin Khalji constructed the Alai Darwaza and Siri Fort, but did not bring any Ashokan relics to Delhi. Option D: Muhammad bin Tughlaq undertook the shifting of the capital to Daulatabad, not the relocation of Ashokan pillars.

8. Q8The Delhi Sultanate

   The period when the construction of Qutub Minar was completed:

   • a1234 - 35
   • b1206 - 08Answer
   • c1210 - 12
   • d1231 - 32

   Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

9. Q9Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

   Among the following, an example of Islamic influence on Hindu architectural building construction:

   • aLotus Mahal, VijayanagaraAnswer
   • bThousand Pillared Mandapam, Madurai
   • cRayalukku Sabha Pranganam, Vijayanagara
   • dPillared Corridor, Rameswaram
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because the Lotus Mahal at Vijayanagara combines traditional Hindu architectural motifs with Islamic structural features, notably cusped arches, vaulted ceilings, and plastered geometric decorations. Option B: It is built in the pure Dravidian style developed under the Madurai Nayakas without Islamic design features. Option C: It refers to a traditional court assembly area without the distinctive syncretic Indo-Islamic design seen in secular pavilions. Option D: It is an example of Dravidian pillared hall architecture built by the Sethupathis of Ramanathapuram.

10. Q10Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Contemporary of Kabir:

    • aBalban
    • bSikandar LodiAnswer
    • cIbrahim Lodi
    • dAlauddin Khalji
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Kabir lived during the late 15th and early 16th centuries, coinciding with the reign of the Delhi Sultan Sikandar Lodi, who ruled from 1489 to 1517. Option A: Balban ruled the Delhi Sultanate in the 13th century, long before Kabir's time. Option C: Ibrahim Lodi came to power in 1517 after the major active period traditionally associated with Kabir's life. Option D: Alauddin Khalji ruled at the turn of the 14th century, more than a century before Kabir.

11. Q11Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Sufi gurus most influenced by Hindu Vedanta:

    • aSheikh Ismail
    • bAbdul Karim al-JiliAnswer
    • cData Ganj Bakhsh
    • dSyed Ahmed Sultan
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Abdul Karim al-Jili, a prominent exponent of the school of Ibn Arabi, traveled to India and explored deep parallels between the monistic doctrine of Wahdat al-Wujud and Hindu Vedantic thought in his works. Option A: Sheikh Ismail was an early orthodox preacher in Lahore whose focus was traditional Islamic instruction rather than Vedantic synthesis. Option C: Data Ganj Bakhsh, author of Kashf al-Mahjub, based his spiritual discourse strictly on traditional Islamic mysticism without incorporating Hindu Vedanta. Option D: Syed Ahmed Sultan, known as Sakhi Sarwar, was a devotional folk saint of Punjab rather than a philosophical scholar engaged with Vedanta.

12. Q12Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Consider the following statements : A. Robert Clive was the first Governor General of Bengal. B. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB onlyAnswer
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statement B is historically accurate, whereas statement A is incorrect. Robert Clive was the Governor of Bengal, not Governor-General. Warren Hastings became the first Governor-General of Bengal under the Regulating Act of 1773. Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India under the Charter Act of 1833. Option A: Statement A incorrectly gives Robert Clive the title of Governor-General of Bengal, which was first held by Warren Hastings. Option C: Statement A is false, which invalidates the claim that both statements are correct. Option D: Statement B is completely true under the provisions of the Charter Act of 1833.

13. Q13British rule: administration, economy and society

    The year in which Delhi newly became the capital of India:

    • a1912Answer
    • b1913
    • c1914
    • d1915
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because while the transfer of the capital from Calcutta was announced by King George V in December 1911, Delhi officially and administratively became the capital of India in 1912. Announcement of transfer at Delhi Durbar: December 1911 Official shift of the capital to Delhi: 1912 Option B: 1913 was the year following the functional establishment of Delhi as the capital. Option C: 1914 was the year the First World War began. Option D: 1915 was the year Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa.

14. Q14British rule: administration, economy and society

    In India, what is considered like a Magna Carta of the Western education system:

    • aReport of the Committee of Public Instruction 1823
    • bCharter Act of 1833
    • cDespatch of Charles WoodAnswer
    • dGopal Ganesh Agarkar
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Despatch of Charles Wood of 1854 is known as the Magna Carta of English education in India because it provided the first comprehensive plan for mass and higher education across the country. Option A: Report of the Committee of Public Instruction 1823 dealt with early grants and the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy rather than establishing the comprehensive education system. Option B: Charter Act of 1833 renewed the Company's charter and centralised governance, but was not an educational master plan. Option D: Gopal Ganesh Agarkar was a prominent Indian social reformer and editor, not an official educational policy.

15. Q15The Revolt of 1857

    For the first time in 1857, signs of unrest appeared in:

    • aAwadh
    • bBengalAnswer
    • cMeerut
    • dSaisunna Mandalas
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the earliest overt manifestations of unrest and resistance against the greased cartridges in early 1857 surfaced at military stations in the Bengal Presidency, notably Berhampore in February and Barrackpore in March. February 1857: 19th Native Infantry refuses greased cartridges at Berhampore, Bengal March 29, 1857: Mangal Pandey attacks British officers at Barrackpore, Bengal May 10, 1857: General mutiny breaks out at Meerut Option A: Awadh joined the uprising after the rebellion had already flared up in Bengal and Meerut. Option C: Meerut was where the general rebellion broke out on May 10, 1857, but the initial signs had already manifested months earlier in Bengal. Option D: This is a fabricated geographic entity not associated with the onset of the 1857 mutiny.

16. Q16Socio-religious reform movements

    The main architect for the establishment of Prarthana Samaj in Maharashtra:

    • aR. G. Bhandarkar
    • bM. G. RanadeAnswer
    • cPandita Ramabai
    • dGopal Ganesh Agarkar
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade joined the Prarthana Samaj in 1870 and acted as its guiding spirit and chief architect, formulating its theological foundation, directing its reform programs, and extending its network. Option A: R. G. Bhandarkar was a prominent scholar who contributed to the Samaj, but he was not its principal architect and leader. Option C: Pandita Ramabai was an associate who engaged in social work and later established the Sharada Sadan and Mukti Mission. Option D: Gopal Ganesh Agarkar was a rationalist reformer who co-founded the Deccan Education Society and edited Sudharak, focusing on educational and rational reforms independently of the Prarthana Samaj leadership.

17. Q17Socio-religious reform movements

    Who said: 'Patriotism is a religion and religion is love for India':

    • aBal Gangadhar Tilak
    • bSwami Vivekananda
    • cRajnarayan Bose
    • dBankim Chandra ChatterjeeAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Bankim Chandra Chatterjee propounded the concept of spiritual nationalism, equating motherland with divinity and stating that patriotism is a religion and religion is love for India. Option A: Bal Gangadhar Tilak is famous for declaring Swaraj as his birthright, not for this statement. Option B: Swami Vivekananda emphasized practical Vedanta and national self-respect, but this specific quote belongs to Bankim Chandra. Option C: Rajnarayan Bose promoted Hindu nationalism through the Society for Promotion of National Feeling, but did not author this aphorism.

18. Q18Socio-religious reform movements

    'Go Back to Vedas' / The religious principle 'Go to Vedas' was propounded by:

    • aMool ShankarAnswer
    • bBal Gangadhar Tilak
    • cVishnu Shastri Bapat
    • dNarendranath Dutta
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the clarion call Go Back to the Vedas was given by Swami Dayananda Saraswati, whose original pre-monastic name was Mool Shankar. Option B: Bal Gangadhar Tilak authored The Arctic Home in the Vedas and popularized the slogan Swaraj is my birthright, not this religious reform motto. Option C: Vishnu Shastri Bapat was a conservative scholar from Maharashtra who defended traditional practices against reformist calls. Option D: Narendranath Dutta was the pre-monastic name of Swami Vivekananda, who advocated practical Vedanta rather than the literal return to the Vedas.

19. Q19The Indian National Movement

    The year in which the All India Peasant Organization All India Kisan Sabhas was first established:

    • a1919
    • b1920
    • c1928
    • d1936Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the All India Kisan Sabha was established in April 1936 at the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress, with Swami Sahajanand Saraswati as its first president. Foundation of All India Kisan Sabha: April 1936 First President: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati First General Secretary: N. G. Ranga Option A: 1919 marks the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre, not the creation of the AIKS. Option B: 1920 saw the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress, not the All India Kisan Sabha. Option C: 1928 witnessed the Bardoli Satyagraha and the Simon Commission protests, well before the AIKS was formed.

20. Q20Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

    The date on which the Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the House of Commons and approved by the British Parliament:

    • aJuly 2, 1947
    • bJuly 3, 1947
    • cJuly 4, 1947Answer
    • dJuly 5, 1947
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because British Prime Minister Clement Attlee introduced the Indian Independence Bill in the House of Commons on July 4, 1947. Indian Independence Bill introduced in House of Commons: July 4, 1947 Passed by House of Commons: July 15, 1947 Passed by House of Lords: July 16, 1947 Royal Assent granted: July 18, 1947 Option A: July 2, 1947 is incorrect because the bill had not yet been formally presented to the British Parliament. Option B: July 3, 1947 is incorrect because the bill was introduced on the following day. Option D: July 5, 1947 is incorrect because the formal introduction had already taken place on the previous day.

21. Q21Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    The first Biotech City in India:

    • aBallari
    • bCoimbatore
    • cFarooqAnswer
    • dAnantapur

    Explanation coming soon.

22. Q22Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    The bank that established India's first bank branch in Nepal:

    • aIndustrial Development Bank
    • bState Bank of IndiaAnswer
    • cIndian Overseas Bank
    • dAndhra Bank
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because State Bank of India was the pioneer among Indian banks to establish a banking presence in Nepal by setting up Nepal SBI Bank Limited in 1993. Option A: Industrial Development Bank of India did not set up India's first banking branch or subsidiary in Nepal. Option C: Indian Overseas Bank operated overseas branches elsewhere, but was not the first in Nepal. Option D: Andhra Bank remained a domestic public sector lender with no early banking operations in Nepal.

23. Q23Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    The first Sanskrit rock inscription:

    • aJunagadh rock inscriptionAnswer
    • bNashik rock inscription
    • cHathigumpha rock inscription
    • dUttaramerur rock inscription
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Junagadh rock inscription of Western Kshatrapa ruler Rudradaman I, dated to circa 150 CE, is widely recognized as the earliest prominent long stone inscription written in chaste Sanskrit. Option B: Nashik rock inscription is composed in Prakrit and records the achievements of rulers like Gautamiputra Satakarni. Option C: Hathigumpha rock inscription of King Kharavela is written in Prakrit using the Brahmi script. Option D: Uttaramerur rock inscription belongs to the Chola period and is composed in Tamil, describing local rural administration.

24. Q24Amendment and the basic structure

    Which of the followng constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respec-tively ?

    • a91stAnswer
    • b93rd
    • c95th
    • d97th
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 amended Articles 75 and 164 to restrict the maximum size of the Council of Ministers at the Union and State levels to 15 percent of the total membership of the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, respectively. Article 75(1A) caps Union ministers at 15 percent of Lok Sabha members. Article 164(1A) caps State ministers at 15 percent of Legislative Assembly members. Option B: The 93rd Amendment Act, 2005 enabled reservations for socially and educationally backward classes in educational institutions, including private institutions. Option C: The 95th Amendment Act, 2009 extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs and special representation for Anglo-Indians in legislatures from 60 to 70 years. Option D: The 97th Amendment Act, 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies under Part IXB.

25. Q25Parliament and the state legislatures

    Consider the following statements : A. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Acco-unts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. B. The Committee on Public Accounts compris-es Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

    • aA onlyAnswer
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst its members, whereas the committee consists strictly of members of Parliament. Total PAC membership: 22 members Lok Sabha representation: 15 members Rajya Sabha representation: 7 members Tenure of members: 1 year Outside experts or private individuals allowed: None Option B: Statement B is incorrect because the committee does not include outside individuals or representatives of industry and trade. Option C: It incorrectly accepts statement B, which falsely claims non-parliamentarians are part of the committee. Option D: It incorrectly dismisses statement A, which correctly identifies the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as the appointing authority.

26. Q26The judiciary

    Consider the following statements : A. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court. B. After retirement from the office, a perma-nent Judge of a Hight Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

    • aA onlyAnswer
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a High Court judge is removed by the President on the same grounds and through the same parliamentary process as a Supreme Court judge, whereas a retired permanent High Court judge can still practice before the Supreme Court and other High Courts. Article 124 Clause 4 specifies the grounds and procedure for Supreme Court judge removal. Article 217 Clause 1 Subclause b applies the Article 124 Clause 4 procedure to High Court judges. Article 220 permits retired permanent High Court judges to plead in the Supreme Court and other High Courts. Option B: Statement B is false because Article 220 expressly permits a retired permanent High Court judge to plead in the Supreme Court and other High Courts. Option C: Statement B is incorrect regarding the post-retirement restrictions on practice. Option D: Statement A is correct since both High Court and Supreme Court judges share an identical removal mechanism under the Constitution.

27. Q27Federalism and centre-state relations

    Chairman of the newly constituted Commission on Centre-State Relations:

    • aM. K. Narayanan
    • bM. M. PunchhiAnswer
    • cNarayan Kurup
    • dV. K. Darvi
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, former Chief Justice of India, was appointed by the Union Government as the Chairman of the Second Commission on Centre-State Relations in 2007. Option A: Served as the National Security Advisor of India and was not part of this commission. Option C: Was an acting High Court Chief Justice and had no role heading this inquiry. Option D: Was never appointed as chairman of this commission.

28. Q28Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    Consider the followng statements : A. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges. B. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

    • aA onlyAnswer
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

29. Q29Science, technology and society

    Sunita Williams is associated with which of the following?

    • aSpace ScienceAnswer
    • bGeography
    • cBiology
    • dAstrology
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Sunita Williams is a NASA astronaut and United States Navy officer who has conducted multiple long-duration expeditions aboard the International Space Station. Option B: Geography deals with the study of the Earth's physical features and human environments, which is unrelated to her aeronautical and astronautical career. Option C: Biology is the branch of science studying living organisms, not her operational field of human space flight and aerospace engineering. Option D: Astrology is a divinatory belief system based on celestial positions, completely distinct from space science.

30. Q30Information and communication technology

    The Bengaluru software company that invented 'Anytime, Anywhere' computer mobiles:

    • aSamsung
    • bToshiba
    • cEssar
    • dHCLAnswer

    Explanation coming soon.

31. Q31Nuclear technology

    The creator of the first atomic bomb:

    • aE. Fermi
    • bOppenheimerAnswer
    • cO. Hahn
    • dE. Teller
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because J. Robert Oppenheimer served as the director of the Los Alamos Laboratory during the Manhattan Project and is widely known as the father of the atomic bomb for leading the development of the first nuclear weapon. Option A: Enrico Fermi built the first successful artificial nuclear reactor, the Chicago Pile-1, rather than leading the weapon development. Option C: Otto Hahn discovered nuclear fission in 1938 alongside Fritz Strassmann, but did not build the weapon. Option D: Edward Teller is known as the father of the hydrogen bomb due to his leadership in developing thermonuclear weapons.

32. Q32Nuclear technology

    The best nuclear fuel among the following:

    • aUranium 238
    • bPlutonium 239Answer
    • cNeptunium
    • dThorium 236
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Plutonium-239 is a highly efficient fissile material with a lower critical mass and higher neutron yield per fission compared to other listed isotopes, making it an excellent nuclear fuel and explosive. Option A: Uranium-238 is fertile rather than fissile and cannot sustain a thermal neutron chain reaction directly. Option C: Neptunium is an actinide by-product in nuclear waste that is rarely practical as a primary reactor fuel. Option D: Thorium-236 is not a naturally occurring or practical nuclear fuel, whereas Thorium-232 is the fertile isotope used in thorium fuel cycles.

33. Q33Nuclear technology

    The reason for energy release through the fission process is:

    • aFrom the sun
    • bIn a hydrogen bomb
    • cIn an atomic bombAnswer
    • dIn a chemical reaction
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because an atomic bomb derives its destructive energy from the nuclear fission of heavy elements such as Uranium-235 or Plutonium-239 through a rapid, uncontrolled chain reaction. Option A: The Sun produces energy through nuclear fusion, primarily the proton-proton chain reaction, not fission. Option B: A hydrogen bomb derives the major portion of its explosive energy from nuclear fusion of hydrogen isotopes. Option D: A chemical reaction releases energy via the rearranging of electron bonds, not by splitting atomic nuclei.

34. Q34Nuclear technology

    Generally, Cobalt-60 is used in radiation therapy due to the emission of what?

    • aAlpha rays
    • bBeta rays
    • cGamma raysAnswer
    • dX-rays
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Cobalt-60 undergoes beta decay to excited Nickel-60, which then emits high-energy gamma rays that penetrate deep tissues to destroy cancer cells. Option A: Cobalt-60 does not undergo alpha decay. Option B: Although Cobalt-60 emits beta particles, their low penetration makes them unsuitable for deep-seated tumor therapy; the therapeutic effect relies on gamma rays. Option D: Cobalt-60 decays by nuclear transitions emitting gamma rays, not atomic electron transitions emitting X-rays.

35. Q35SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    Which of the following plants/trees produce seeds instead of fruits?

    • aAlmond
    • bMustard
    • cGroundnut
    • dCycas / A palm tree speciesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Cycas is a gymnosperm, which produces naked seeds on megasporophylls without forming true fruits, as fruits only develop from ovaries of angiosperms. Option A: Almond is an angiosperm (flowering plant) that develops a drupaceous fruit enclosing the seed. Option B: Mustard is an angiosperm that produces a fruit known botanically as a siliqua. Option C: Groundnut is a legume (angiosperm) producing pods, which are true botanical fruits enclosing seeds.

36. Q36SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    A hydrophyte / aquatic plant is a:

    • aMarine animal
    • bPlant that grows in or near waterAnswer
    • cPlant-related disease
    • dRootless plant
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because hydrophytes are plants that are anatomically and physiologically adapted to survive and grow either completely submerged, floating, or rooted in water and waterlogged habitats. Option A: Hydrophytes belong to the plant kingdom, whereas marine animals belong to the kingdom Animalia. Option C: A hydrophyte is an ecological classification of vegetation, not a pathogen or condition causing plant disease. Option D: Many hydrophytes, such as lotus and water lilies, have well-developed root systems anchoring them to benthic soil.

37. Q37SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    The number of chromosomes in a normal human body cell is:

    • a43
    • b44
    • c45
    • d46Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because somatic cells in a normal human being are diploid and contain 46 chromosomes, arranged into 23 pairs. Number of pairs of autosomes: 22 pairs (44 autosomes) Number of pairs of sex chromosomes: 1 pair (2 sex chromosomes) Total number of chromosomes per diploid cell: 46 Option A: A human body cell contains 46 chromosomes, and 43 is not a naturally occurring karyotype. Option B: Forty-four represents the total number of autosomes alone, omitting the two sex chromosomes. Option C: Forty-five chromosomes represents a monosomic condition such as Turner syndrome (45,X), which is an abnormality rather than the normal count.

38. Q38SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

    The cause of the disease 'Citrus Canker':

    • aFungi
    • bVirus
    • cBacteriaAnswer
    • dMycoplasma
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Citrus Canker is an economically damaging plant disease caused by the bacterium Xanthomonas citri (also classified as Xanthomonas axonopodis pv. citri). Option A: Fungi cause other citrus diseases like melanose and gummosis, but not citrus canker. Option B: Viruses cause conditions such as citrus tristeza, not canker. Option D: Mycoplasma-like organisms cause diseases like citrus stubborn disease, but not citrus canker.

39. Q39HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    The largest bone in the human body:

    • aFemurAnswer
    • bFibula
    • cHumerus
    • dTibia
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the femur, or thigh bone, is the longest, heaviest, and strongest single bone in the human skeleton. Option B: The fibula is a slender lateral bone of the lower leg, far smaller than the femur. Option C: The humerus is the long bone of the upper arm, measuring significantly shorter than the femur. Option D: The tibia is the main shin bone of the lower leg, but it is shorter and less massive than the femur.

40. Q40HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    The science related to hair:

    • aTrichologyAnswer
    • bToxicology
    • cVirology
    • dHeria Therapy
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because trichology is the specialised branch of dermatology that deals with the scientific study of the health and diseases of human hair and scalp. Option B: Toxicology is the scientific discipline concerned with the study of poisons, toxins, and their adverse effects on living organisms. Option C: Virology is the subfield of microbiology focused on the study of viruses and virus-like agents. Option D: Heria Therapy is not an established scientific discipline studying human hair.