TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2008

174 questions from the 2008 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   Vardhamana Mahavira was a

   • aBrahmin
   • bKshatriyaAnswer
   • cVaishya
   • dShudra
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Vardhamana Mahavira was born into the Jnatrika clan, which belonged to the Kshatriya varna, in Kundagrama near Vaishali. Option A: Mahavira was not born into a priestly Brahmin family; his father Siddhartha was a Kshatriya chieftain. Option C: The Vaishya varna comprises merchants and farmers, whereas Mahavira was born into a ruling noble lineage. Option D: The Shudra varna comprises service providers and artisans, not the ruling clan of Mahavira.

2. Q2The Mauryan Empire

   The title 'Devanam Priya' was obtained by

   • aSamudragupta
   • bKanishka
   • cHarsha
   • dAshokaAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because the Mauryan emperor Ashoka famously adopted the imperial title 'Devanampiya' (Beloved of the Gods) along with 'Piyadasi' in his inscriptions. Option A: Samudragupta was known by titles like 'Kaviraja' and 'Parakramanka', not 'Devanam Priya'. Option B: Kanishka of the Kushana dynasty used the title 'Devaputra' (Son of God). Option C: Harshavardhana was primarily titled 'Siladitya' and 'Parama-maheshvara'.

3. Q3Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   The main center for trade with Indo-Romans was

   • aArikameduAnswer
   • bAlexandria
   • cMuziris
   • dKabul
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because archaeological excavations at Arikamedu near Puducherry revealed extensive Indo-Roman trade relics, including Roman amphorae, Arretine ware, glassware, and a warehouse structure. Option B: Alexandria was a port city in Egypt within the Roman Empire itself, not a trade station located in India. Option C: Muziris was a significant port on the southwestern Malabar coast, but Arikamedu serves as the classic archaeological type-site on the Coromandel coast identified with Roman commercial presence. Option D: Kabul was an inland city situated along overland Central Asian caravan routes, completely removed from maritime Indo-Roman commerce.

4. Q4Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Ghatikas mean

   • aBuddhist educational centers
   • bVillages that look after religious matters
   • cHindu collegesAnswer
   • dVishwakarmas
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because Ghatikas were prestigious institutions of higher learning or colleges in ancient and early medieval South India, particularly under the Pallavas, dedicated to the study of the Vedas, Sastras, and other Hindu sacred sciences. Option A: Ghatikas were traditional Brahmanical and Hindu learning centers, whereas Buddhist educational centers were known as Viharas or Mahaviharas. Option B: Villages dedicated to religious and charitable upkeep were termed Brahmadeyas or Agrahams, not Ghatikas. Option D: Vishwakarmas refers to the traditional artisan and architect communities, not educational institutions.

5. Q5Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   What was the medium of instruction in colleges attached to large temples in South India?

   • aTamil
   • bSanskritAnswer
   • cKannada
   • dTelugu
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Sanskrit was the universal medium of elite scholarship, higher education, and ritual instruction in the ghatikas, mathas, and temple-based colleges throughout ancient and early medieval South India. Option A: Tamil was the local administrative and literary language of the region, but higher theological and philosophical curriculum in temple colleges was conducted in Sanskrit. Option C: Kannada was the regional language of Karnataka and not the medium of higher academic instruction in these classical temple colleges. Option D: Telugu was the regional language of the Andhra region and was not used for standard higher education in classical South Indian temple colleges.

6. Q6Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Dravidian style architecture is found in

   • aNorth India
   • bSouth IndiaAnswer
   • cCentral India
   • dEast India
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because the Dravidian style of temple architecture, characterized by its pyramidical vimana, gopuram, and mantapas, originated and developed primarily in South India. Option A: North India is characterized by the Nagara style of temple architecture. Option C: Central India and the Deccan typically feature the Vesara style, which is a hybrid of Nagara and Dravidian traditions. Option D: East India, including regions like Odisha and Bengal, follows variants of the Nagara style such as Kalinga architecture.

7. Q7The Delhi Sultanate

   During whose reign was the conquest of South India completed?

   • aBalban
   • bAlauddin Khalji
   • cGhiyasuddin Tughlaq
   • dMuhammad bin TughlaqAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because although Alauddin Khalji initiated raids into the Deccan, direct annexation and full territorial integration of the far southern kingdoms, including the establishment of provinces like Madurai, was completed under Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Option A: Balban concentrated entirely on consolidating the Delhi Sultanate in north India and defending against Mongol invasions. Option B: Alauddin Khalji forced southern rulers to pay tribute and acknowledge his suzerainty, but he consciously avoided direct annexation of their territories. Option C: Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq began the policy of southern annexation through his son Ulugh Khan, but the southern campaigns and administrative conquest were finalized during Ulugh Khan's own reign as Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

8. Q8The Delhi Sultanate

   Hindustani music was greatly influenced by

   • aArab-Persian musicAnswer
   • bPersian music
   • cEuropean music
   • dMuhammad bin Tughlaq
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Hindustani classical music evolved as a syncretic tradition resulting from the interaction of traditional Indian musical forms with Arab and Persian musical systems during the medieval period. Option B: It represents only the Persian element and overlooks the broader Arab-Persian synthesis that influenced North Indian music. Option C: European music had no influence on the formation of medieval Hindustani classical music. Option D: Muhammad bin Tughlaq was a Delhi Sultan, not a musical tradition or school of musical thought.

9. Q9The Delhi Sultanate

   The name Qutub Minar came from whose name?

   • aIltutmish
   • bSultan Razia
   • cQutb al-Din Aibak
   • dKhwaja QutbuddinAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because Qutub Minar was named after the revered Chishti Sufi saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki, who was held in high spiritual esteem by Qutb al-Din Aibak and Iltutmish. Option A: Iltutmish added storeys and finished the primary tower, but the monument was not named in his honour. Option B: Sultan Razia was the daughter of Iltutmish and had no involvement in the naming of the monument. Option C: Qutb al-Din Aibak laid the foundation of the first storey, but the monument took its name from the saint rather than the Sultan himself.

10. Q10Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    The main adversaries of the Vijayanagara kings in the South were the Sultans of

    • aBahmaniAnswer
    • bHoysala
    • cWarangal
    • dMadurai
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Bahmani Sultanate, established in 1347 north of the Krishna river, was the chief geopolitical adversary of Vijayanagara, leading to prolonged conflicts over the fertile Raichur Doab. Option B: Hoysalas were a Hindu kingdom annexed early during the expansion of Vijayanagara, not a persistent Sultanate adversary. Option C: Warangal was ruled primarily by the Kakatiyas and later the Musunuri Nayakas, not a Sultanate. Option D: The Sultanate of Madurai was defeated and absorbed into the Vijayanagara realm by Kumara Kampana early on, rather than remaining a primary long-term threat.

11. Q11The Mughal Empire

    Which among the following battles is recognized as the beginning of the establishment of the Mughal Empire in India and its subsequent expansion?

    • aFirst Battle of PanipatAnswer
    • bSecond Battle of Panipat
    • cBattle of Khanwa
    • dBattle of Kannauj
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the First Battle of Panipat fought on 21 April 1526 between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi resulted in the overthrow of the Delhi Sultanate and marked the foundation and subsequent rise of the Mughal Empire in India. Option B: Second Battle of Panipat was fought in 1556 between Akbar and Hemu, which consolidated rather than initially established Mughal rule. Option C: Battle of Khanwa took place in 1527 between Babur and Rana Sanga, securing Babur's earlier conquest rather than beginning it. Option D: Battle of Kannauj was fought in 1540 when Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun, temporarily ousting the Mughals from India.

12. Q12The Mughal Empire

    Who established the Mughal Empire in India?

    • aAkbar
    • bBaburAnswer
    • cAurangzeb
    • dIbrahim Lodi
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Babur founded the Mughal Empire in 1526 after defeating the last Delhi Sultan, Ibrahim Lodi, at the First Battle of Panipat. Option A: Akbar was Babur's grandson who expanded and consolidated the empire, not its founder. Option C: Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal emperor who ruled during the late seventeenth and early eighteenth centuries. Option D: Ibrahim Lodi was the last sultan of the Lodi dynasty whose defeat led to the founding of Babur's dynasty.

13. Q13Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Who was the tenth Guru of the Sikhs?

    • aGuru Tegh Bahadur
    • bGuru Har Krishan
    • cBanda Bahadur
    • dGuru Gobind SinghAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth and final human Sikh Guru, who founded the Khalsa Panth in 1699 and passed the eternal guruship to the Guru Granth Sahib. Option A: Incorrect because Guru Tegh Bahadur was the ninth Sikh Guru. Option B: Incorrect because Guru Har Krishan was the eighth Sikh Guru. Option C: Incorrect because Banda Bahadur was a prominent Sikh military commander and disciple of Guru Gobind Singh, not a Guru.

14. Q14Shivaji and the Marathas

    Who adopted the title 'Haindava-Dharmoddharak'?

    • aPaparayudu
    • bShivajiAnswer
    • cBaji Rao I
    • dBalaji Vishwanath
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Chhatrapati Shivaji assumed the solemn title of Haindava Dharmoddharak, signifying protector of the Hindu faith, upon his formal Vedic coronation at Raigad in 1674. Option A: Paparayudu, or Sarvai Papanna, was a regional chieftain in Telangana who led local rebellions but never assumed this imperial title. Option C: Baji Rao I advocated the political ideal of Hindu Pad Padshahi as Peshwa, but did not adopt Haindava Dharmoddharak as a coronation title. Option D: Balaji Vishwanath served as the first hereditary Peshwa and did not take this title.

15. Q15British rule: administration, economy and society

    The place where the Moplah Rebellion took place in 1921?

    • aKeralaAnswer
    • bKarnataka
    • cMaharashtra
    • dPunjab
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Moplah Rebellion of 1921 took place in the Malabar district of Kerala, where Muslim agrarian tenants revolted against oppressive landlords and British authorities. Option B: Karnataka was not the geographical theater of the Mappila agrarian uprising. Option C: Maharashtra witnessed agrarian unrest like the Deccan Riots of 1875, not the Moplah Rebellion. Option D: Punjab was the center of the Akali movement during this period, not the Moplah uprising.

16. Q16Socio-religious reform movements

    The year in which the new religious organization Brahma Sabha, founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, which later became known as Brahma Samaj, was established

    • a1826
    • b1829Answer
    • c1934
    • d1936

    Explanation coming soon.

17. Q17Socio-religious reform movements

    Who was called the Father of Indian Renaissance?

    • aTilak
    • bGokhale
    • cGandhi
    • dRaja Ram Mohan RoyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Raja Ram Mohan Roy is recognized as the Father of the Indian Renaissance for pioneering socio-religious reform, modern education, and the campaign against sati in nineteenth-century India. Option A: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an extremist nationalist leader known as Lokmanya, not the Father of the Indian Renaissance. Option B: Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a moderate leader and political mentor to Mahatma Gandhi, not the Father of the Indian Renaissance. Option C: Mahatma Gandhi led the Indian freedom movement and is revered as the Father of the Nation.

18. Q18The Indian National Movement

    Who started the Swadeshi Movement?

    • aGandhi
    • bGokhale
    • cAnnie BesantAnswer
    • dA.O. Hume

    Explanation coming soon.

19. Q19The Indian National Movement

    Who among the following was the leader of the Moderates?

    • aGokhaleAnswer
    • bTilak
    • cNetaji
    • dAnnie Besant
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Gopal Krishna Gokhale was one of the most prominent leaders of the Moderate faction of the Indian National Congress, advocating constitutional agitation and dialogue. Option B: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent leader of the Extremist or Nationalist faction within the Congress. Option C: Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose belonged to the younger radical-socialist nationalist wing of the Congress in the 1930s. Option D: Annie Besant founded the Home Rule League and represented radical constitutionalism rather than the early Moderate faction.

20. Q20The Indian National Movement

    In which year did Gandhiji actively enter the political arena?

    • a1916
    • b1919Answer
    • c1930
    • d1932
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Mahatma Gandhi entered the national political arena in 1919 by organising the nationwide Rowlatt Satyagraha, marking his transition from localized struggles to leading all-India political agitation. Option A: In 1916 Gandhi spent his time touring the country and acquainting himself with Indian conditions rather than participating in active politics. Option C: 1930 marked the Civil Disobedience Movement, over a decade after Gandhi had already assumed leadership of the national movement. Option D: 1932 was the year of the second phase of Civil Disobedience and the Poona Pact, not his entry into politics.

21. Q21The Indian National Movement

    In which year did Gandhiji come actively on the political scene?

    • a1916
    • b1919Answer
    • c1930
    • d1932
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Mahatma Gandhi entered active all-India politics in 1919 by organizing the nationwide Rowlatt Satyagraha and leading the Khilafat agitation. Option A: 1916 was the year Gandhi attended the Lucknow Congress session without taking an active leadership role. Option C: 1930 was the year Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement, over a decade after entering active national politics. Option D: 1932 was the year Gandhi signed the Poona Pact during the second phase of Civil Disobedience, long after his political debut.

22. Q22The Indian National Movement

    The call 'Delhi Chalo' was given by

    • aGandhi
    • bNehru
    • cSubhas Chandra BoseAnswer
    • dTilak
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Subhas Chandra Bose gave the battle cry Delhi Chalo to the soldiers of the Indian National Army in 1943 to inspire them to march toward the Indian capital and overthrow British rule. Option A: Mahatma Gandhi gave the call Do or Die during the Quit India Movement in 1942. Option B: Jawaharlal Nehru gave historic speeches such as Tryst with Destiny, but not this slogan. Option D: Bal Gangadhar Tilak famously declared Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.

23. Q23The Andhra Movement and the formation of Andhra State

    The 'Sri Bagh Pact' (Sri Bagh Agreement) concluded on November 16, 1937, was between which of the following?

    • aAndhra-Rayalaseema-Telangana
    • bAndhra-Telangana
    • cAndhra-Hyderabad
    • dAndhra-RayalaseemaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Sri Bagh Pact was an agreement concluded on November 16, 1937, between the leaders of Coastal Andhra and Rayalaseema to safeguard Rayalaseema's interests in irrigation, educational institutions, and political representation. Option A: Andhra-Rayalaseema-Telangana is incorrect because Telangana was part of the princely state of Hyderabad and had no involvement in this 1937 agreement. Option B: Andhra-Telangana is incorrect because the pact between Andhra and Telangana leaders was the Gentlemen's Agreement of 1956. Option C: Andhra-Hyderabad is incorrect because the pact was negotiated exclusively among Telugu leaders within the Madras Presidency.

24. Q24Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

    The first Indian Governor General of independent India was :

    • aRajendra Prasad
    • bJinnah
    • cRajagopalachariAnswer
    • dLord Mountbatten
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Chakravarti Rajagopalachari served as the Governor-General of India from June 1948 to January 1950, making him the first and only Indian citizen to hold the post. Option A: Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India, not the Governor-General. Option B: Jinnah became the first Governor-General of Pakistan, not of India. Option D: Lord Mountbatten was the first Governor-General of independent India, but he was British, not Indian.

25. Q25Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    What is the order of formation of the following states? 1) Himachal Pradesh 2) Maharashtra 3) Mizoram 4) Haryana

    • a1. (B), (D), (A), (C)Answer
    • b2. (D), (B), (A), (C)
    • c3. (B), (A), (C), (D)
    • d4. (B), (A), (D), (C)
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because mapping the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 to letters A, B, C, D shows that Maharashtra was formed in 1960, Haryana in 1966, Himachal Pradesh in 1971, and Mizoram in 1987. Maharashtra: 1 May 1960 Haryana: 1 November 1966 Himachal Pradesh: 25 January 1971 Mizoram: 20 February 1987 Option B: Places Haryana before Maharashtra, which violates the chronological sequence. Option C: Places Mizoram before Haryana, reversing the timeline by decades. Option D: Places Mizoram before Haryana, which is chronologically incorrect.

26. Q26Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    The year the first linguistic state was formed in India

    • a1953Answer
    • b1956
    • c1957
    • d1952
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Andhra State was formally inaugurated as the first linguistic state in independent India on October 1, 1953, with Kurnool as its capital. October 1, 1953: Creation of Andhra State from Telugu-speaking districts of Madras State November 1, 1956: Enactment of the States Reorganisation Act creating 14 states and 6 union territories Option B: 1956 marks the passage and implementation of the States Reorganisation Act, which expanded linguistic reorganisation across the country, but the first linguistic state had already been formed in 1953. Option C: 1957 saw the second general elections in India and post-reorganisation governance, not the creation of the first linguistic state. Option D: 1952 was the year of Potti Sreeramulu's hunger strike, but the formal creation of the state occurred in 1953.

27. Q27Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    In which general elections did India first form a coalition government at the Centre?

    • aThird General Elections
    • bEighth General Elections
    • cSixth General ElectionsAnswer
    • dTenth General Elections
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Sixth General Elections in 1977 resulted in the formation of the first coalition government at the Centre under Prime Minister Morarji Desai, led by the Janata Party alliance. First to Fifth General Elections: 1952 to 1971, single-party majority of the Indian National Congress Sixth General Elections: March 1977, first non-Congress coalition government formed Option A: The Third General Elections in 1962 produced a single-party majority for the Indian National Congress. Option B: The Eighth General Elections in 1984 gave an absolute single-party majority to the Indian National Congress. Option D: The Tenth General Elections in 1991 led to a minority government under P. V. Narasimha Rao, long after the first coalition of 1977.

28. Q28Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    The Janata Party came into power in the year:

    • a1970
    • b1969
    • c1977Answer
    • d1971
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Janata Party swept the general elections held in March 1977 following the lifting of the National Emergency, forming the first non-Congress central government under Morarji Desai. Option A: In 1970, the Indian National Congress under Indira Gandhi was in power. Option B: In 1969, the Congress party split occurred, and the Janata Party had not yet been formed. Option D: In 1971, the Congress (R) led by Indira Gandhi won a massive mandate in the general elections.

29. Q29Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Which one of the following parties in the Congress led UPA Government is the second largest party in the UPA coalition?

    • aDMK
    • bNCP
    • cRJDAnswer
    • dJMM
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Rashtriya Janata Dal won 24 seats in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections, making it the second-largest constituent party in the Congress-led United Progressive Alliance coalition. Indian National Congress: 145 seats Rashtriya Janata Dal: 24 seats Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam: 16 seats Nationalist Congress Party: 9 seats Option A: DMK secured 16 seats in the 2004 general elections, making it the third-largest coalition constituent. Option B: NCP secured 9 seats, which was significantly fewer than the tally of RJD. Option D: JMM secured only 5 seats in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections.

30. Q30History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    In Greek language, 'Chiral' refers to

    • aShoulder
    • bFoot
    • cHandAnswer
    • dLeg
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the term 'chiral' is derived from the ancient Greek word 'cheir', which translates directly to hand, referring to objects that are non-superimposable on their mirror images just like human hands. Option A: Shoulder in ancient Greek is denoted by words such as 'omos', not 'cheir'. Option B: Foot in ancient Greek is denoted by 'pous' or 'pod-', which is the root of terms like podiatry. Option D: Leg in ancient Greek is denoted by terms like 'skelos', not 'cheir'.

31. Q31History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    Who first divided a circle into 360 degrees?

    • aEratosthenes
    • bHerodotus
    • cHipparchusAnswer
    • dPtolemy
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Greek astronomer and mathematician Hipparchus adopted the Babylonian sexagesimal base to divide the circle into 360 degrees and applied it to a geographical grid of latitude and longitude. Option A: Eratosthenes is celebrated for calculating the circumference of the Earth, not for introducing the 360-degree circular division. Option B: Herodotus was a historian and geographer who described regional ethnography rather than formalizing mathematical coordinate geometry. Option D: Ptolemy popularized and expanded upon Hipparchus's coordinate system in the Almagest and Geographia, but he did not originate the division.

32. Q32Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Founder of Telangana Praja Samithi

    • aK. Chandrashekar Rao
    • bM. Channa ReddyAnswer
    • cA. Narendra
    • dT. Anjaiah
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Dr. M. Channa Reddy took over the reins of the Telangana Praja Samithi in 1969, converting it into a potent political party and leading the 1969 Telangana statehood movement. Option A: K. Chandrashekar Rao founded the Telangana Rashtra Samithi in 2001, decades after the 1969 movement. Option C: A. Narendra was associated with the Jana Sangh, BJP, and later the Telangana Sadhana Samithi, not the TPS. Option D: T. Anjaiah was a veteran Congress leader and former Chief Minister who remained aligned with the mainstream Congress party during the 1969 agitation.

33. Q33Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    The founder of Telangana Praja Samiti was:

    • aK. Chandra Sekhar Rao
    • bM. Chenna ReddyAnswer
    • cA. Narendra
    • dT. Anjaiah
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Dr. M. Chenna Reddy became the prominent leader and founder figure of the Telangana Praja Samiti during the 1969 Telangana agitation, guiding it into electoral politics. Telangana Praja Samiti founded: 1969 TPS political leadership: Dr. M. Chenna Reddy TPS 1971 Lok Sabha victory: 10 out of 14 seats in the Telangana region Option A: K. Chandra Sekhar Rao founded the Telangana Rashtra Samithi in 2001, decades after the TPS movement. Option C: A. Narendra founded the Telangana Sadhana Samithi in 2001 rather than the TPS. Option D: T. Anjaiah was a veteran Congress leader and later Chief Minister, not the founder of the TPS.

34. Q34Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The year in which the Supreme Council established the Supreme Court of Bengal

    • a1776
    • b1777
    • c1774Answer
    • d1775
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William in Bengal was established in 1774 pursuant to the statutory provisions of the Regulating Act of 1773. Regulating Act passed: 1773 Letters Patent issued and Supreme Court established: 1774 Sir Elijah Impey assumed office as first Chief Justice: 1774 Option A: The year 1776 postdates the establishment of the Supreme Court at Calcutta by two years. Option B: The year 1777 is incorrect as the court was already functioning actively by this time. Option D: The year 1775 saw famous early proceedings before the court, such as the trial of Nand Kumar, but not its establishment.

35. Q35Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    In the system of Dyarchy, which of the following gave more powers to provincial governments?

    • aIndian Councils Act, 1892
    • bGovernment of India Act, 1909
    • cGovernment of India Act, 1919Answer
    • dGandhi-Irwin Pact
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Government of India Act, 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the provinces, dividing provincial subjects into Reserved and Transferred lists and transferring administration of several departments to Indian ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. Option A: The Indian Councils Act, 1892 marginally increased non-official membership in councils without devolving executive powers or introducing dyarchy. Option B: The Government of India Act, 1909 introduced separate communal electorates and expanded council discussions, but retained centralized bureaucratic control. Option D: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931 was a political truce regarding the Civil Disobedience Movement, not a constitutional statute altering provincial administrative powers.

36. Q36Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The Supreme Court of Bengal was Constituted by the Crown in the Year:

    • a1776
    • b1777
    • c1774Answer
    • d1775
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William in Bengal was formally constituted by King George III's letters patent issued in the year 1774. Regulating Act passed: 1773 Charter of Justice issued by the Crown: March 1774 Supreme Court established at Calcutta: 1774 Option A: 1776 is incorrect as the court had already been functioning for two years. Option B: 1777 is three years after the court was officially constituted. Option D: 1775 is incorrect because the court was chartered and established in 1774.

37. Q37Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The Provincial Governments were given more powers under the system of Dyarchy by:

    • aIndian Councils Act of 1892
    • bThe Government of India Act of 1909
    • cThe Government of India Act of 1919Answer
    • dThe Gandhi - Irwin Pact
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Government of India Act of 1919 introduced the system of Dyarchy in the provinces, dividing provincial subjects into reserved and transferred categories. Option A: The Indian Councils Act of 1892 merely expanded the legislative councils and introduced indirect elections without introducing dyarchy. Option B: The Government of India Act of 1909 introduced separate electorates and enlarged councils, but did not establish dyarchy. Option D: The Gandhi - Irwin Pact of 1931 was a political agreement addressing the Civil Disobedience Movement, not a statutory act establishing dyarchy.

38. Q38Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The Constitution of India was adopted by:

    • aGovernor General
    • bParliament
    • cConstituent AssemblyAnswer
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constituent Assembly of India was the representative body created specifically to frame, enact, and adopt the Constitution, which it did on 26 November 1949. Option A: Governor General was an executive representative of the British Crown and lacked the authority to adopt India's independent Constitution. Option B: Parliament in its elected constitutional form had not yet come into being, as the first general elections took place in 1951-52. Option D: None of the above is incorrect because the Constituent Assembly is the correct constitutional authority.

39. Q39Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The constitution framers borrowed the Directive Principles from :

    • aEngland
    • bIrelandAnswer
    • cCanada
    • dSouth Africa
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the 1937 Constitution of Ireland. Option A: England was the source for the parliamentary form of government, bicameralism, and the rule of law. Option C: Canada was the source for the federal structure with a strong centre and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Option D: South Africa was the source for the procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of the Rajya Sabha.

40. Q40The Preamble

    Who said “The Preamble is the key of the Constitution” ?

    • aM.K.Gandhi
    • bMotilal Nehru
    • cAmbedkarAnswer
    • dIndira Gandhi
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, as the chief architect of the Constitution, highlighted the Preamble as the essential key to opening the minds of the makers and interpreting constitutional principles. Option A: Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly and did not make this declaration about the Preamble. Option B: Motilal Nehru drafted the 1928 Nehru Report and did not formulate this observation regarding the Preamble. Option D: Indira Gandhi initiated the 42nd Amendment that amended the Preamble, but she was not the author of this quote.