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టీజీపీఎస్సీ గ్రూప్-1 ప్రిలిమ్స్ 2010

367 ప్రశ్నలు, ప్రతిదానికి అధికారిక సమాధానం మరియు వివరణ.

ఒకే ప్రశ్న పలు సంవత్సరాల్లో వస్తే, మొదటిసారి అడిగిన సంవత్సరం కింద చూపిస్తాం.

  1. Q241HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Myopia is related to what?

    • aHeart
    • bLungs
    • cEyesసరైన సమాధానం
    • dEars
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because myopia, commonly known as nearsightedness, is a refractive defect of the eye where close objects appear clearly but distant objects appear blurry. Option A: It is a circulatory organ and unrelated to optical refraction disorders. Option B: It is a respiratory organ and not affected by refractive visual conditions. Option D: It is an auditory and balancing organ that plays no role in vision.

  2. Q242HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Blood is a

    • aSolution
    • bColloidసరైన సమాధానం
    • cFluid substance
    • dGel
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because physically and chemically, blood is a colloidal dispersion where blood cells and large protein molecules (like albumin and globulin) remain suspended in plasma without settling immediately. Option A: A true solution has solute particles smaller than 1 nanometer, whereas blood contains large suspended cellular elements and proteins. Option C: While blood is a fluid, scientifically its physical mixture classification is a colloid or suspension. Option D: A gel is a semi-solid colloidal system, whereas blood flows as a liquid.

  3. Q243HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Microcytic anemia is caused by the deficiency of what?

    • aFolacinసరైన సమాధానం
    • bBiotin
    • cNiacin
    • dPantothenic acid

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  4. Q244HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Which of the following vitamins is related to protein production?

    • aB₆సరైన సమాధానం
    • bB₁₂
    • cB₁
    • dB₂
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), in its active coenzyme form pyridoxal phosphate, plays an indispensable role in amino acid metabolism, transamination, and protein biosynthesis. Option B: B12 is primarily involved in DNA synthesis, erythrocyte maturation, and myelin maintenance. Option C: B1 serves primarily as a coenzyme in carbohydrate metabolism and cellular energy generation. Option D: B2 functions as a precursor for FAD and FMN in cellular respiration and oxidation-reduction reactions.

  5. Q245HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Bronchitis is a :

    • aNervous system diseaseసరైన సమాధానం
    • bExcretory system disease
    • cFlight system disease
    • dDigestive system

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  6. Q246HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    క్లోరోక్విన్ వంటి మందులకు మలేరియా పరాన్నజీవి విస్తృత ప్రతిఘటన మలేరియాను ఎదుర్కోవడానికి మలేరియా వ్యాక్సిన్‌ను అభివృద్ధి చేయడానికి ప్రయత్నాలను ప్రేరేపించింది. సమర్థవంతమైన మలేరియా వ్యాక్సిన్‌ను అభివృద్ధి చేయడం ఎందుకు కష్టం?

    • aమలేరియా అనేక ప్లాస్మోడియం జాతుల వల్ల వస్తుందిసరైన సమాధానం
    • bసహజ సంక్రమణ సమయంలో మానవుడు మలేరియాకు రోగనిరోధక శక్తిని అభివృద్ధి చేయడు
    • cవ్యాక్సిన్‌లను బ్యాక్టీరియాకు వ్యతిరేకంగా మాత్రమే అభివృద్ధి చేయవచ్చు
    • dమానవుడు కేవలం మధ్యంతర ఆతిథేయుడు మాత్రమే, ఖచ్చితమైన ఆతిథేయుడు కాదు

    అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

  7. Q247HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    What does the following symbol indicate?

    ప్రశ్నలోని చిత్రం
    • aHospital
    • bFirst Aidసరైన సమాధానం
    • cCrossroad
    • dNo Parking

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  8. Q248HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    Pacemaker is related to which of the following?

    • aHeartసరైన సమాధానం
    • bLung
    • cLiver
    • dKidney
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because a pacemaker is an electrical device implanted in the chest to regulate the rhythm and beating of the heart. Option B: Lungs are organs of respiratory gas exchange, not regulated by an electrical pacemaker. Option C: The liver is a metabolic and detoxification organ, completely unrelated to pacemaker therapy. Option D: Kidneys filter waste from the blood and manage electrolyte balance, which is not modulated by a cardiac pacemaker.

  9. Q249HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

    క్యాన్సర్ కణితుల చికిత్సకు సంబంధించి, సైబర్‌నైఫ్ అనే సాధనం వార్తల్లో నిలుస్తోంది. ఈ సందర్భంలో, కింది ప్రకటనలలో ఏది సరైనది కాదు?

    • aఇది రోబోటిక్ ఇమేజ్ గైడెడ్ సిస్టమ్
    • bఇది అత్యంత ఖచ్చితమైన రేడియేషన్ మోతాదును అందిస్తుంది
    • cఇది సబ్‌మిల్లిమీటర్ ఖచ్చితత్వాన్ని సాధించే సామర్థ్యాన్ని కలిగి ఉంది
    • dఇది శరీరంలో కణితి వ్యాప్తిని మ్యాప్ చేయగలదుసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే సైబర్‌నైఫ్ అనేది స్థానికీకరించిన గాయాలకు అధిక-మోతాదు లక్ష్యంతో కూడిన స్టీరియోటాక్టిక్ రేడియోసర్జరీని అందించడానికి రూపొందించబడిన రోబోటిక్ చికిత్సా సాధనం, మెటాస్టేసెస్ వ్యాప్తిని మ్యాప్ చేయడానికి ఉపయోగించే పూర్తి-శరీర రోగనిర్ధారణ స్కానింగ్ సాధనం కాదు. Option A: సైబర్‌నైఫ్ రోబోటిక్ ఆర్మ్‌తో కలిపి రియల్-టైమ్ ఇమేజ్ గైడెన్స్‌ని ఉపయోగించి పనిచేస్తుంది, ఇది సరైన ప్రకటన. Option B: కణితి కణాలను నాశనం చేయడానికి అత్యంత కేంద్రీకృత రేడియేషన్ మోతాదులను అందించడం దీని ప్రధాన చికిత్సా ఉద్దేశ్యం. Option C: రోగి కదలికలకు అనుగుణంగా సర్దుబాటు చేస్తూ, సబ్‌మిల్లిమీటర్ ఖచ్చితత్వంతో కణితులను లక్ష్యంగా చేసుకోవడానికి ఈ వ్యవస్థ ఖచ్చితంగా క్రమాంకనం చేయబడింది.

  10. Q250SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Solvay periodic substance refers to which of the following?

    • aSodiumసరైన సమాధానం
    • bChlorine
    • cPotassium
    • dPhosphorus
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because the Solvay process is an industrial method developed by Ernest Solvay for the large-scale production of sodium carbonate using sodium chloride, ammonia, and limestone. Option B: Chlorine is manufactured industrially by the chlor-alkali electrolysis process, not the Solvay process. Option C: Potassium carbonate cannot be prepared by the Solvay method because potassium bicarbonate is too soluble to precipitate from solution. Option D: Phosphorus is extracted from phosphate mineral deposits and has no role in the Solvay process.

  11. Q251SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    The color given by excess Lithium in a Lithium chloride crystal:

    • aViolet
    • bGreen
    • cPinkసరైన సమాధానం
    • dYellow
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because heating lithium chloride in the presence of excess lithium vapour creates anion vacancies filled by unpaired electrons, known as F-centres, which absorb light and impart a pink colour to the crystal. Excess lithium in LiCl: pink Excess sodium in NaCl: yellow Excess potassium in KCl: violet Option A: Violet colour is produced by F-centres formed due to excess potassium in potassium chloride crystals. Option B: Green colour is not produced by metal excess defects in alkali halides. Option D: Yellow colour is produced by F-centres formed due to excess sodium in sodium chloride crystals.

  12. Q252SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Cola transport easy drinks contain which of the following?

    • aPhosphoric acidసరైన సమాధానం
    • bFormic acid
    • cLactic acid
    • dCitric acid
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because phosphoric acid is added to cola beverages to impart a distinct tangy and sharp flavor while also acting as a preservative against microbial growth. Option B: Formic acid is a toxic compound found in ant stings and is unsafe for human food consumption. Option C: Lactic acid is naturally present in sour milk and curd, not standard cola soft drinks. Option D: Citric acid is predominantly used in clear, citrus-flavored sodas rather than dark colas.

  13. Q253SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    The substance / material used to ignite rocket fuel:

    • aLiquid hydrogen
    • bMethyl alcohol
    • cAmmonium perchlorateసరైన సమాధానం
    • dPotassium chlorate
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because ammonium perchlorate is a primary oxidizer used extensively in solid rocket propellants to initiate and sustain combustion. Option A: Liquid hydrogen serves as a cryogenic fuel rather than an oxidizer or ignition material. Option B: Methyl alcohol is a liquid fuel or solvent, not a primary solid rocket ignition substance. Option D: Potassium chlorate is too sensitive and unstable for standard large-scale rocket motor ignition.

  14. Q254SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Permanent hardness of water is caused by the presence of which of the following?

    • aCalcium sulfateసరైన సమాధానం
    • bCalcium bicarbonate
    • cSodium bicarbonate
    • dMagnesium bicarbonate
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because permanent hardness cannot be removed by boiling and is caused by the soluble chlorides and sulfates of calcium and magnesium. Option B: Calcium bicarbonate causes temporary hardness, which is easily removed by boiling. Option C: Sodium bicarbonate does not contribute to either temporary or permanent hardness of water. Option D: Magnesium bicarbonate causes temporary hardness rather than permanent hardness.

  15. Q255SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    In which of the following ways is Sodium benzoate used?

    • aFlavoring agent
    • bPreservativeసరైన సమాధానం
    • cColoring agent
    • dTo neutralize sourness
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because sodium benzoate is an antimicrobial agent widely used as a food preservative to inhibit the growth of yeasts, moulds, and bacteria in acidic foods and beverages. Option A: It does not impart flavour to food products. Option C: It is a colourless compound and does not act as a dye or colouring agent. Option D: It is the salt of a weak acid and does not serve as an antacid or de-acidifying agent.

  16. Q256SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Which of the following primarily contains mosquito repellent?

    • aCalcium dihydrogen phosphateసరైన సమాధానం
    • bPotassium hydrogen phosphate
    • cSodium hydrogen sulfate
    • dAmmonium bicarbonate

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  17. Q257SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Bardron is a:

    • aBlue pigment
    • bYellow pigmentసరైన సమాధానం
    • cBrown pigment
    • dOrange pigment

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  18. Q258SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Among the following metals, which is used as the purest metal?

    • aSilver
    • bCopper
    • cIron
    • dAluminiumసరైన సమాధానం

    అధికారిక సమాధానం చూపించాం. వివరణ సమీక్షలో ఉంది.

  19. Q259SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    22 carat gold contains how much weight:

    • a8.4% copperసరైన సమాధానం
    • b10.2% copper
    • c11.4% copper
    • d12.6% copper
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because 22 carat gold contains 22 parts pure gold and 2 parts alloy metal such as copper, which amounts to approximately 8.4 percent by weight. 24 carat gold equals 100 percent pure gold 22 carat gold contains 22 parts gold out of 24 total parts Alloy metal content equals 2 parts out of 24 parts Percentage of alloy metal equals 2 divided by 24 multiplied by 100, which is approximately 8.33 percent or 8.4 percent Option B: 10.2% copper corresponds to roughly 21.5 carat gold. Option C: 11.4% copper corresponds to roughly 21.3 carat gold. Option D: 12.6% copper corresponds to roughly 21 carat gold.

  20. Q260SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Brass is an alloy of which of the following?

    • aCopper and Aluminium
    • bCopper and Tin
    • cCopper and Zincసరైన సమాధానం
    • dCopper and Nickel
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because brass is a substitutional alloy composed essentially of copper and zinc in varying proportions. Option A: Copper and aluminium form aluminium bronze, not brass. Option B: Copper and tin combine to form bronze, not brass. Option D: Copper and nickel form cupronickel, not brass.

  21. Q261SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

    Non-stick utensils used in the kitchen are coated with what?

    • aPolyvinyl chloride
    • bPolytetrafluoroethyleneసరైన సమాధానం
    • cPolystyrene
    • dPolyamide
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE), widely known under the brand name Teflon, provides extreme non-reactivity, high thermal stability, and a very low coefficient of friction, making it ideal for non-stick cookware. Option A: Polyvinyl chloride decomposes at cooking temperatures and releases hazardous fumes, making it unusable for cooking surfaces. Option C: Polystyrene is a brittle polymer with low thermal resistance used mainly in disposable packaging and insulation. Option D: Polyamides (nylons) are used for textile fibres and engineering parts, not as non-stick coatings on utensils.

  22. Q262SCHOOL PHYSICS

    Friction:

    • aaccelerates motion
    • bcompletely stops moving objects
    • creduces the speed of motion.సరైన సమాధానం
    • dhas no effect on motion.
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because friction always opposes the relative motion between contacting surfaces, causing a moving body to decelerate and reduce its speed. Option A: Friction resists relative motion and dissipates mechanical energy into heat, so it decelerates rather than accelerates motion. Option B: Friction continuously reduces speed, but does not stop motion instantaneously without sufficient distance or time. Option D: Friction exerts a retarding force that directly alters the velocity of moving objects.

  23. Q263SCHOOL PHYSICS

    The orbital period of a geostationary satellite is:

    • a365 days
    • b30 days
    • c1 dayసరైన సమాధానం
    • d12 hours
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because a geostationary satellite must match Earth's rotational period so that it appears stationary relative to a fixed point on Earth's equator. Rotational period of Earth on its axis: approximately 24 hours (1 day) Orbital period of a geostationary satellite: 24 hours (1 day) Orbital altitude: approximately 35786 km above the equator Option A: 365 days is Earth's orbital period around the Sun, not the period of an Earth-orbiting satellite. Option B: 30 days is roughly the orbital period of the Moon around Earth. Option D: 12 hours is typical for semi-synchronous satellite orbits, such as those used by GPS constellations.

  24. Q264SCHOOL PHYSICS

    Inertia is a property of which of the following?

    • aForce
    • bDensity
    • cMassసరైన సమాధానం
    • dVolume
    వివరణ

    Option C is correct because mass is the intrinsic quantitative measure of an object's inertia, directly determining how strongly it resists any change in its state of rest or uniform motion. Option A: Force is an external interaction that causes an acceleration rather than an inherent property of matter that resists it. Option B: Density is mass per unit volume, which describes how tightly matter is packed rather than its resistance to acceleration. Option D: Volume represents the spatial size of a body and does not determine how difficult it is to change the body's velocity.

  25. Q265SCHOOL PHYSICS

    If force does not act on a system of particles, the external center of propagation of that system?

    • aincreases
    • bdecreases
    • cbecomes zero
    • dremains constantసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because by Newton's first law and the law of conservation of momentum, the velocity of the center of mass of an isolated system remains constant when no external force acts upon it. Option A: Increases is incorrect because an increase in the velocity or momentum of the center of mass requires a net positive external force. Option B: Decreases is incorrect because a decrease in the center of mass velocity requires a net retarding external force. Option C: Becomes zero is incorrect because if the center of mass has an initial non-zero velocity, it continues moving uniformly rather than stopping.

  26. Q266SCHOOL PHYSICS

    If there is a 100 percent increase in an object's momentum, what is the increase in its kinetic energy?

    • aThere will be a 300 percent increase.సరైన సమాధానం
    • bThere will be a 200 percent increase.
    • cThere will be a 100 percent increase.
    • dThere will be a 50 percent increase.
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because kinetic energy is proportional to the square of momentum, so doubling the momentum quadruples the kinetic energy, resulting in a 300 percent increase. Kinetic energy formula: KE = p^2 / (2m) Initial momentum: p New momentum after 100 percent increase: p' = 2p New kinetic energy: KE' = (2p)^2 / (2m) = 4 * KE Percentage increase: ((4 * KE - KE) / KE) * 100 = 300 percent Option B: A 200 percent increase mistakenly assumes kinetic energy triples rather than quadruples when momentum doubles. Option C: A 100 percent increase assumes a linear relationship between momentum and kinetic energy, ignoring the squared dependence. Option D: A 50 percent increase incorrectly divides the percentage change rather than applying the quadratic relationship.

  27. Q267SCHOOL PHYSICS

    Among the following, in which does tea get cold very easily?

    • aGlass cup
    • bMetal cupసరైన సమాధానం
    • cClay cup
    • dPorcelain cup
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because metals are excellent thermal conductors with high thermal conductivity, allowing heat to rapidly conduct from the tea to the outer surface and dissipate into the air. Option A: Glass is a thermal insulator and dissipates heat far more slowly than metal. Option C: Clay has low thermal conductivity and porous walls that trap heat relatively well compared to metal. Option D: Porcelain is a ceramic material with very low thermal conductivity that retains heat effectively.

  28. Q268SCHOOL PHYSICS

    A crack in a glass plate appears as an illusion:

    • alike silverసరైన సమాధానం
    • bgreen
    • cblack
    • dcolorful
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because total internal reflection occurs at the air-glass boundary inside the crack, reflecting almost all incident light and making the crack glisten like a polished silver surface. Option B: Total internal reflection reflects all visible wavelengths equally rather than selectively reflecting green light. Option C: Total internal reflection returns light to the viewer instead of absorbing it, which would otherwise make it look black. Option D: The crack does not act like a prism separating light systematically to produce a colorful appearance.

  29. Q269SCHOOL PHYSICS

    To a geographer, the sky from a ship appears as:

    • ablack
    • bblueసరైన సమాధానం
    • cblue
    • dwhite

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  30. Q270SCHOOL PHYSICS

    The distance between two consecutive points in the same phase is its:

    • aFrequency
    • bAmplitude
    • cLight intensity
    • dWavelengthసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because wavelength is defined as the spatial distance between any two successive points that are in the same phase of oscillation, such as two consecutive crests or troughs. Option A: Frequency is the number of wave cycles passing a fixed point per unit time, not a physical distance. Option B: Amplitude is the maximum displacement of particles from their equilibrium position. Option C: Light intensity is a measure of radiant power per unit area, not a length or distance.

  31. Q271SCHOOL PHYSICS

    What we use for alternating current:

    • aEliminator
    • bTransformerసరైన సమాధానం
    • cBattery
    • dDynamo
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because a transformer operates on the principle of mutual electromagnetic induction, which strictly requires a continuously varying or alternating current to induce a voltage in the secondary winding. Option A: A battery eliminator converts alternating current into direct current rather than utilizing AC for AC-specific tasks. Option C: A battery stores and delivers direct current and cannot operate on or provide alternating current directly. Option D: A standard dynamo produces direct current using a split-ring commutator.

  32. Q272SCHOOL PHYSICS

    Albert Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize for which of the following?

    • aTheory of Special Relativity
    • bPhotoelectric effectసరైన సమాధానం
    • cInvention of the atomic bomb
    • dBrownian motion
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because Albert Einstein was awarded the 1921 Nobel Prize in Physics specifically for his services to theoretical physics and especially for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect. Option A: Theory of Special Relativity was considered too controversial and unverified by the Nobel Committee at that time and was not cited for the award. Option C: Invention of the atomic bomb is historically incorrect because Einstein did not invent or build the atomic bomb. Option D: Brownian motion was mathematically explained by Einstein in 1905, but it was not the cited reason for his Nobel Prize.

  33. Q273Logical reasoning and analytical ability

    What does a factory always have?

    • asellers
    • bfiles
    • celectricity
    • dworkersసరైన సమాధానం
    వివరణ

    Option D is correct because a factory is an industrial production facility that fundamentally requires workers to carry out manufacturing operations, even if it operates manually without modern amenities. Option A: sellers are involved in marketing and retail distribution, not an inherent component located inside every factory. Option B: files are administrative tools that may be absent in informal or non-bureaucratic factories. Option C: electricity is not universal to all factories, as traditional or manual manufacturing units can operate without it.

  34. Q274Logical reasoning and analytical ability

    A cube needs to be colored, avoiding the same color on adjacent surfaces. The minimum number of colors required for this is

    • athreeసరైన సమాధానం
    • bfour
    • cfive
    • dsix
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because a standard cube has three pairs of mutually opposite faces, and each pair can share the same color without any adjacent faces having matching colors. Option B: It uses more colors than the absolute minimum required. Option C: It exceeds the minimum necessary number of colors. Option D: It assigns a distinct color to each of the six faces, which is not the minimum.

  35. Q275Logical reasoning and analytical ability

    Five girls are sitting in a row. Neither Sulekha nor Abha is next to Rakhi. Anuradha is not next to Sulekha. Rakhi is next to Monika. Monika is in the middle of the row. Then, who among the following is Anuradha next to?

    • aRakhiసరైన సమాధానం
    • bMonika
    • cAbha
    • dSulekha
    వివరణ

    Option A is correct because Monika occupies the center position and Rakhi sits next to her, forcing Anuradha into the adjacent end seat since Sulekha and Abha cannot sit next to Rakhi. Row positions: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Position 3: Monika Position 2: Rakhi Positions next to Rakhi cannot be Sulekha or Abha: Position 1 must be Anuradha Positions 4 and 5: Sulekha and Abha in some order Anuradha at position 1 is adjacent to Rakhi at position 2 Option B: Monika is separated from Anuradha by Rakhi. Option C: Abha is placed on the opposite side of Monika and is not adjacent to Anuradha. Option D: Sulekha is placed on the opposite side of Monika and cannot be next to Anuradha.

  36. Q276Series, analogy and odd man out

    కింది సంఖ్యలలో ఏది ఈ శ్రేణిలో తప్పుగా ఉంది? 1,6,2,12,8,24

    • a2
    • b8సరైన సమాధానం
    • c6
    • d24
    వివరణ

    Option B సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే 8 అనేది శ్రేణిలోని పరిక్రియల ఏకాంతర నమూనాను ఉల్లంఘిస్తుంది. 1 × 6 = 6 6 ÷ 3 = 2 2 × 6 = 12 12 ÷ 3 = 4 4 × 6 = 24 Option A: శ్రేణిలో 2 సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే ఇది 6 ను 3 చే భాగిస్తే సరిగ్గా వస్తుంది. Option C: శ్రేణిలో 6 సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే ఇది 1 ని 6 తో గుణిస్తే సరిగ్గా వస్తుంది. Option D: శ్రేణిలో 24 సరైనది, ఎందుకంటే ఇది 4 ని 6 తో గుణిస్తే సరిగ్గా వస్తుంది.

  37. Q277Series, analogy and odd man out

    One of the following sequence of numbers is incorrect. Identify it: 1, 6, 2, 12, 8, 24

    • a-2
    • b8సరైన సమాధానం
    • c6
    • d24
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because replacing 8 with 4 maintains the consistent alternating rule of multiplying by 6 and dividing by 3. 1 × 6 = 6 6 ÷ 3 = 2 2 × 6 = 12 12 ÷ 3 = 4 4 × 6 = 24 Option A: -2 is not even an element in the original sequence. Option C: 6 correctly follows the rule 1 × 6 = 6. Option D: 24 correctly follows the rule 4 × 6 = 24.

  38. Q278Series, analogy and odd man out

    Find the missing letter in the alternatives given below:

    ప్రశ్నలోని చిత్రం
    • a9సరైన సమాధానం
    • b12
    • c18
    • d6

    వివరణ త్వరలో.

  39. Q279Series, analogy and odd man out

    BCARLMEDS అనే అక్షరాలను తిరిగి అమర్చి ఒక అర్థవంతమైన పదాన్ని తయారు చేయండి:

    • aCRUMBLED
    • bSCRAMBLEDసరైన సమాధానం
    • cLEADERS
    • dDEALERS
    వివరణ

    BCARLMEDS లో ఇవ్వబడిన ఖచ్చితమైన తొమ్మిది అక్షరాలను SCRAMBLED కలిగి ఉంది కాబట్టి Option B సరైనది. Option A: CRUMBLED లో U అనే అక్షరం ఉంది, ఇది ఇచ్చిన అక్షరాలలో లేదు. Option C: LEADERS ఏడు అక్షరాలను మాత్రమే కలిగి ఉంది మరియు రెండు E లను ఉపయోగిస్తుంది, అయితే ఇచ్చిన సమూహంలో ఒకే ఒక E ఉంది. Option D: DEALERS ఏడు అక్షరాలను మాత్రమే కలిగి ఉంది మరియు అసలు సమూహంలో లేని E ని పునరావృతం చేస్తుంది.

  40. Q280Series, analogy and odd man out

    Rearrange the letters BCARLMEDS to form a meaningful word?

    • aCRUMBLED
    • bSCRAMBLEDసరైన సమాధానం
    • cLEADERS
    • dDEALERS
    వివరణ

    Option B is correct because the letter collection B, C, A, R, L, M, E, D, S contains exactly 9 letters which can be rearranged to spell the word SCRAMBLED. Option A: CRUMBLED contains the letter U, which is not present in BCARLMEDS. Option C: LEADERS contains only 7 letters and uses letters not matching the full original set. Option D: DEALERS contains only 7 letters and does not use all the letters provided.

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