APPSC Group-I Prelims 2004

378 questions from the 2004 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

121. Q121Public finance and the budget

     Which of the following is a tax levied and collected by the Central Government and given to the states?

     • aExport - Import duties
     • bStamp Duty
     • cIncome Tax
     • dTax levied on railway faresAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, taxes on railway fares and freights were classified as taxes levied and collected by the Union Government and assigned directly to the States. Option A: Export - Import duties is incorrect because customs duties are levied, collected, and entirely retained by the Union Government under Entry 83 of the Union List. Option B: Stamp Duty is incorrect because under Article 268, stamp duties on specific instruments are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States. Option C: Income Tax is incorrect because personal income tax is levied and collected by the Union and distributed between the Union and the States under Article 270.

122. Q122External sector and the world economy

     As indicated in the Exim Policy 2003-04, the Reserve Bank of India has announced the Gold Card Scheme, meant for:

     • aImporters
     • bStudents seeking admissions abroad
     • cWomen entrepreneurs
     • dCreditworthy exportersAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Gold Card Scheme was announced by the Reserve Bank of India following the Exim Policy 2003-04 to provide simplified, easier, and concessional export credit to creditworthy exporters with proven track records. Option A: Importers are not eligible under the scheme, which was created exclusively to facilitate export financing. Option B: Students seeking admissions abroad access education loan products under separate retail lending schemes. Option C: Women entrepreneurs receive targeted credit assistance under dedicated enterprise development schemes rather than this Exim mechanism.

123. Q123External sector and the world economy

     Gems and jewellery constituted the highest share in India’s exports during 2002 - 2003. Which of the following comes next during the said period ?

     • aEngineering goodsAnswer
     • bChemicals and related products
     • cReadymade garments
     • dCrude oil and petroleum products
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because in the financial year 2002-03, engineering goods formed the second largest component of India's merchandise export basket following gems and jewellery. Shares in India's exports in 2002-03: Gems and jewellery: about 17.2 percent Engineering goods: about 16.9 percent Chemicals and related products: about 14.1 percent Readymade garments: about 10.7 percent Option B: Chemicals and related products stood behind engineering goods in total export value. Option C: Readymade garments ranked below engineering goods during 2002-03. Option D: Crude oil and petroleum products formed a much smaller share of India's export earnings prior to the major expansion of domestic refining capacity.

124. Q124External sector and the world economy

     Which country accounts for the largest share of Indian exports?

     • aUSAAnswer
     • bUK
     • cUAE
     • dAustralia
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the United States of America is the single largest destination for Indian merchandise exports, consistently accounting for around 17 to 18 percent of India's total outbound shipments. Option B: The United Kingdom ranks outside India's top five export destinations. Option C: The UAE is India's second-largest export destination, behind the USA. Option D: Australia represents a much smaller proportion of India's total export market.

125. Q125External sector and the world economy

     As indicated in the 2003-04 Export-Import Policy, the Reserve Bank of India announced the Gold Card scheme for _____.

     • aimporters
     • bstudents seeking admission abroad
     • cwomen entrepreneurs
     • dcreditworthy exportersAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Gold Card Scheme was formulated by the Reserve Bank of India in line with the Exim Policy 2003-04 to provide simplified, fast-track credit facilities and concessional terms to creditworthy exporters with a proven track record. Option A: Incorrect because the scheme was specifically designed to promote exports rather than facilitate importers. Option B: Incorrect because student loans and education abroad are unrelated to Exim Policy credit mechanisms. Option C: Incorrect because the Gold Card was targeted based on export performance and creditworthiness, not targeted exclusively toward women entrepreneurs.

126. Q126External sector and the world economy

     In 2002-2003, gems and jewellery constituted the largest share of India's exports. What were the second largest exports after these?

     • aEngineering goodsAnswer
     • bChemicals and related products
     • cReadymade garments
     • dCrude oil, petroleum products
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because in the financial year 2002-2003, engineering goods occupied the second spot in India's export basket, following gems and jewellery which held the first position. Option B: Chemicals and related products represented a major export segment but ranked below engineering goods in total trade value for 2002-2003. Option C: Readymade garments were a key component of textiles but did not reach the second rank overall. Option D: Crude oil, petroleum products emerged as a leading export commodity only in later years following the large expansion of domestic refining capacity.

127. Q127External sector and the world economy

     India’s FOREX reserves crossed a historic high, standing at $ 110.48 billion as on December 19, 2003. How low were our FOREX reserves in the first half of 1991 ?

     • a$ 40 billion
     • b$12 billion
     • c$ 8.4 billron
     • d$ 1.2 billionAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because during the peak of India's balance of payments crisis in June 1991, foreign exchange reserves dropped to approximately $1.2 billion, providing barely enough import cover for about three weeks. June 1991: FOREX reserves dropped to roughly $1.2 billion December 2003: FOREX reserves expanded past $110 billion Option A: $ 40 billion reflects reserve levels reached in the early 2000s, far higher than the 1991 crisis level. Option B: $12 billion is ten times higher than India's actual depleted reserve balance during the first half of 1991. Option C: $ 8.4 billron is incorrect because reserves had shrunk far below this amount before the government pledged gold to avoid default.

128. Q128External sector and the world economy

     As of December 19, 2003, India's foreign exchange reserves reached a historically high level of 110.48 billion. What were India's foreign exchange reserves at the beginning of 1991?

     • a40 billion dollars
     • b12 billion dollars
     • c8.4 billion dollars
     • d1.2 billion dollarsAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because India faced an acute balance of payments crisis in early 1991, during which its foreign exchange reserves depleted to approximately 1.2 billion dollars, sufficient to finance only about two weeks of imports. India foreign exchange reserves at beginning of 1991: 1.2 billion dollars India foreign exchange reserves in December 2003: 110.48 billion dollars Option A: 40 billion dollars was a high reserve milestone reached only in the early 2000s. Option B: 12 billion dollars reflects the improved reserve position achieved several years into the post-1991 economic reforms. Option C: 8.4 billion dollars corresponds to a later recovery figure during the mid-1990s rather than the crisis level.

129. Q129External sector and the world economy

     In view of the raising of the FDI cap in the Union Budget 2004-05, which of the following sectors is the odd one ?

     • aTelecom Sector
     • bBanking SectorAnswer
     • cInsurance Sector
     • dCivil Aviation Sector
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Union Budget 2004-05 proposed to hike sectoral FDI caps specifically in telecom (from 49% to 74%), civil aviation (from 40% to 49%), and insurance (from 26% to 49%), whereas the FDI cap in private sector banking had already been raised to 74% earlier in March 2004. Option A: Telecom sector FDI limit was proposed to be increased to 74% in this budget. Option C: Insurance sector FDI limit was proposed to be increased to 49% in this budget. Option D: Civil Aviation sector FDI limit was proposed to be increased to 49% in this budget.

130. Q130External sector and the world economy

     100% Foreign Direct Investment is permitted in

     • aExport Processing Zones
     • bSpecial Economic ZonesAnswer
     • cIndustrial Areas
     • dIndustrial Estates
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because under India's FDI policy, 100% Foreign Direct Investment is permitted under the automatic route for setting up units in Special Economic Zones (SEZs) as well as for the development of SEZs. Option A: Export Processing Zones were the older scheme that was superseded by the Special Economic Zones policy. Option C: Industrial Areas generally refer to state-level designated zones that do not enjoy the specific 100% automatic sector-wide regime formulated under the SEZ Act. Option D: Industrial Estates do not inherently provide the unified automatic 100% FDI framework defined under the SEZ regime.

131. Q131External sector and the world economy

     Considering the increase in the level of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the 2004-05 budget, identify the odd one out among the following?

     • aTelecom sector
     • bBanking sectorAnswer
     • cInsurance sector
     • dCivil aviation sector
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the 2004-05 Union Budget specifically proposed hiking FDI caps in telecommunications, civil aviation, and insurance, whereas the FDI cap for private sector banks had already been addressed separately prior to this budget. Option A: Telecom sector was one of the three sectors specifically identified for an FDI hike in the 2004-05 budget. Option C: Insurance sector was proposed to be raised from 26% to 49% in that budget. Option D: Civil aviation sector was proposed to have its FDI cap raised to 49% in that budget.

132. Q132External sector and the world economy

     Consider the following statements : A. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low-income countries facing high level of indebtedness B. Singapore Regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macroeconomic analysis and policy, and related subjects as a part of programme of the IMF institute. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

     • a1. A only
     • b2. B onlyAnswer
     • c3. Both A and B
     • d4. Neither A nor B
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statement B is accurate: the IMF - Singapore Regional Training Institute was established in 1998 to provide training in macroeconomic analysis and policy to officials across the Asia-Pacific region. Option A: Statement A is wrong because the Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility was established by the International Monetary Fund in 1999, not by the International Development Association. Option C: Both statements cannot be correct because the PRGF is an IMF initiative rather than an IDA facility. Option D: Statement B is completely correct regarding the role and institutional alignment of the Singapore Regional Training Institute.

133. Q133External sector and the world economy

     What is India's position among the cotton-producing countries in the world?

     • aSixth
     • bFifth
     • cFourth
     • dThirdAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because according to standard textbook reference data from that period, India was placed third globally in cotton production behind China and the United States. Option A: Sixth is incorrect because India has always been in the top tier of world cotton producers, far above the sixth rank. Option B: Fifth is incorrect because India cotton output has never fallen as low as fifth place in modern records. Option C: Fourth is incorrect because older standard references credited India as the third-largest producer.

134. Q134External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following countries does not grow pepper?

     • aMalaysia
     • bSingaporeAnswer
     • cIndia
     • dIndonesia
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Singapore is an almost entirely urbanized city-state with virtually no commercial agricultural land dedicated to spice cultivation such as black pepper. Option A: Malaysia is incorrect because it is a prominent pepper producer, particularly in the state of Sarawak. Option C: India is incorrect because it is one of the traditional major producers and exporters of black pepper, mainly in Kerala and Karnataka. Option D: Indonesia is incorrect because it is one of the world largest commercial cultivators and exporters of pepper, notably from Lampung and Bangka.

135. Q135STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

     According to current estimates, what is the estimated cost for the construction of the Polavaram Project proposed to be built on the Godavari river?

     • a8,200 Crores
     • b6,400 CroresAnswer
     • c2,700 Crores
     • d3,800 Crores

     Explanation coming soon.

136. Q136The Earth in the solar system

     What is a "Blue Moon"?

     • aThe dark side of the moon invisible to us
     • bThe first full moon of the month
     • cThe second full moon occurring in the same monthAnswer
     • dThe full moon occurring on July 31st in any year
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the modern popular astronomical definition designates the second full moon appearing within a single calendar month as a Blue Moon. Option A: the area of the Moon permanently turned away from our view is called the far side or dark side of the Moon. Option B: the initial full moon of a calendar month carries standard seasonal names rather than being called a Blue Moon. Option D: a Blue Moon is determined by the occurrence of two full moons in one month, not by an association with July 31st.

137. Q137The Earth in the solar system

     Which of the following planets is similar to Earth in mass, size, and density?

     • aMars
     • bVenusAnswer
     • cMercury
     • dUranus
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Venus is widely known as Earth's twin due to its very similar radius, mass, and average density. Option A: Mars is roughly half the diameter of Earth and has only about 11 percent of Earth's mass. Option C: Mercury is significantly smaller, with a diameter barely one-third of Earth's and roughly 5.5 percent of its mass. Option D: Uranus is an ice giant with a mass more than 14 times that of Earth and a much lower density.

138. Q138The Earth in the solar system

     Which of the following planets has the Indian name 'Yama'?

     • aUranus
     • bPlutoAnswer
     • cSaturn
     • dNeptune
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because in modern Indian astronomy, the dwarf planet Pluto is identified by the name Yama, representing the deity of the underworld. Uranus: Arun Neptune: Varun Pluto: Yama Option A: Uranus is known by the Indian name Arun. Option C: Saturn is known in Indian astronomy and astrology as Shani. Option D: Neptune is known by the Indian name Varun.

139. Q139The Earth in the solar system

     Which city experiences the sun for the longest duration during summer?

     • aMumbai
     • bSrinagarAnswer
     • cChennai
     • dKolkata
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because during the northern hemisphere summer, day length increases progressively from the equator toward the North Pole, making the northernmost city receive the longest duration of sunlight. Srinagar latitude: approximately 34.1 degrees North Jaipur latitude: approximately 26.9 degrees North Kolkata latitude: approximately 22.6 degrees North Mumbai latitude: approximately 19.1 degrees North Chennai latitude: approximately 13.1 degrees North Option A: Mumbai is situated at roughly 19 degrees North, giving it shorter summer days than Srinagar. Option C: Chennai is closest to the equator among these cities, resulting in the least variation in day length and shorter summer daylight than higher latitudes. Option D: Kolkata lies at a lower latitude than Srinagar, receiving fewer hours of daylight on summer solstice days.

140. Q140Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     Where is Bandhavgarh National Park located?

     • aRajasthan
     • bMadhya PradeshAnswer
     • cBihar
     • dOdisha
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Bandhavgarh National Park, known for its high density of royal Bengal tigers and historical fort, is located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh. Option A: Rajasthan contains national parks like Ranthambore, Sariska, and Keoladeo, not Bandhavgarh. Option C: Bihar has only one national park, which is Valmiki National Park. Option D: Odisha is home to Similipal and Bhitarkanika National Parks, not Bandhavgarh.

141. Q141India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Identify the different one.

     • aKanchenjunga PeakAnswer
     • bK₂
     • cGodwin Austen Peak
     • dDogoori
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Kanchenjunga Peak is an independent mountain located in the Great Himalayas in Sikkim, whereas the other three are different names for the same peak located in the Karakoram range. Option B: K2 is the standard survey designation for the second-highest peak on Earth in the Karakoram range. Option C: Godwin Austen Peak is the alternative English name given to K2. Option D: Dogoori, also known as Chhogori, is the local Balti name for K2.

142. Q142India: physiography, drainage and climate

     The mountain range extending between the Pamir Plateau and the Indus River

     • aDhaulagiri
     • bNanga Parbat
     • cPurvanchal
     • dKarakoramAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Karakoram range radiates southeastward from the Pamir Knot and lies north of the Indus River gorge, forming a massive barrier across northern Kashmir. Option A: Dhaulagiri is an individual mountain massif located within the Great Himalayas in Nepal. Option B: Nanga Parbat is an individual mountain peak located at the western terminus of the Great Himalayas near the Indus bend. Option C: Purvanchal constitutes the eastern hills and mountain ranges running along the northeastern border of India.

143. Q143India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Mount Everest is located in...

     • aMiddle Himalayas
     • bOuter Himalayas
     • cCentral HimalayasAnswer
     • dLesser Himalayas
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Mount Everest lies in the Great Himalayas, which along the Nepal-Tibet sector are traditionally and regionally classified as the Central Himalayas. Option A: Middle Himalayas refers to the Himachal range lying south of the Great Himalayas. Option B: Outer Himalayas refers to the low-altitude Shiwalik foothills. Option D: Lesser Himalayas is another term for the Middle Himalayas, lying well below the elevation of Everest.

144. Q144India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Which of the following is not a tributary of Narmada?

     • aDudhi
     • bPurnaAnswer
     • cBanjar
     • dHiran
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Purna is a major tributary of the Tapti (Tapi) river, not the Narmada river. Option A: Dudhi is a left-bank tributary of the Narmada river originating in the Satpura range. Option C: Banjar is an important left-bank tributary of the Narmada river that flows through Madhya Pradesh. Option D: Hiran is a prominent right-bank tributary of the Narmada river.

145. Q145India: physiography, drainage and climate

     'El Niño' usually causes drought in India. Which of the following brings rainfall?

     • aSouthern Oscillation
     • bEquatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation
     • c'La Niña'Answer
     • dIndian Ocean Dipole
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because La Niña represents the anomalous cooling of surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific, which strengthens the Walker circulation and typically brings normal to above-normal monsoon rainfall to India. Option A: The Southern Oscillation is the broad atmospheric see-saw that contains both drought-inducing and rain-bearing phases. Option B: The Equatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation has both positive and negative phases, and its presence alone does not guarantee increased rainfall. Option D: The Indian Ocean Dipole consists of both positive and negative phases, with only its positive phase supporting the Indian monsoon.

146. Q146Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Which of the following states in India cultivates the most papayas?

     • aTamil Nadu
     • bKarnataka
     • cWest Bengal
     • dAndhra PradeshAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of papaya in India, contributing nearly one-third of the nation's total output. Option A: Tamil Nadu is a major producer but ranks well behind Andhra Pradesh in total yield and acreage. Option B: Karnataka accounts for a smaller share of national papaya cultivation compared to Andhra Pradesh. Option C: West Bengal produces significant amounts of papaya, but its output is substantially lower than Andhra Pradesh.

147. Q147Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     India is a leader in the production of which of the following?

     • a1) Meat
     • b2) Pork
     • c3) Butter and GheeAnswer
     • d4) Cheese
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because India is the largest producer and consumer of butter and ghee in the world, driven by having the world's largest bovine population and dairy sector. Option A: The United States and China lead global meat production, while India's share is relatively smaller. Option B: China is the dominant global leader in pork production. Option D: The European Union and the United States are the leading producers of commercial cheese.

148. Q148Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Where is the Kabini Dam located?

     • aIn Assam
     • bIn Odisha
     • cIn Kerala
     • dIn KarnatakaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Kabini Dam is built across the Kabini River, a major tributary of the Cauvery, in the Mysuru district of Karnataka. Option A: Assam lies in the Brahmaputra and Barak river basins, with no connection to the Kabini reservoir. Option B: Odisha hosts major reservoirs like Hirakud on the Mahanadi River, not the Kabini Dam. Option C: While the Kabini River originates in the Wayanad district of Kerala, the Kabini Dam itself is situated downstream inside Karnataka.

149. Q149Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     On which of the following rivers were the most dams (29) built?

     • aGodavari
     • bNarmadaAnswer
     • cMahanadi
     • dTapi
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the master development plan for the Narmada River basin, managed under the Narmada Valley Development Project, specified the construction of 29 major dams along with 135 medium and 3000 minor dams. Option A: Godavari basin has numerous projects across states, but the specific planned sequence of 29 major dams does not define its basin scheme. Option C: Mahanadi basin centers around the Hirakud Dam complex and does not feature 29 major dams. Option D: Tapi basin has only a few major storage structures, such as Ukai and Hathnur dams.

150. Q150Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     The Integral Coach Factory at Perambur has designed and assembled, for the Konkan Railway Corporation, bogies with a new concept for its unique train called:

     • aSky BusAnswer
     • bAero Bus
     • cRope Bus
     • dSonic Bus
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Integral Coach Factory at Perambur designed and built the prototype coaches and bogies for the Sky Bus Metro technology developed by the Konkan Railway Corporation. Option B: Aero Bus is a different suspended mass transit concept developed abroad and not by the Konkan Railway Corporation and ICF. Option C: Rope Bus is a fictional term and not a railway technology designed by ICF. Option D: Sonic Bus is not a transit system developed or assembled by ICF Perambur.

151. Q151Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     Where is the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust located?

     • aParadeep
     • bTuticorin
     • cKochi
     • dMumbaiAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust, also known as Nhava Sheva, is located in Navi Mumbai on the mainland east of the Port of Mumbai, Maharashtra. Option A: Paradeep is situated in Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha. Option B: Tuticorin, officially V.O. Chidambaranar Port, is located in Tamil Nadu. Option C: Kochi port is situated on the Willingdon Island in Kerala.

152. Q152Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     Where is the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust located?

     • aParadip
     • bTuticorin
     • cKochi
     • dMumbaiAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust, also referred to as Nhava Sheva, is situated in the Mumbai metropolitan region of Maharashtra. Option A: Paradip is an operational major seaport in Odisha. Option B: Tuticorin port is situated on the Coromandel Coast in Tamil Nadu. Option C: Kochi is a major seaport located in Kerala along the Arabian Sea.

153. Q153Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     How many total international airports are there in India?

     • a16
     • b14Answer
     • c18
     • d12

     Explanation coming soon.

154. Q154Population, settlement and human geography

     As per the 2001 census, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state. Which of the following states occupy the second and third places this regard?

     • aBihar and West Bengal
     • bMaharashtra and West Bengal
     • cMaharashtra and BiharAnswer
     • dBihar and Rajasthan
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because in the 2001 Census, Maharashtra stood second and Bihar stood third in total population behind Uttar Pradesh. Uttar Pradesh: 166.2 million Maharashtra: 96.9 million Bihar: 83.0 million West Bengal: 80.2 million Option A: Bihar was third rather than second, and West Bengal held the fourth position. Option B: West Bengal was in fourth place, not third. Option D: Bihar was in third place rather than second, and Rajasthan ranked eighth overall.

155. Q155Population, settlement and human geography

     Consider the following statements: As per 2001 Census a. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab b. the two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram c. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

     • ac only
     • bb and cAnswer
     • ca and b
     • da and c

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

156. Q156Population, settlement and human geography

     Arrange the following cities in descending order based on their population: A. Bengaluru B. Ahmedabad C. Kanpur D. Delhi E. Kolkata

     • aEADBC
     • bDECAB
     • cEDABCAnswer
     • dEDACB
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the cities arranged in descending order of urban agglomeration population according to the 2001 Census data are Kolkata, Delhi, Bengaluru, Ahmedabad, and Kanpur. Kolkata: 13.2 million Delhi: 12.8 million Bengaluru: 5.7 million Ahmedabad: 4.5 million Kanpur: 2.7 million Option A: Places Kolkata first and Ahmedabad ahead of Delhi, which disrupts the descending population order. Option B: Places Delhi ahead of Kolkata and Kanpur ahead of Ahmedabad, which contradicts the recorded census totals. Option D: Places Kanpur ahead of Bengaluru and Ahmedabad, despite Kanpur having the lowest population among the five cities.

157. Q157Population, settlement and human geography

     Which of the following pairs of states experienced the highest rate of population growth (4.97) and the lowest (0.90) respectively, during 1991 -2001 in India?

     • aTamil Nadu and Nagaland
     • bNagaland and Manipur
     • cKerala and Nagaland
     • dNagaland and KeralaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because during 1991-2001, Nagaland registered the highest annual exponential growth rate of 4.97 percent, whereas Kerala registered the lowest rate of 0.90 percent. Nagaland annual exponential growth rate: 4.97 percent Kerala annual exponential growth rate: 0.90 percent Option A: Tamil Nadu was not the highest-growth state, and Nagaland had the highest rather than the lowest growth. Option B: Manipur was not the state with the lowest growth rate during this decade. Option C: Kerala had the lowest and Nagaland had the highest, which is the reverse of the order asked.

158. Q158Population, settlement and human geography

     According to the 2001 census, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state. Which states occupied the 2nd and 3rd positions in this regard?

     • aBihar and West Bengal
     • bMaharashtra and West Bengal
     • cMaharashtra and BiharAnswer
     • dBihar and Rajasthan
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because in the 2001 Census, Maharashtra was the second most populous state and Bihar was the third most populous, after Uttar Pradesh. First rank in 2001: Uttar Pradesh (166.2 million) Second rank in 2001: Maharashtra (96.9 million) Third rank in 2001: Bihar (83.0 million) Fourth rank in 2001: West Bengal (80.2 million) Option A: Bihar was third rather than second, and West Bengal was fourth. Option B: West Bengal was the fourth most populous state in 2001, not the third. Option D: Rajasthan was the eighth most populous state in 2001, far outside the top three.

159. Q159Population, settlement and human geography

     Which of the following are the states that recorded the highest population growth rate (4.97) and the lowest population growth rate (0.90) in the decade 1991-2001, respectively?

     • aTamil Nadu and Nagaland
     • bNagaland and Manipur
     • cKerala and Nagaland
     • dNagaland and KeralaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Nagaland recorded the highest annual exponential growth rate at 4.97 percent, while Kerala recorded the lowest at 0.90 percent during the 1991-2001 decade. Nagaland annual exponential growth rate: 4.97 percent (decadal growth: 64.53 percent) Kerala annual exponential growth rate: 0.90 percent (decadal growth: 9.43 percent) Option A: Tamil Nadu was neither the highest nor the lowest; Nagaland recorded the highest, not the lowest rate. Option B: Manipur did not record the lowest growth rate in the country during this period. Option C: Kerala and Nagaland are listed in reverse order relative to highest and lowest.

160. Q160Population, settlement and human geography

     Which state in India is not inhabited by the Kuki tribe?

     • aManipur
     • bAssam
     • cNagaland
     • dArunachal PradeshAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Kuki tribe is an ethnic group native to the hilly regions of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and parts of Assam, but they have no significant native settlement in Arunachal Pradesh. Option A: Manipur is the primary state in India with a major concentration of the Kuki population. Option B: Assam has native Kuki settlements, predominantly located in the Karbi Anglong and Dima Hasao districts. Option C: Nagaland is home to recognized Kuki populations, especially in districts such as Peren and Kohima.