APPSC Group-I Prelims 2004

378 questions from the 2004 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

201. Q201Defence technology

     Brahmos, the supersonic Cruise missile was successfully light-tested for the third time on February 12, 2003. Where will the missiles be produced in India?

     • aLudhiana
     • bHyderabadAnswer
     • cDehradum
     • dBangalore
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the dedicated integration and manufacturing facility for the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile was set up in Hyderabad. Option A: Ludhiana does not possess defense manufacturing infrastructure for cruise missiles. Option C: Dehradun is known for electro-optical research laboratories rather than missile assembly facilities. Option D: Bangalore is primarily a hub for aerospace design and testing rather than the primary BrahMos integration plant.

202. Q202Defence technology

     The missile 'Agni-II has a range of

     • a1000 km
     • b700 km
     • c2000 kmAnswer
     • d200 km
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Agni-II intermediate-range ballistic missile has an operational strike range of 2000 km to 2500 km. Option A: 1000 km is significantly lower than the operational reach of Agni-II. Option B: 700 km corresponds to the operational range of the Agni-I missile. Option D: 200 km falls in the range category of short-range tactical missiles like the Prithvi series.

203. Q203Defence technology

     Which of the following statements regarding BrahMos, successfully launched on June 13, 2004, are true? a. It is only an anti-ship missile. b. It is only an anti-aircraft missile. c. It was manufactured at the BrahMos Integration Complex in Mumbai. d. It travels 2.8 times faster than sound. e. It is 8 meters tall and weighs ten tons. f. It can detect enemy ships at a distance of 290 km. g. The June 13 launch was the seventh launch from a mobile launcher.

     • ab, d, c, f
     • ba, b, c, f
     • ca, d, f, gAnswer
     • da, c, e, g
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the statements a, d, f, and g align with the contemporary launch specifications reported for the BrahMos test on June 13, 2004. BrahMos speed: Mach 2.8 BrahMos flight range: 290 km Test conducted on June 13, 2004: 7th flight trial from a mobile launcher Primary role highlighted in initial tests: Anti-ship capability Option A: Statement b incorrectly identifies it as only an anti-aircraft missile. Option B: Statement b incorrectly classifies it as an anti-aircraft missile. Option D: Statement e is incorrect regarding its dimensions and weight, as BrahMos weighs around 3 tons rather than ten tons.

204. Q204Defence technology

     The name of the world's fastest cruise missile, BrahMos, was derived from what?

     • aBrahma, the creator in Indian mythology, and Moses, the prophet of Brazil.
     • bBrahmaputra River of India and Moskva River of Russia.Answer
     • cBrahma, the Indian deity, and Moskva River of Russia.
     • dBrahmaputra River and Moses, the prophet of Brazil.
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the portmanteau BrahMos is formed from the names of two rivers: the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia, symbolising the joint venture between both nations. Option A: The name is derived from rivers of India and Russia, not from religious deities or prophets from Brazil. Option C: The Indian component is the Brahmaputra River, not Lord Brahma. Option D: The second component is the Moskva River of Russia, not Moses of Brazil.

205. Q205Defence technology

     India's Main Battle Tank (MBT), Arjun, rolled out on August 7, 2004 at Avadi near Chennai. Who, amongst the following, named its prototype as Arjun in 1985 ?

     • aField Marshal Manekshaw
     • bGeneral A.S VaidyaAnswer
     • cY.B. Chavan
     • dGeneral K.V. Krishna Rao
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the prototype of the Main Battle Tank was officially named Arjun in 1985 by General Arun Shridhar Vaidya, the then Chief of the Army Staff. Option A: Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw retired in 1973 and was not serving as Army Chief in 1985. Option C: Y.B. Chavan was a political leader and minister who passed away in 1984. Option D: General K.V. Krishna Rao completed his tenure as Chief of Army Staff in 1983.

206. Q206Defence technology

     Which of the following is named 'Gajraj'?

     • aMIG-27
     • bJaguar
     • cMirage 2000
     • dIL-76Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Ilyushin Il-76, a heavy multi-purpose four-engine strategic airlifter operated by the Indian Air Force, is officially designated with the name Gajraj. Option A: MiG-27 was a ground-attack aircraft designated as Bahadur in the Indian Air Force. Option B: Jaguar is a deep-penetration strike aircraft designated as Shamsher in the Indian Air Force. Option C: Mirage 2000 is a multirole fighter aircraft designated as Vajra in the Indian Air Force.

207. Q207Defence technology

     Which one of the following is a modern tank?

     • aBhim
     • bAkash
     • cArjunAnswer
     • dPrithvi
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Arjun is India's third-generation Main Battle Tank, indigenously designed and developed by the Combat Vehicles Research and Development Establishment of DRDO. Option A: Bhim was an experimental self-propelled howitzer project, not a modern tank. Option B: Akash is a mobile surface-to-air missile defence system. Option D: Prithvi is a surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile.

208. Q208Defence technology

     India's Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun rolled out from Avadi near Chennai on August 7, 2004. Who among the following named its main information Arjun in 1985?

     • aField Marshal Manekshaw
     • bGeneral A.S. VaidyaAnswer
     • cY.B. Chavan
     • dGeneral K.V. Krishna Rao
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because General A.S. Vaidya, who served as Chief of the Army Staff from 1983 to 1986, formally named the prototype of India's Main Battle Tank as Arjun in 1985. Option A: Field Marshal Manekshaw had retired long before 1985. Option C: Y.B. Chavan was a former Deputy Prime Minister and Defence Minister, not the Army Chief who christened the tank in 1985. Option D: General K.V. Krishna Rao served as Chief of Army Staff until 1983, preceding this naming ceremony.

209. Q209Defence technology

     If Russia equipped the Indian Air Force with the Sukhoi-30 K, With equipped the sukhoi-30 K wiht the avionics and weapon systems?

     • aIsraelAnswer
     • bUSA
     • cSweden
     • dNorway
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because under the Indo-Russian defense collaboration for the Su-30 variants, Israeli firms supplied advanced avionics, targeting pods, and electronic warfare suites to enhance the aircraft's combat capabilities. Option B: USA did not supply avionics or weapon systems for the Russian-origin Sukhoi-30 platform operated by India. Option C: Sweden has not participated in the avionics or weapons integration of the Sukhoi-30 fleet. Option D: Norway provided no avionics or armament components for India's Sukhoi aircraft.

210. Q210Information and communication technology

     The PTT (Push -To-Talk) services, a mix of Internet Telephone and Wireless Walkie-Talkie, was announced by Tata Teleservices for its mobile telephone customers on May 27, 2004 - a unique technology which is available only in three other countries in the world. Identify the one which does not have this technology:

     • aAustralia
     • bJapan
     • cUSA
     • dMalaysiaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Malaysia did not possess this commercial CDMA Push-To-Talk mobile service when Tata Teleservices introduced it to India in May 2004. Option A: Australia was among the three nations that had commercial Push-To-Talk mobile services operational by May 2004. Option B: Japan had this advanced Push-To-Talk service running prior to the Indian launch. Option C: The USA was one of the earliest adopters and deployers of commercial cellular Push-To-Talk technology.

211. Q211Information and communication technology

     The technology which allows the user to access the Internet through the mobile phone without using a modem or computer, is

     • aPGRS
     • bRPGSAnswer
     • cSPGR
     • dGRPS

     Explanation coming soon.

212. Q212Information and communication technology

     Tata Teleservices announced on May 27, 2004, the provision of PTT (Press-to-Talk) services to its mobile phone users, combined with Internet-enabled wireless walkie-talkie. This unique technology is available in only three other countries in the world. Identify the country that is not among these countries.

     • aAustralia
     • bJapan
     • cUnited States of America
     • dMalaysiaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Malaysia was not one of the three countries where commercial cellular Push-to-Talk service was available when Tata Teleservices launched it in India in May 2004. Commercial cellular PTT deployed in the United States of America Commercial cellular PTT deployed in Japan Commercial cellular PTT deployed in Australia Option A: Australia had already commercially deployed cellular Push-to-Talk service at that time. Option B: Japan was among the first three countries where cellular Push-to-Talk was commercially rolled out. Option C: United States of America was the earliest commercial adopter of cellular Push-to-Talk through networks like Nextel.

213. Q213Information and communication technology

     One of the parameters used to gauge the power of a computer is its

     • aBandwidth
     • bDatawidthAnswer
     • cLanwidth
     • dComwidth

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

214. Q214Information and communication technology

     Which of the following is a compiler?

     • aWINDOWS - 98
     • bJAVA
     • cBASIC
     • dTurbo C++Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Turbo C++ is an integrated development environment (IDE) and compiler designed for compiling and running programs written in the C and C++ programming languages. Option A: WINDOWS - 98 is a graphical operating system released by Microsoft, not a programming language compiler. Option B: JAVA is a high-level programming language rather than a compiler itself. Option C: BASIC is a family of high-level programming languages and not a compiler.

215. Q215Information and communication technology

     What is 'T-Cube'?

     • aThe name given to their product by Biddan
     • bA very small television with a 2/2 screen
     • cA two-inch reproducible computerAnswer
     • dA two-inch reproducible cellphone
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the T-Cube is an ultra-compact personal computer housed in a two-inch cube, developed to demonstrate miniature reproducible computing architecture. Option A: Biddan is an unrelated name with no link to this miniaturized computer hardware. Option B: The T-Cube is a fully functional miniature computer processing unit, not a display television. Option D: The device is built as an ultra-small desktop PC rather than a mobile cellular telephone.

216. Q216Information and communication technology

     An element used to measure computer power is its

     • aBandwidth
     • bData widthAnswer
     • cLog width
     • dCam width
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because data width refers to the number of bits a processor can handle and manipulate simultaneously in a single cycle (such as 32-bit or 64-bit architecture), directly measuring computer processing power. Option A: Bandwidth measures data transfer capacity across a communication channel rather than the core power of the computing unit. Option C: Log width is not a technical term used in computer architecture or performance measurement. Option D: Cam width is a mechanical measurement and has no application in evaluating computer processing capability.

217. Q217Information and communication technology

     The largest Telecom operator in India is

     • aBSNL
     • bMTNL
     • cTata IndicomAnswer
     • dReliance Info.cam

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

218. Q218Nuclear technology

     Consider the following statements: a. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research used fast reactor technology b. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production c. Indian Rare Earths Limited engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India's Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products Which of the statements given above are correct?

     • aa, b and c
     • ba and b
     • ca and cAnswer
     • db and c
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because statements a and c are factually accurate, while statement b is incorrect. IGCAR Kalpakkam is dedicated to the development of Fast Breeder Reactor technology, and IREL produces beach sand minerals including zircon which is vital for reactor components. Option A: Incorrect because statement b is wrong, as heavy water production is the mandate of the Heavy Water Board (HWB), not AMD. Option B: Incorrect because statement b falsely identifies AMD as a heavy water producer; AMD focuses on survey and exploration of atomic minerals. Option D: Incorrect because statement b is incorrect and statement a is omitted.

219. Q219Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of

     • amonoclonal antibodiesAnswer
     • binterferon
     • cantibiotics
     • dalcohol
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because hybridoma technology fuses short-lived, antibody-secreting B lymphocytes with immortal myeloma cells to produce monoclonal antibodies continuously. Option B: Interferons are primarily produced on a commercial scale through recombinant DNA technology in microbial or mammalian hosts, not hybridoma technology. Option C: Antibiotics are natural or semi-synthetic secondary metabolites derived from microorganisms via batch fermentation. Option D: Industrial alcohol is generated through standard anaerobic yeast fermentation of fermentable sugars.

220. Q220Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     The name given to the first female baby resulting from human cloning is

     • aPrima
     • bEveAnswer
     • cDolly
     • dNovel
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the controversial company Clonaid claimed in December 2002 that the first cloned human female baby was born and named Eve. Option A: Prima is an incorrect name with no connection to the 2002 human cloning claims. Option C: Dolly was the famous sheep cloned from an adult somatic cell in 1996, not a human baby. Option D: Novel is not the name attributed to the claimed cloned infant.

221. Q221Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Genome Mapping is related to

     • aBlood grouping
     • bMapping of genesAnswer
     • cMapping of nerve centres
     • dMapping of the brain
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because genome mapping is the process of identifying the specific locations of genes and genetic markers along a strand of DNA, as well as measuring the distances between them. Option A: Blood grouping identifies specific antigens on red blood cells, not the structural layout of chromosomes. Option C: Mapping of nerve centres refers to neuroanatomy or neural circuit mapping, not genome analysis. Option D: Mapping of the brain refers to structural and functional brain mapping using neuroimaging techniques like MRI and fMRI.

222. Q222Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Which of the following GM seeds did Monsanto, the world's biggest seller of genetically modified seeds, announced on May 10, 2004 not to introduce, in spite of a large world market?

     • aBt. Cotton
     • bMaize
     • cSweet Corn
     • dGM WheatAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Monsanto announced on May 10, 2004, that it was discontinuing its efforts to introduce Roundup Ready genetically modified wheat worldwide due to market and farmer opposition. Option A: Bt Cotton was already commercially established by 2004 and was actively expanded rather than cancelled. Option B: GM Maize has been one of the primary commercial pillars of agricultural biotechnology and was never shelved in 2004. Option C: Sweet Corn varieties engineered with GM traits continued in development and were not the subject of Monsanto's 2004 withdrawal.

223. Q223Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     What is 'Nano Gold'?

     • aPlastic in nano form
     • bBlue gold with properties of gold
     • cGold that is not a metal
     • dGold that, despite having a shimmering color, does not act as an electrical conductorAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because when gold is reduced to the nanoscale, quantum confinement alters its electronic band structure, causing it to lose conventional metallic electrical conductivity while displaying distinctive optical and shimmering properties. Option A: Nano gold consists of elemental gold at the nanometer scale, not a synthetic plastic. Option B: Blue gold refers to an intermetallic compound with gallium or indium, not the nanoscale manifestation of gold. Option C: Gold remains a transition metal by chemical composition, even when reduced to nanoparticles.

224. Q224Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Bulletproof jackets are made of which fabric?

     • aSilicon nitrate and jute
     • bThickly blended cotton, jute
     • cNylonAnswer
     • dCopper and steel wires
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because ballistic nylon, a high-tenacity synthetic polyamide fabric originally developed for protective gear, serves as a primary fabric for soft body armour and bulletproof vests. Option A: Silicon nitride is a hard structural ceramic and jute is a low-strength plant fibre, neither forming the fabric of bulletproof vests. Option B: Cotton and jute lack the ultra-high tensile strength and energy dissipation capacity necessary to stop high-velocity bullets. Option D: Copper and steel wires are metallic meshes used in industrial filters or cables rather than flexible ballistic fabrics.

225. Q225SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     In which of the following atmospheric conditions can seeds be stored well?

     • aIn cold, dry conditionsAnswer
     • bIn cold, wet conditions
     • cIn warm, hot conditions
     • dIn warm, wet conditions
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because low temperatures and dry conditions drastically slow down the seed's cellular respiration rate and prevent fungal, bacterial, and insect infestations, thereby preserving embryo viability. Option B: Wet conditions trigger premature germination or cause the seed to rot even under low temperatures. Option C: Warm and hot conditions deplete stored food reserves through accelerated metabolic activity and denature critical enzymes. Option D: Warm and wet conditions create optimal conditions for rapid mould growth, spoilage, and unviable sprouting.

226. Q226SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     In each of the following pairs, the name of a world-famous dog breed and its ancestral habitat are mentioned. Which of these pairs is incorrectly matched?

     • aGreyhound → Egypt
     • bDachshund → Germany
     • cChihuahua → ChinaAnswer
     • dKolhou → Russia
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Chihuahua dog breed originated in Mexico and is named after the Mexican state of Chihuahua, not China. Option A: It is correctly paired because the ancestral lineage of the modern Greyhound traces back to ancient Egypt. Option B: It is correctly paired because the Dachshund was bred in Germany as a badger-hunting hound. Option D: It is correctly paired because the Kolhou type of dog is historically associated with Russia.

227. Q227SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     "Ananas comosus" is the scientific name of which fruit?

     • aStrawberry
     • bPomegranate
     • cJackfruit
     • dPineappleAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Ananas comosus is the binomial botanical name for pineapple, a tropical plant belonging to the family Bromeliaceae. Strawberry: Fragaria ananassa Pomegranate: Punica granatum Jackfruit: Artocarpus heterophyllus Pineapple: Ananas comosus Option A: Strawberry is Fragaria ananassa, not Ananas comosus. Option B: Pomegranate is Punica granatum, not Ananas comosus. Option C: Jackfruit is Artocarpus heterophyllus, not Ananas comosus.

228. Q228SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Which of the following mosquitoes suck blood and survive all over the world?

     • aCulex and Anopheles
     • bAnopheles and Aedes
     • cAedes and Culex
     • dCulex, Anopheles and AedesAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because female mosquitoes of all three major genera—Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes—require blood meals to develop eggs and are cosmopolitan, found across all continents except Antarctica. Option A: omits Aedes, which is also a widespread blood-sucking mosquito genus. Option B: omits Culex, which is globally prevalent. Option C: omits Anopheles, which is found worldwide and acts as the malaria vector.

229. Q229SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Fingerprints of Siamese twins

     • aare identical
     • bare not identicalAnswer
     • care often identical
     • dare less often identical
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because even though Siamese (conjoined) twins share an identical genetic code, their fingerprints are influenced by intrauterine microenvironmental factors such as amniotic fluid flow and fetal contact, making them unique. Option A: Fingerprints are not genetically determined alone; environmental differences in the womb ensure that no two individuals have identical prints. Option C: Fingerprints never achieve identical friction ridge patterns between any two individuals, even conjoined twins. Option D: This implies occasional identical prints, which is incorrect because fingerprint ridge patterns are invariably distinct.

230. Q230SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     If a color-blind man marries a woman with normal vision, and her parents also have normal vision, what is the probability of their offspring being color-blind?

     • aZero percentAnswer
     • b25 percent
     • c50 percent
     • d100 percent
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive condition, meaning an offspring must inherit a defective allele without a dominant normal allele to express the disorder. Since the mother is homozygous normal, all sons inherit her normal X chromosome and have normal vision, while all daughters inherit one defective X from the father and one normal X from the mother, making them unaffected carriers. Option B: 25 percent would be the risk of an affected child only if the mother were a carrier and the father had normal vision. Option C: 50 percent would apply to male offspring if the mother were a carrier. Option D: 100 percent would occur only if both parents were clinically color-blind.

231. Q231SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Which of the following is poisonous to dogs?

     • aGhee
     • bJaggery
     • cCurd
     • dChocolateAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because chocolate contains theobromine and caffeine, which are methylxanthines that dogs cannot metabolize efficiently, leading to toxic accumulation that can cause cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death. Option A: Ghee is incorrect because it is clarified butter fat, which is non-toxic in small amounts despite risking pancreatitis if fed in excess. Option B: Jaggery is incorrect because it is an unrefined sugar product that is unhealthy in large amounts but not poisonous. Option C: Curd is incorrect because plain curd is a safe, fermented dairy food often used as a digestive aid for canines.

232. Q232SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Which of the following is one of the world's most venomous creatures with no antidote for its bite?

     • aRattlesnake
     • bShark
     • cJellyfishAnswer
     • dWild Wasp
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because certain species of box jellyfish, notably the Irukandji jellyfish, possess extraordinarily lethal venom for which no effective antivenom currently exists. Option A: Specific antivenoms are widely produced and administered to treat rattlesnake bites. Option B: Sharks are non-venomous animals that cause physical trauma rather than venomous poisoning. Option D: Wasp stings cause local pain or allergic reactions, but wasps are not among the world's most venomous creatures and anaphylaxis has established medical interventions.

233. Q233SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     How long does it take for the Hilsa fish, beloved by Bengalis, to gain one kilogram in weight?

     • aThree yearsAnswer
     • bFour years
     • cFive years
     • dSix years
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the anadromous Hilsa (Tenualosa ilisha) is a slow-growing fish under natural conditions, taking approximately three years to attain a body weight of one kilogram. First year: reaches approximately 100 to 250 grams Second year: reaches approximately 400 to 600 grams Third year: reaches approximately 800 to 1000 grams Option B: Four years exceeds the standard timeline required for wild Hilsa to reach one kilogram. Option C: Five years corresponds to older fish that have grown well beyond the one-kilogram threshold. Option D: Six years is incorrect because Hilsa achieves this weight much earlier in its life cycle.

234. Q234HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Which of the following human body organs has the ability to regain almost its full capacity within 2-3 weeks after being cut?

     • aLiverAnswer
     • bBrain
     • cKidney
     • dLung
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the liver has a remarkable capacity for compensatory hyperplasia, allowing it to regenerate its full functional mass within a few weeks even after substantial tissue resection. Option B: Brain tissue consists of highly differentiated neurons that possess virtually no capacity for gross structural regeneration. Option C: Kidneys can hypertrophy functionally to compensate for loss, but they cannot structurally regenerate excised renal tissue. Option D: Lung tissue lacks the regenerative capacity to regrow resected lobes or segments back to full organ mass.

235. Q235HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     A person with AB group blood met with an accident. He needs a blood transfusion. Whose blood among the following can be donated to him? Relationship Blood Group a. Wife A b. Son AB c. Friend O d. Daughter B

     • ab only (son)
     • bb and d (son and daughter)
     • ca, b and d (wife, son and daughter)
     • da, b, c and d (wife, son, friend and daughter)Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because a person with blood group AB is a universal recipient and can safely receive compatible red blood cells from donors of blood groups A, B, AB, and O. Option A: Excludes donors from groups A, O, and B, all of which are compatible with an AB recipient. Option B: Excludes donors from groups A and O, who are also valid donors for an AB recipient. Option C: Excludes the friend with group O, who is universally compatible.

236. Q236HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     What is Pyridoxine?

     • aVitamin A
     • bVitamin C
     • cVitamin B₆Answer
     • dVitamin B₂
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because pyridoxine is the scientific name for one of the primary natural forms of Vitamin B6. Vitamin A: Retinol Vitamin C: Ascorbic acid Vitamin B6: Pyridoxine Vitamin B2: Riboflavin Option A: Vitamin A is chemically known as retinol. Option B: Vitamin C is chemically known as ascorbic acid. Option D: Vitamin B2 is chemically known as riboflavin.

237. Q237HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Who among the following people do not suffer from heart diseases like heart attack, unlike the rest of the world's population, despite consuming a diet high in meat and fat and low in fruits and vegetables?

     • aEskimosAnswer
     • bPygmies
     • cNagas
     • dTartars
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the traditional diet of Eskimos consists largely of cold-water marine mammals and fish rich in omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids like EPA and DHA, which provide potent cardiovascular protection. Option B: Pygmies follow an equatorial rainforest diet based on hunting terrestrial animals and gathering wild plants, lacking high marine omega-3 intake. Option C: Nagas rely primarily on cultivated grains, vegetables, and terrestrial livestock meats, without arctic marine fatty acid sources. Option D: Tartars consume a continental diet consisting of dairy, cereals, and domestic livestock meats rather than cold-water marine fats.

238. Q238HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     By avoiding salt in rice, sodium values

     • aincrease
     • bdecreaseAnswer
     • cneither increase nor decrease
     • dmay increase or may decrease
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because common table salt is sodium chloride, so omitting added salt during cooking directly decreases the total sodium content of the prepared rice. Option A: impossible because omitting a sodium-dense additive cannot cause an increase in the element. Option C: incorrect because common salt contributes almost all the sodium in seasoned rice, so leaving it out results in a measurable reduction. Option D: incorrect because the relationship between salt omission and sodium reduction is direct and predictable.

239. Q239HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     In what is Vitamin K found?

     • aPars liver oil
     • bMilk, nuts
     • cVegetables, tomatoes, carrotsAnswer
     • dSeeds, eggs, liver
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because phylloquinone (Vitamin K1) is abundant in plant sources such as green leafy vegetables, tomatoes, and other garden produce like carrots. Option A: Pars liver oil (likely a corruption of cod liver oil) is primarily rich in Vitamins A and D, not a standard plant-based dietary source of Vitamin K. Option B: Milk and nuts contain minimal amounts of Vitamin K compared to green plant sources. Option D: Seeds, eggs, and liver provide protein, B-vitamins, or small amounts of menaquinone, but plant-based vegetables and tomatoes form the standard primary source tested here.

240. Q240HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Which of the following is a contagious disease?

     • aSnoring
     • bTeeth grinding
     • cYawningAnswer
     • dVomiting
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because yawning is recognized for its contagious nature, where observing or hearing another individual yawn triggers an involuntary yawn reflex in the observer. Option A: Snoring is an acoustic respiratory sound produced by vibrating tissues in the upper airway during sleep and is not transmissible. Option B: Teeth grinding, or bruxism, is an involuntary neuromuscular condition often linked to stress or dental misalignment and cannot be caught from others. Option D: Vomiting is an involuntary physiological symptom of underlying gastrointestinal or systemic disturbance, not an infection that spreads directly.