APPSC Group-I Prelims 2008

174 questions from the 2008 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the states take action to establish Gram Panchayats?

    • aArticle 39
    • bArticle 41
    • cArticle 40Answer
    • dArticle 42
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 40 directs the State to take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. Article 39: Policy directives regarding livelihood, resources, and child welfare Article 40: Organisation of village panchayats Article 41: Right to work, to education, and to public assistance in certain cases Article 42: Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief Option A: Article 39 deals with economic policies aimed at preventing the concentration of wealth and securing livelihoods. Option B: Article 41 addresses the right to work, education, and public assistance in situations of unemployment, sickness, and old age. Option D: Article 42 concerns the provision of humane working conditions and maternity benefits.

42. Q42Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    The State takes steps to organize Village Panchayats as per φ Constitution of India under

    • aArticle 39
    • bArticle41
    • cArticle 40Answer
    • dArticle 42
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 40 mandates that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers to function as units of self-government. Article 39 directs policies regarding livelihood, distribution of resources, and equal pay. Article 40 directs the organization of village panchayats. Article 41 provides the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in certain cases. Article 42 provides for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. Option A: It deals with general policy principles concerning adequate livelihood, wealth distribution, and child welfare. Option B: It focuses on securing the right to work, education, and public assistance in specific conditions. Option D: It secures just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.

43. Q43Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Which of the following is / are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy ? A. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. B. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal pruposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

    • a(A) only
    • b(B) onlyAnswer
    • cBoth (A) and (B)
    • dNeither (A) nor (B)
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health is specifically enshrined under Article 47 within the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour under Part III Article 47: Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health under Part IV Option A: Statement A is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 23, not a Directive Principle. Option C: It incorrectly classifies statement A as a Directive Principle alongside statement B. Option D: It fails to recognize that statement B is explicitly listed under Article 47 of the Directive Principles.

44. Q44Amendment and the basic structure

    Which amendment of the Constitution added the words socialist and secular ?

    • a73
    • b51
    • c41
    • d42Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 1976, modified the Preamble by adding the terms socialist, secular, and integrity. Option A: The 73rd Amendment granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. Option B: The 51st Amendment provided reservation for Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Mizoram assemblies. Option C: The 41st Amendment raised the retirement age of State Public Service Commission members from 60 to 62 years.

45. Q45Amendment and the basic structure

    Which amendment of the Constitution limited the role of the President ?

    • a42Answer
    • b22
    • c72
    • d23
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 explicitly amended Article 74(1) to declare that the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers, making that advice mandatory. Option B: enabled the formation of an autonomous State of Meghalaya within Assam. Option C: provided for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in the Tripura Legislative Assembly. Option D: extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Anglo-Indians in legislatures by an additional ten years.

46. Q46Amendment and the basic structure

    Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22 ?

    • aConstitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
    • bConstitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
    • cConstitution (Ninety-second Amendment) ActAnswer
    • dConstitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule, increasing the total count of officially recognized languages from 18 to 22. Original Eighth Schedule contained 14 languages 21st Amendment Act, 1967 added Sindhi 71st Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali, making 22 Option A: The 90th Amendment maintained the representation of scheduled tribes and non-scheduled tribes in the Bodoland Territorial Areas District. Option B: The 91st Amendment limited the size of the council of ministers and strengthened the anti-defection law. Option D: The 93rd Amendment enabled reservations for socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.

47. Q47Parliament and the state legislatures

    Among the following states, which state has the highest number of Rajya Sabha members?

    • aRajasthan
    • bMadhya Pradesh
    • cWest BengalAnswer
    • dAndhra Pradesh
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because West Bengal is allocated 16 seats in the Rajya Sabha, which is the highest among the given states as per the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India. West Bengal has 16 seats Andhra Pradesh has 11 seats Madhya Pradesh has 11 seats Rajasthan has 10 seats Option A: Rajasthan has only 10 seats in the Rajya Sabha. Option B: Madhya Pradesh has 11 seats in the Rajya Sabha. Option D: Andhra Pradesh has 11 seats in the Rajya Sabha.

48. Q48Parliament and the state legislatures

    In the parliamentary rules system, 'Zero Hour' means

    • aTime before the commencement of the House
    • bFirst time before the commencement of every House
    • cTime before Question Hour in the House
    • dTime after Question Hour in the HouseAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Zero Hour is the parliamentary interval that begins immediately after Question Hour ends and continues until the regular business of the day is taken up. Option A: Zero Hour takes place inside the scheduled sitting of the House, not before it begins. Option B: The first hour of parliamentary business is Question Hour, not Zero Hour. Option C: Question Hour precedes Zero Hour, meaning Zero Hour comes after Question Hour rather than before it.

49. Q49Parliament and the state legislatures

    What is 'Zero Hour' in the rules of Parliamentary procedure ?

    • aThe hour before sitting the House
    • bThe first hour of every sitting in the House
    • cThe hour before the Question Hour in the House
    • dThe hour after the Question Hour in the HouseAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Zero Hour begins immediately after Question Hour concludes and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up. Option A: The hour before the sitting of the House is not an official parliamentary proceeding hour. Option B: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is typically designated as Question Hour, not Zero Hour. Option C: Question Hour comes first, so no parliamentary hour exists before Question Hour within a sitting.

50. Q50Parliament and the state legislatures

    Among the following, which is not a main feature of a Money Bill?

    • aIt can only be introduced in the Lower House
    • bIt cannot be amended or rejected by the Upper House
    • cIt can only be introduced on the recommendation of the state
    • dThe President can reject it, approve it, or send it back for reconsiderationAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the President does not have the power to return a Money Bill to Parliament for reconsideration, though the President may give assent or withhold assent. Article 110: Defines a Money Bill. Article 111: Bars the President from returning a Money Bill for reconsideration. Option A: It is an actual feature since a Money Bill can originate only in the Lok Sabha. Option B: It is an actual feature because the Rajya Sabha can neither amend nor reject a Money Bill. Option C: It is an actual feature as prior recommendation of the President (or Governor at the state level) is mandatory for its introduction.

51. Q51Parliament and the state legislatures

    Which of the following is not a feature of the Money Bill ?

    • aIt can be introduced only in the Lower House
    • bIt cannot be amended or rejected by the Upper House
    • cIt can be introduced only on the recommendations of the President
    • dIt can be rejected , approved or returned for reconsideration by the PresidentAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under Article 111, the President can either give assent or withhold assent to a Money Bill, but cannot return it for reconsideration of the Houses. Option A: This is a genuine feature of a Money Bill under Article 109(1), which allows introduction solely in the Lok Sabha. Option B: This is an established feature under Article 109, as the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. Option C: This is an authentic feature under Article 117(1), requiring the prior recommendation of the President before introduction.

52. Q52Parliament and the state legislatures

    The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bills for a period of :

    • a15 days
    • b30 days
    • c14 daysAnswer
    • d20 days
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 109 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, with or without recommendations. Article 109 provides the special procedure for Money Bills. Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha must return the bill within 14 days. If not returned within 14 days, the bill is deemed passed by both houses. Option A: 15 days is not the time period specified under Article 109. Option B: 30 days is incorrect because the upper house gets only two weeks to consider financial legislation. Option D: 20 days is incorrect as the constitutional threshold is strictly 14 days.

53. Q53Parliament and the state legislatures

    Under which of the following parliamentary standing committees does the Estimates Committee fall?

    • aScrutiny Committees
    • bFinancial Affairs CommitteesAnswer
    • cHouse Affairs Committees
    • dInquiry Committees
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Estimates Committee, along with the Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings, forms the core triad of Financial Standing Committees in the Indian Parliament. Option A: These are committees such as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation and Committee on Government Assurances that scrutinize executive implementation. Option C: These are committees concerned with the internal organization and facilities of the House, such as the House Committee and Library Committee. Option D: These are committees like the Committee of Privileges and Committee on Petitions that inquire into specific matters and complaints.

54. Q54The judiciary

    Consider the following statements: A. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India. B. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

    • a(A) only
    • b(B) onlyAnswer
    • cBoth (A) and (B)
    • dNeither (A) nor (B)
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statement B is true while statement A is false; Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was a judge of the Supreme Court of India but never served as the Chief Justice of India. Option A: Statement A is incorrect because Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was never the Chief Justice of India. Option C: Both statements cannot be correct since Justice Krishna Iyer did not hold the office of Chief Justice of India. Option D: Statement B is historically accurate as he, alongside Justice P.N. Bhagwati, pioneered the PIL movement in India.

55. Q55The state government

    State Governor in India holds office during the pleasure of :

    • aThe Parliament
    • bThe Election Commission
    • cThe PresidentAnswer
    • dThe Prime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 156(1) of the Constitution explicitly provides that the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 155 provides that the Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under hand and seal. Article 156(1) provides that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. Option A: Parliament does not decide the removal or tenure of a State Governor through impeachment. Option B: The Election Commission oversees elections and has no role in the tenure of the Governor. Option D: While the President acts on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, constitutionally the office is held during the pleasure of the President.

56. Q56The state government

    Consider the following statements: The constitution of India provides that A. the legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State. B. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he / she is less than 25 years of age. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

    • a(A) only
    • b(B) onlyAnswer
    • cBoth (A) and (B)
    • dNeither (A) nor (B)
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statement B accurately reflects Article 173(b), which prescribes a minimum age of 25 years for qualification to the Legislative Assembly, whereas statement A is incorrect. Article 170(1) limits the Assembly strength to not more than 500 members, not 450 Article 170(1) sets the minimum strength at not less than 60 members Article 173(b) sets the minimum age at 25 years for the Legislative Assembly and 30 years for the Legislative Council Option A: (A) only is incorrect because statement A misstates the constitutional maximum limit as 450 instead of 500. Option C: Both (A) and (B) is incorrect because statement A is factually erroneous. Option D: Neither (A) nor (B) is incorrect because statement B is completely accurate.

57. Q57The state government

    Which Article of the Constitution provides special status to Jammu and Kashmir?

    • aArticle 365
    • bArticle 370Answer
    • cArticle 380
    • dArticle 390
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 370 provided temporary provisions that granted special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. Article 365 deals with the effect of failure to comply with Union directions Article 370 provides temporary provisions with respect to Jammu and Kashmir Article 380 was a repealed interim provision regarding the President Article 390 was a repealed interim provision regarding financial matters Option A: Article 365 relates to executive directions issued by the Union to states, not special status. Option C: Article 380 was a transitional provision for the interim President and has been repealed. Option D: Article 390 dealt with transitional financial provisions and has been repealed.

58. Q58Federalism and centre-state relations

    In whose regime Sarkaria Commission was appointed?

    • aRajiv Gandhi
    • bNehru
    • cIndira GandhiAnswer
    • dP.V.Narasimha Rao
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Sarkaria Commission was constituted in June 1983 during the premiership of Indira Gandhi. June 1983: Sarkaria Commission constituted under Indira Gandhi January 1988: Commission submitted its final report during Rajiv Gandhi's government Option A: Rajiv Gandhi received the final report in 1988, but the commission was not appointed under his regime. Option B: Jawaharlal Nehru's tenure ended in 1964, nearly two decades before the commission was formed. Option D: P.V. Narasimha Rao was Prime Minister between 1991 and 1996, well after the commission had already completed its work.

59. Q59Federalism and centre-state relations

    In which Indian State did President of India impose State Emergency twice in a period of 30 days?

    • aBihar
    • bKarnataka
    • cJammu & Kashmir
    • dHimachal PradeshAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

60. Q60Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The Right to Information Act of 2005 replaces the old Freedom of Information Act of

    • a2000
    • b2001
    • c2002Answer
    • d2003
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Right to Information Act, 2005 repealed and replaced the earlier Freedom of Information Act enacted in 2002. Freedom of Information Act enacted: 2002 Right to Information Act enacted: 2005 Option A: 2000 was the year the Information Technology Act was passed, not the Freedom of Information Act. Option B: 2001 is incorrect because no freedom of information statute was enacted in this year. Option D: 2003 was when the Freedom of Information Act received presidential assent in January, but the formal short title of the repealed statute is the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.

61. Q61Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The ex-officio Chairman of the Indian Planning Commission

    • aPresident
    • bPrime MinisterAnswer
    • cFinance Minister
    • dMinister of Home Affairs
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Prime Minister of India held the post of ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission from its inception until it was wound up. Option A: The President is the head of state and had no role in the Planning Commission. Option C: The Finance Minister was an ex-officio or nominated member, not the Chairman. Option D: The Minister of Home Affairs was a nominated member, not the Chairman.

62. Q62Parties, elections and representation

    Among the following, which was the second largest party in the Congress-led UPA government, within the UPA coalition?

    • aDMK
    • bNCP
    • cRJDAnswer
    • dJMM
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because during the formation of the first United Progressive Alliance government in 2004, the Rashtriya Janata Dal won 24 Lok Sabha seats, making it the largest coalition partner behind the Indian National Congress. Indian National Congress: 145 seats Rashtriya Janata Dal: 24 seats Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam: 16 seats Nationalist Congress Party: 9 seats Jharkhand Mukti Morcha: 5 seats Option A: DMK secured 16 seats in the 2004 elections, ranking behind RJD. Option B: NCP secured 9 seats in the 2004 elections. Option D: JMM secured only 5 seats in the 2004 elections.

63. Q63Parties, elections and representation

    The number of Rajya Sabha members elected on March 26, 2008

    • a65
    • b52
    • c62
    • d56Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Election Commission of India notified biennial elections to the Rajya Sabha to fill 56 vacant seats across 16 states, with the polling conducted on March 26, 2008. Option A: 65 is incorrect as the notification for the March 2008 biennial election cycle was issued for exactly 56 seats. Option B: 52 is incorrect because it does not correspond to the total number of vacancies contested in this election. Option C: 62 is incorrect because it overstates the official vacancy count scheduled for that poll.

64. Q64Parties, elections and representation

    Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency ?

    • aKangra
    • bLadakhAnswer
    • cKachchh
    • dBhilwara
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Ladakh is the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India by geographical area, spanning over 1.7 lakh square kilometres. Ladakh: Approximately 173,266 square kilometres Barmer: Approximately 71,601 square kilometres Kachchh: Approximately 45,652 square kilometres Option A: Kangra constituency in Himachal Pradesh covers a much smaller mountainous area than the vast trans-Himalayan expanse of Ladakh. Option C: Kachchh is the second largest Lok Sabha constituency by area, but it is less than one-third the size of Ladakh. Option D: Bhilwara in Rajasthan is a standard-sized constituency and is far smaller than Ladakh.

65. Q65Economic thought: the thinkers, the schools and the Nobel prize

    Who propounded the theory of surplus value?

    • aAdam Smith
    • bRicardo
    • cHegel
    • dKarl MarxAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Karl Marx systematically formulated the theory of surplus value in Das Kapital, arguing that the value of commodities is determined by socially necessary labour time and that the surplus created by workers beyond the cost of their labor power is appropriated by the capitalist as profit. Option A: Adam Smith originated classical cost theories of value and the concept of absolute advantage, but did not develop the theory of surplus value. Option B: David Ricardo formulated the labor theory of value and differential rent, providing foundational ideas that Marx later transformed into the theory of surplus value. Option C: Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel developed dialectical idealism in philosophy, which Marx reinterpreted into dialectical materialism rather than economic value theory.

66. Q66Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    In which year did Smt. Indira Gandhi implement the 20-Point Economic Programme?

    • a1974
    • b1975Answer
    • c1982
    • d1983
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced and implemented the 20-Point Economic Programme in July 1975 during the Emergency to boost production and establish social justice. Announcement of original 20-Point Programme: 1975 First restructuring of the programme: 1982 Second restructuring: 1986 Option A: 1974 was the inaugural year of the Fifth Five Year Plan, prior to the announcement of this programme. Option C: 1982 was the year the programme underwent its first major revision, not its initial launch. Option D: 1983 was during the implementation of the revised programme, not its introduction.

67. Q67Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    The first Chairman of the Planning Commission of India

    • aJawaharlal NehruAnswer
    • bLal Bahadur Shastri
    • cK.C. Pant
    • dG.L. Nanda
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission, making Jawaharlal Nehru its first Chairman upon its establishment in March 1950. Establishment of Planning Commission: 15 March 1950 First Chairman: Jawaharlal Nehru First Deputy Chairman: Gulzarilal Nanda Option B: Lal Bahadur Shastri became Chairman later, upon assuming the office of Prime Minister in 1964. Option C: K.C. Pant served as the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission much later, from 1999 to 2004. Option D: G.L. Nanda was the first Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission, not the Chairman.

68. Q68Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    According to the Approach Paper approved by the National Development Council, the highest priority during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan period was given to this:

    • aSustainable Technology
    • bAgricultureAnswer
    • cIndustries
    • dMines
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Eleventh Plan Approach Paper identified agriculture as the highest priority area to revive rural livelihoods and achieve inclusive growth through a targeted 4 percent growth rate. Targeted agricultural growth: 4.0 percent per year Option A: sustainable technology was an important issue but was not designated as the top sectoral priority. Option C: heavy industries were the central focus of the Second Plan, not the Eleventh Plan. Option D: mining played a subsidiary resource role and was never the topmost priority.

69. Q69Population, poverty and work

    The proportion of the working age population (15-64 years) in India

    • a56.3 %Answer
    • b62.9 %
    • c67.2 %
    • d71.2 %

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

70. Q70Population, poverty and work

    The program launched for poverty eradication in the era of reforms (after 1991)

    • aJawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
    • bPrime Minister's Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)Answer
    • cFood for Work Program (FWP)
    • dNational Rural Employment Program (NREP)
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana was launched in October 1993, making it the only scheme among the choices introduced after the 1991 economic reforms. Food for Work Program: launched in 1977 National Rural Employment Program: launched in October 1980 Jawahar Rozgar Yojana: launched in April 1989 Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana: launched on 2 October 1993 Option A: Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was launched prior to the 1991 reforms. Option C: Food for Work Program was launched during the fifth Five Year Plan before the 1991 reforms. Option D: National Rural Employment Program was launched in the early 1980s before economic liberalisation.

71. Q71Population, poverty and work

    For providing which of the following was the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) established in December 2005?

    • aProviding infrastructure and basic services in all metropolitan cities
    • bProviding infrastructure and basic services in all small cities
    • cProviding urban infrastructure and urban basic services in 60 cities with a population of one million or moreAnswer
    • dProviding urban infrastructure and urban basic services in all cities
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because JNNURM was launched in December 2005 with a clear focus on around 60-65 mission cities (comprising mega cities, million-plus population cities, and select state capitals or heritage cities) to upgrade their urban infrastructure and provide basic services to the urban poor. Option A: It excludes the restriction to the designated set of mission cities and omits other major designated cities. Option B: It incorrectly targets small cities, which were handled separately through the UIDSSMT and IHSDP sub-components rather than the primary JNNURM mission city framework. Option D: It falsely claims the mission covered all cities indiscriminately.

72. Q72Agriculture in the Indian economy

    The 'Kisan Credit Card' scheme was formulated by

    • aRBI
    • bGIC
    • cICICI
    • dNABARDAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was prepared and formulated by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in 1998 on the recommendations of the R. V. Gupta Committee. Formulating agency: NABARD Year of introduction: 1998 Committee: R. V. Gupta Committee Option A: Acts as the central monetary authority and regulator, but it did not prepare the model scheme. Option B: Is a public sector reinsurance company having no role in designing agricultural credit schemes. Option C: Is a private commercial bank, not the apex developmental agency that designed the national scheme.

73. Q73Money, banking and financial markets

    The method/index for measuring inflation growth in India

    • aConsumer Price Index for Rural Labourers
    • bConsumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers
    • cWholesale Price IndexAnswer
    • dConsumer Price Index

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

74. Q74The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

    Which of the following are the public sector undertakings of the Government of India ? A. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd. B. Dredging Corporation of India C. Educational Consultants of India Ltd. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

    • a(A) and (B) only
    • b(B) and (C) only
    • c(A) and (C) only
    • d(A), (B) and (C)Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all three entities listed are public sector enterprises under the administrative control of different ministries of the Government of India. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.: CPSE under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas Dredging Corporation of India: Public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways Educational Consultants of India Ltd.: CPSE under the Ministry of Education Option A: (A) and (B) only is incorrect because it wrongly omits EdCIL, which is a central public sector enterprise. Option B: (B) and (C) only is incorrect because it wrongly omits Balmer Lawrie, which is an established central public sector undertaking. Option C: (A) and (C) only is incorrect because it wrongly excludes Dredging Corporation of India from the public sector category.

75. Q75Public finance and the budget

    The largest tax base/source in India

    • aPersonal Income Tax
    • bCorporate Income Tax/Corporate TaxAnswer
    • cExcise Duties
    • dCustoms Duties
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because corporate income tax has historically been the largest contributor to the gross tax revenue of the Central Government. Option A: Personal income tax collections have historically remained lower than corporate tax receipts. Option C: Central excise duty applies to a narrow basket of manufactured goods and yields lower revenue than direct taxes. Option D: Customs duties on international trade account for a substantially smaller portion of total revenue than corporation tax.

76. Q76External sector and the world economy

    In India, investments raised through ADRs/GDRs fall under which of the following?

    • aForeign Direct InvestmentsAnswer
    • bForeign Institutional Investments
    • cForeign Equity Investments
    • dForeign Debts
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because under India's foreign exchange management regulations and Reserve Bank of India reporting norms, proceeds raised by Indian companies through American Depository Receipts and Global Depository Receipts are classified as Foreign Direct Investment. Option B: Foreign Institutional Investments comprise secondary market portfolio investments made directly by registered foreign funds, not equity issuances via depository receipts. Option C: Foreign Equity Investments is a broad descriptive category rather than the formal regulatory classification used by the RBI. Option D: ADRs and GDRs represent underlying equity shares of the issuing company, not foreign debt or borrowing.

77. Q77External sector and the world economy

    Which produces and exports the most natural rubber?

    • aIndia
    • bMalaysia
    • cMyanmar
    • dIndonesiaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because among the given options, Indonesia is the leading producer and exporter of natural rubber, ranking just behind Thailand globally. Option A: India consumes almost all of its domestic natural rubber production and imports additional supply to meet industrial needs. Option B: Malaysia was historically the global leader but has shifted plantation land toward oil palm, dropping behind Indonesia. Option C: Myanmar has a growing rubber sector but its output is far smaller than Indonesia's production.

78. Q78The Earth in the solar system

    The day when the Earth is closest to the Sun is

    • aPerihelionAnswer
    • bAphelion
    • cSummer Solstice
    • dWinter Solstice
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because perihelion is the specific point in Earth's annual elliptical orbit where it reaches the minimum distance from the Sun, usually occurring around January 3. Option B: Aphelion is the orbital point where Earth is farthest from the Sun, occurring around July 4. Option C: Summer Solstice is the day with the longest period of daylight caused by axial tilt, not the point of closest orbital approach. Option D: Winter Solstice is the day with the shortest period of daylight caused by axial tilt, not the point of closest orbital approach.

79. Q79The Earth in the solar system

    'Uttarayan' indicates

    • aThe period between December 23 and June 21Answer
    • bThe period between June 21 and December 22
    • cThe period between March 21 and December 22
    • dThe period between September 22 and December 22
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Uttarayan refers to the six-month northward apparent migration of the Sun on the celestial sphere, commencing immediately after the winter solstice in late December and culminating at the summer solstice in late June. Option B: The period from June 21 to December 22 represents Dakshinayan, the southward apparent movement of the Sun. Option C: March 21 marks the vernal equinox, not the initiation point of the Sun's northward movement. Option D: September 22 marks the autumnal equinox, which falls midway through Dakshinayan rather than defining Uttarayan.

80. Q80Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    The scale used to determine the hardness of a mineral?

    • aVernali Scale
    • bBeaufort's Scale
    • cMohs ScaleAnswer
    • dRossi-Forel Scale
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Mohs scale of mineral hardness evaluates the relative scratch resistance of minerals on an ordinal scale ranging from talc at 1 to diamond at 10. Option A: Vernali scale is not an authentic scientific scale used in geology or mineralogy. Option B: Beaufort scale is an empirical scale used to measure and classify wind speeds. Option D: Rossi-Forel scale is an early seismic intensity scale used to gauge the effects of earthquakes.