APPSC Group-I Prelims 2008

174 questions from the 2008 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

121. Q121SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     The main gas in Gobar gas is

     • aMethaneAnswer
     • bEthane
     • cChlorine
     • dPropane
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because gobar gas, produced by the anaerobic digestion of cow dung and organic biomass by methanogenic bacteria, consists predominantly of methane. Methane: 50 percent to 70 percent Carbon dioxide: 30 percent to 40 percent Traces: Hydrogen, hydrogen sulfide, and nitrogen Option B: Ethane is only present in trace quantities, if at all, in biogas. Option C: Chlorine is a halogen gas that is not generated during anaerobic decomposition. Option D: Propane is a major constituent of liquefied petroleum gas, not gobar gas.

122. Q122SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     The essential element for alkaloids is

     • aSulfur
     • bOxygen
     • cNitrogenAnswer
     • dPhosphorus
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because alkaloids are naturally occurring, plant-derived basic organic compounds whose defining characteristic is the presence of at least one nitrogen atom, typically in a heterocyclic ring. Option A: Sulfur is not a defining or essential element in the structure of alkaloids. Option B: Oxygen is present in many alkaloids, but it is not strictly required, as several alkaloids like nicotine and coniine lack oxygen entirely. Option D: Phosphorus is an essential constituent of nucleic acids and phospholipids, not a characteristic element of alkaloids.

123. Q123SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Free expansion method

     • aExpansion against constant pressure
     • bIsothermal free expansion
     • cIsentropic free expansion
     • dExpansion of vacuumAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because in thermodynamics, free expansion is an irreversible process in which a gas expands into an evacuated chamber or vacuum against zero opposing external pressure. Option A: Free expansion occurs against zero external pressure, not against a constant non-zero opposing pressure. Option B: Free expansion of a real gas generally results in temperature changes and is not inherently an isothermal process. Option C: Free expansion is an irreversible process that generates entropy, so it cannot be isentropic.

124. Q124SCHOOL PHYSICS

     The rays that intensely blacken a photographic plate are

     • aInfrared rays
     • bX-raysAnswer
     • cVisible rays
     • dUltraviolet rays
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because X-rays have high energy and deep penetrating power, producing dense ionization throughout the silver halide emulsion of a photographic plate, which causes intense blackening upon development. Option A: Infrared rays have low photon energy and do not trigger significant photochemical reduction on standard plates. Option C: Visible light has far less energy per photon than X-rays and acts only superficially on the plate. Option D: Ultraviolet rays affect photographic emulsions, but X-rays penetrate deeply through the full thickness of the layer, causing far more intense exposure.

125. Q125SCHOOL PHYSICS

     'Decibel' is the unit of

     • aElectricity
     • bLight
     • cHeat
     • dSoundAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the decibel is a logarithmic unit used to express the relative intensity, power, or pressure level of sound relative to a standard reference threshold. Option A: Electrical quantities are measured in units such as amperes, volts, ohms, or coulombs. Option B: Light levels are measured using photometric units such as candela, lumen, or lux. Option C: Heat energy is measured in joules or calories.

126. Q126SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Angstrom is a

     • aunit that indicates time
     • bunit that indicates lengthAnswer
     • cunit that indicates weight
     • dtype of temperature scale
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Angstrom is a metric unit of length equal to 10 raised to the power of minus 10 metres, commonly used to express atomic scales and wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation. 1 Angstrom = 10^-10 metres 1 Angstrom = 0.1 nanometres Option A: Units of time include seconds, minutes, and hours, whereas Angstrom measures distance. Option C: Units of weight or mass include grams, kilograms, and pounds. Option D: Scales of temperature include Celsius, Kelvin, and Fahrenheit.

127. Q127SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Light-year is related to

     • aEnergy
     • bSpeed
     • cIntensity
     • dDistanceAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because a light-year is the astronomical unit of distance that light travels in one Julian year in vacuum. 1 light-year = approximately 9.46 trillion kilometres Option A: Energy is measured in joules or ergs, not light-years. Option B: Speed is the rate of change of position measured in metres per second, whereas light-year measures total length. Option C: Intensity is measured in candela or watts per square metre, not distance units.

128. Q128SCHOOL PHYSICS

     The unit of measurement for pressure is

     • aunit of mass of volume
     • bDegrees
     • cPascalAnswer
     • dMillimeter
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the pascal is the SI derived unit of pressure, defined as one newton of force applied perpendicularly per square metre of area. Pressure = Force / Area = N / m^2 = Pascal Option A: describes density, which is mass per unit volume, not pressure. Option B: measures plane angles or temperature rather than force per unit area. Option D: measures length; while millimetres of mercury is a pressure unit, millimetre alone is merely a unit of distance.

129. Q129Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     If the proposition 'All Indians are not Europeans' is true, which of the following propositions can be explained as doubtful? i. All Indians are Europeans ii. Some Indians are Europeans iii. Some Indians are not Europeans. Select the correct answer.

     • aNone
     • bi and ii
     • cii onlyAnswer
     • diii only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because 'All Indians are not Europeans' is logically interpreted as the particular negative proposition 'Some Indians are not Europeans' (O-type). If the O proposition is true, its sub-contrary proposition 'Some Indians are Europeans' (I-type) is undetermined or doubtful. i. 'All Indians are Europeans' (A proposition) is the contradictory of O, so it is definitely false, not doubtful. ii. 'Some Indians are Europeans' (I proposition) is sub-contrary to O, meaning its truth value remains doubtful when O is true. iii. 'Some Indians are not Europeans' (O proposition) is identical in meaning to the premise, so it is definitely true. Option A: It is incorrect because proposition ii cannot be determined as strictly true or false, making it doubtful. Option B: It is incorrect because proposition i is conclusively false by contradiction. Option D: It is incorrect because proposition iii is definitely true rather than doubtful.

130. Q130Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Statement : 'Morning walk is good for health'. Explanations : i. All healthy people go for a morning walk. ii. Evening walks are harmful.

     • aBoth explanations are not true.Answer
     • bExplanation (i) is true.
     • cExplanation (ii) is true.
     • dExplanation (i) and (ii) are true.
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because praising the benefits of a morning walk does not imply that only morning walkers are healthy, nor does it imply anything negative about walks taken at other times of the day. Option B: Morning walk being good does not mean it is an exclusive condition for health, so not all healthy people must walk in the morning. Option C: Promoting morning walks provides zero logical basis or evidence regarding the effects of evening walks. Option D: Both explanations extrapolate unstated, unwarranted extremes from a simple positive statement.

131. Q131Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Statement : 'The best way to get out of a problem is to solve it'. Explanations : i. If you don't face any problem, your life will become dull. ii. To escape from a problem, you must always have solutions.

     • aExplanation (i) is true.
     • bExplanation (ii) is true.Answer
     • cExplanation (i) and (ii) are true.
     • dBoth explanations are not true.
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because explanation (ii) directly captures the core meaning of the statement, indicating that overcoming an issue requires having and applying solutions. Option A: It is incorrect because the statement does not suggest that life without problems becomes dull, making explanation (i) an irrelevant assumption. Option C: It is incorrect because explanation (i) is completely outside the scope of the original statement. Option D: It is incorrect because explanation (ii) logically and accurately explains the given statement.

132. Q132Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Statement: 'India's economic situation is criminal if it goes out of control.' Explanations: i. To improve India's economic situation, trees must be protected. ii. To improve India's economic situation, it is enough to preserve controls.

     • aExplanation (i) is trueAnswer
     • bExplanation (ii) is true
     • cExplanation (i) and (ii) are true
     • dBoth explanations are not true

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

133. Q133Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Statement: a. Russians are revolutionaries. b. Anarchists are revolutionaries. Explanation: i. Russian anarchists. ii. Therefore, Russians are anarchists.

     • aExplanation (i) is true
     • bExplanation (ii) is true
     • cExplanation (i) and (ii) are true
     • dBoth explanations are not trueAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because sharing a common predicate does not establish an identity or subset relationship between the two distinct subject classes, committing the fallacy of the undistributed middle. Option A: It is incorrect because the premises do not establish that any Russians are anarchists. Option B: It is incorrect because saying two groups are both revolutionaries does not imply one group belongs to the other. Option C: It is incorrect because neither conclusion is logically valid from the given premises.

134. Q134Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Statement: a. Doctors and lawyers are professionals. b. Professionals and administrators/executives are respectable. Explanation: i. Who are respectable means professionals and administrators/executives. ii. Professionals and administrators/executives are respectable.

     • aExplanation (i) is true
     • bExplanation (ii) is trueAnswer
     • cExplanation (i) and (ii) are true
     • dBoth explanations are not true
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Explanation ii is a direct restatement of statement b and is therefore logically true, whereas Explanation i incorrectly converts the premise into a definition, improperly asserting that only professionals and administrators or executives are respectable. Option A: Explanation i falsely restricts the universal category of respectable persons to only these two groups. Option C: it wrongly accepts Explanation i, which commits an erroneous biconditional conversion of the original statement. Option D: it overlooks that Explanation ii is explicitly given as a true statement in the premise.

135. Q135Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Statement: a. All sodium salts are water-soluble substances. b. All soaps contain sodium salts. Explanation: i. All soaps are water-soluble substances. ii. Water-soluble substances are sodium salt substances.

     • aExplanation (i) is trueAnswer
     • bExplanation (ii) is true
     • cExplanation (i) and (ii) are true
     • dBoth explanations are not true
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because combining the premises that all soaps contain sodium salts and all sodium salts are water-soluble leads to the valid conclusion that all soaps are water-soluble substances. Option B: It incorrectly validates explanation ii, which commits the fallacy of illicit conversion by assuming all water-soluble substances are sodium salts. Option C: It wrongly endorses explanation ii along with explanation i. Option D: It fails to recognize the valid syllogistic deduction in explanation i.

136. Q136Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Statement: a. All lords advocate national health insurance. b. Some administrators also advocate national health insurance. Explanation: i. Some administrators are lords. ii. Those who advocate national health insurance are lord administrators.

     • aExplanation (i) is true
     • bExplanation (ii) is true
     • cExplanation (i) and (ii) are true
     • dBoth explanations are not trueAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because knowing that all lords advocate national health insurance and some administrators also advocate it establishes no necessary overlap between administrators and lords, nor does it mean insurance advocates consist only of lord administrators. Option A: It assumes an overlap between administrators and lords that is neither stated nor logically necessitated by the premises. Option B: It mistakenly assumes that everyone who advocates national health insurance must be a combined lord administrator. Option C: It wrongly endorses both invalid explanations.

137. Q137Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G take exams sequentially/in a series, and no two get equal marks. G always scored more marks than A. A always scored more marks than B. Each time C scores more marks, E scores less marks, or alternatively D scores more marks and F or B scores less marks. If D scored the second rank, which of the following is true?

     • aA scores more marks than G
     • bG scores more marks than DAnswer
     • cA scores more marks than C
     • dF scores more marks than G
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because D is given the second rank, and since G always scores higher than A and A always scores higher than B, G must occupy the first rank to allow D to hold second rank while keeping G above at least two other people. Option A: contradicts the explicit condition that G always scores more marks than A. Option C: cannot be deduced as the relationship between A and C is conditional and not fixed. Option D: cannot be established as F does not have a confirmed standing above G.

138. Q138Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     In six towns 1. Dhulia is larger than Amalner 2. Srirampur is larger than Nashik 3. Jalgaon, though not larger than Srirampur, is larger than Amalner 4. Amalner is smaller than Nashik, but larger than Manmad

     • aAmalner
     • bNashik
     • cSrirampur
     • dManmadAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

139. Q139Series, analogy and odd man out

     Find the missing letters in the following series DIL, GLO, JOR, ?

     • aXAD
     • bGJM
     • cMRUAnswer
     • dPSV
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because each letter in the succeeding triplet is generated by adding 3 to the alphabetical position of the corresponding letter in the preceding triplet. First letter: D(4) plus 3 is G(7), plus 3 is J(10), plus 3 is M(13) Second letter: I(9) plus 3 is L(12), plus 3 is O(15), plus 3 is R(18) Third letter: L(12) plus 3 is O(15), plus 3 is R(18), plus 3 is U(21) Resulting triplet: MRU Option A: XAD begins with X instead of M, which completely breaks the plus 3 pattern. Option B: GJM repeats letters from the earlier terms instead of continuing the series forward. Option D: PSV advances each letter by six positions rather than the required three.

140. Q140Coding, decoding and relations

     If 25 + 13 = 32 and 70 + 26 = 30, then 26 + 13 = ?

     • a20
     • b24Answer
     • c36
     • d45

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

141. Q141Coding, decoding and relations

     Q is R's brother, P is Q's son, T is S's brother, S is R's daughter. Then who are P's cousins?

     • aR and Q
     • bR and T
     • cS and TAnswer
     • dS and Q
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Q and R are siblings. P is Q's son, while S and T are children of R. Therefore, S and T are the children of P's uncle or aunt, making them P's cousins. Option A: R is P's uncle or aunt and Q is P's father, not cousins. Option B: R belongs to the parental generation, not P's cousin. Option D: Q is P's direct father, not his cousin.

142. Q142Coding, decoding and relations

     There are six members A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. A and B are a married couple, of whom A is female. D is the only daughter of C and A's sister. E, D's brother, is F's son-in-law and his wife died a long time ago. What is the relationship between E and F (what is he to F)?

     • aUncle
     • bCousin
     • cGrandsonAnswer
     • dGrandfather

     Explanation coming soon.

143. Q143Coding, decoding and relations

     If A is to the South of B and C is to the East of B, in which direction is A from C?

     • aNortheast (North - East direction)
     • bNorthwest (North - West direction)
     • cSoutheast (South - East direction)
     • dSouthwest (South - West direction)Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Point A lies directly South of B while Point C lies directly East of B, placing A to the South and West relative to C. Relative to B at the origin (0, 0), point A is at (0, -y) and point C is at (x, 0). The vector from C to A points in the negative x (West) and negative y (South) directions, which defines the Southwest direction. Option A: Northeast is the opposite direction, corresponding to the position of C relative to A. Option B: Northwest incorrectly reverses the vertical position of A relative to C. Option C: Southeast incorrectly places A to the East rather than to the West of C.

144. Q144Shapes, figures and Venn diagrams

     A single die in three positions is given below. Which number will be opposite to the number two?

     
     • a1
     • b3
     • c4Answer
     • d5

     Explanation coming soon.

145. Q145Clocks, calendars and ages

     If the third Monday of a month is the 17th, which of the following days will occur 5 times in that month?

     • aTuesday
     • bThursday
     • cFriday
     • dSaturdayAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because if the third Monday is the 17th, the first day of the month is a Saturday, ensuring that Saturday appears five times regardless of whether the month has 29, 30, or 31 days. Third Monday = 17th Second Monday = 10th First Monday = 3rd 1st of the month = Saturday Saturdays fall on the 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, and 29th Option A: Tuesday falls on dates 4, 11, 18, and 25, occurring only four times. Option B: Thursday falls on dates 6, 13, 20, and 27, occurring only four times. Option C: Friday falls on dates 7, 14, 21, and 28, occurring only four times.

146. Q146Number system and basic operations

     Some students arranged a picnic. The budget is Rs. 500. Due to 5 students not going to the picnic, the expenditure per person increased by Rs. 5. Then, what is the number of students who went to the picnic?

     • a15
     • b20Answer
     • c25
     • d30
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because 20 students attending means initially 25 planned to go, and the per-head cost increased from Rs. 20 to Rs. 25. Let n be the number of students who went. The original number of students was n + 5. Original cost per student: 500 / (n + 5). Actual cost per student: 500 / n. Difference: 500/n - 500/(n + 5) = 5. For n = 20: 500/20 - 500/25 = 25 - 20 = 5, which satisfies the condition. Option A: 15 gives 500/15 - 500/20 = 33.33 - 25 = 8.33, not 5. Option C: 25 represents the initial number of students who planned to go, not those who actually went. Option D: 30 gives a fractional per-head cost that does not result in a difference of 5.

147. Q147Mensuration and geometry

     What is the ratio of the volumes between a cylinder and a cone having equal height and base diameter?

     • a3 : 1Answer
     • b1 : 2
     • c1 : 4
     • d2 : 1
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the volume of a cylinder is three times the volume of a cone sharing the same base and height. Volume of cylinder = πr²h Volume of cone = (1/3)πr²h Ratio = πr²h : (1/3)πr²h = 3 : 1 Option B: 1 : 2 incorrectly assumes the cone volume is half of the cylinder volume. Option C: 1 : 4 confuses the relation with a sphere-related proportion. Option D: 2 : 1 assumes the cylinder volume is only twice that of the cone.

148. Q148People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who is the loader of the first Arctic expedition launched in August, 2007:

     • aAnousheh Ansari
     • bGregory Oisen
     • cRasik RavindraAnswer
     • dDhruv Sen
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because veteran polar scientist Rasik Ravindra led India's maiden scientific expedition to the Arctic, which was flagged off in August 2007. Option A: Anousheh Ansari is an Iranian-American engineer and commercial astronaut, having no connection to India's polar expeditions. Option B: Gregory Olsen is an American scientist and entrepreneur who flew to space as a space tourist in 2005. Option D: Dhruv Sen Singh was one of the participating scientists on the expedition, but he was not the team leader.

149. Q149People: appointments, honours and passings

     President of Turkey

     • aAbdullah Gül
     • bGhulam Mustafa
     • cMuhammad Abdullah
     • dTayyip ErdoğanAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Recep Tayyip Erdogan has served as the President of Turkey since August 2014, having previously served as the country's Prime Minister from 2003 to 2014. Option A: Abdullah Gul preceded Erdogan and served as the President of Turkey from 2007 to 2014. Option B: Ghulam Mustafa is not a past or present Turkish head of state. Option C: Muhammad Abdullah has never held the office of the President of Turkey.

150. Q150People: appointments, honours and passings

     The newly elected President of Cuba is

     • aBarista
     • bFidel Castro
     • cRaul CastroAnswer
     • dJosé Ramón Machado
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Raul Castro was officially elected by the National Assembly as the President of the Council of State and President of the Council of Ministers of Cuba in February 2008, formally succeeding his brother Fidel Castro. Option A: Fulgencio Batista was the former dictator of Cuba who was overthrown during the Cuban Revolution in 1959. Option B: Fidel Castro was the long-time leader of Cuba who stepped down in February 2008 due to health issues. Option D: Jose Ramon Machado Ventura was elected as the First Vice President of Cuba under Raul Castro, not the President.

151. Q151People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who is the new Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?

     • aV.C. Kaul
     • bVinod RaiAnswer
     • cAhluwalia
     • dSamal
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Vinod Rai served as the 11th Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India from 2008 to 2013, which is the historical context of this question. Option A: V.C. Kaul is incorrect as he never served as the CAG of India. Option C: Ahluwalia refers to Montek Singh Ahluwalia, who served as the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission. Option D: Samal is an incorrect name that has no association with the office of the CAG.

152. Q152People: appointments, honours and passings

     The first Global Award for promoting awareness of Global Warming has been conferred in 2007 on:

     • aShasi Tharoor
     • bNelson Mandela
     • cNoam Chomsky
     • dAl GoreAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because former US Vice President Al Gore received major international recognition in 2007, including the Nobel Peace Prize and inaugural environmental honors, for his advocacy and awareness campaign on climate change. Option A: Shashi Tharoor is an author, diplomat, and politician known for international affairs, not for pioneering global warming advocacy awards in 2007. Option B: Nelson Mandela was celebrated for his anti-apartheid movement and human rights work, not for global warming awareness. Option C: Noam Chomsky is a renowned linguist and political critic, not the recipient of this climate awareness award in 2007.

153. Q153People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who received the first World Prize in 2007 for raising awareness on 'Global Warming'?

     • aShashi Tharoor
     • bNelson Mandela
     • cNoam Chomsky
     • dAl GoreAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because former US Vice President Al Gore received global acclaim, including the 2007 Nobel Peace Prize, for his leadership and documentary campaign raising worldwide awareness on global warming. Option A: Shashi Tharoor is an Indian author and diplomat who did not receive an international prize for climate change awareness in 2007. Option B: Nelson Mandela was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1993 for ending apartheid, not an environmental award in 2007. Option C: Noam Chomsky is an American linguist and political theorist who was not the recipient of this recognition.

154. Q154People: appointments, honours and passings

     Which of the following films won the Best Film Award at the Eighth UFA Awards 2007?

     • aKrrish
     • bRang De BasantiAnswer
     • cGandhi My Father
     • dKabhi Alvida Na Kehna
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Rang De Basanti, directed by Rakeysh Omprakash Mehra, won the Best Movie award at the 8th International Indian Film Academy (IIFA) Awards held in Yorkshire in 2007. Option A: Krrish won several technical and acting awards at the ceremony, but not Best Film. Option C: Gandhi My Father was released later in 2007 and was not awarded Best Film at the 8th IIFA Awards. Option D: Kabhi Alvida Na Kehna was nominated for multiple categories at the 8th IIFA Awards but lost the Best Film award to Rang De Basanti.

155. Q155People: appointments, honours and passings

     Which film received the Best Film award at the 8th IIFA Awards 2007?

     • aKrrish
     • bRang De BasantiAnswer
     • cGandhi My Father
     • dKabhi Alvida Naa Kehna
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Rakeysh Omprakash Mehra's historical drama Rang De Basanti won the Best Film trophy at the 8th International Indian Film Academy Awards held in Yorkshire in 2007. Option A: Krrish won several major honours including Best Actor at the 8th IIFA, but lost Best Film to Rang De Basanti. Option C: Gandhi My Father was released later in 2007 and was not awarded Best Film at the 8th IIFA ceremony. Option D: Kabhi Alvida Naa Kehna received multiple acting and music nominations at the ceremony but did not win Best Film.

156. Q156People: appointments, honours and passings

     The first Indian to receive an Oscar award is

     • aBhanu AthaiyaAnswer
     • bMrinal Sen
     • cDilip Roy
     • dChetan Anand
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because costume designer Bhanu Athaiya became the first Indian to win an Oscar when she won the Academy Award for Best Costume Design for the film Gandhi in 1983. Option B: Mrinal Sen was a pioneer of the parallel cinema movement in India but never received an Oscar. Option C: Dilip Roy was a noted musician and writer who did not receive an Academy Award. Option D: Chetan Anand was a celebrated director who won the Grand Prix at Cannes in 1946 but never received an Oscar.

157. Q157Sports

     The host city for the 2012 Olympics is

     • aNew Delhi
     • bLondonAnswer
     • cAthens
     • dLisbon
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because London was selected by the International Olympic Committee and hosted the Games of the XXX Olympiad in the summer of 2012. Option A: New Delhi hosted the Commonwealth Games in 2010, not the Olympic Games. Option C: Athens hosted the Summer Olympics in 2004, not 2012. Option D: Lisbon has never hosted the Olympic Games.

158. Q158Sports

     India won the Commonwealth Bank ODI Tri-series against Australia on March 4, 2008 by

     • a6 runs
     • b7 runs
     • c8 runs
     • d9 runsAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because India defeated Australia by 9 runs in the second final of the Commonwealth Bank Series at the Gabba, Brisbane, on March 4, 2008, to win the best-of-three finals 2-0. India first innings score: 258 runs for 9 wickets in 50 overs Australia second innings score: 249 runs all out in 49.4 overs Margin of victory: 9 runs Option A: 6 runs is incorrect because Australia fell short of India's total by 9 runs. Option B: 7 runs is incorrect because the difference between 258 and 249 is 9 runs. Option C: 8 runs is incorrect because Australia was bowled out 9 runs behind India's total.

159. Q159Sports

     The winner of the King's Cup Boxing Championship 2007 is

     • aCubaAnswer
     • bMexico
     • cIndia
     • dThailand

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

160. Q160Events, summits and observances

     The Indo-Vietnam Friendship Festival, 2007 was held at:

     • aKolkataAnswer
     • bHyderabad
     • cNew Delhi
     • dBangalore
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Indo-Vietnam Friendship Festival commemorating diplomatic and cultural ties in 2007 was organized in Kolkata, West Bengal. Option B: Hyderabad was not the chosen city for the 2007 festival. Option C: New Delhi was not the venue of this friendship festival. Option D: Bangalore did not host the Indo-Vietnam Friendship Festival in 2007.