APPSC Group-I Prelims 2012

135 questions from the 2012 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

  1. Q1Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

    The measuring scale found at an Indus site is at

    • aHarappa
    • bMohenjodaro
    • cKot Diji
    • dLothalAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because an ivory measuring scale with precise linear calibrations was discovered during excavations at the port city of Lothal in Gujarat. Option A: Harappa yielded a cast bronze rod with linear markings rather than the calibrated ivory scale. Option B: Mohenjodaro yielded a fragment of a shell scale rather than the well-known ivory measuring scale. Option C: Kot Diji is a pre-Harappan and mature Harappan site known for early pottery and citadel architecture, without any discovered measuring scale.

  2. Q2Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

    Marriage by purchase of bride was known as

    • aAsaraAnswer
    • bPaisacha
    • cPrajapatya
    • dRakshasa
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because Asura marriage (spelled Asara here) is one of the eight traditional forms of Hindu marriage in which the groom receives the bride after paying a price to her father or kinsmen. Option B: Paisacha refers to the marriage or union achieved by seducing or violating an unconscious, intoxicated, or sleeping woman. Option C: Prajapatya is the form of marriage where the father gives away his daughter with blessings without demanding any bride price. Option D: Rakshasa is marriage by capture, where the bride is forcibly taken away after fighting her guardians.

  3. Q3Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

    Buddha delivered his first sermon at

    • aKapilavastu
    • bSanchi
    • cSarnathAnswer
    • dRajgriha
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because Gautama Buddha set the Wheel of Law in motion by delivering his first sermon, the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta, at the Deer Park in Sarnath near Varanasi. Option A: Kapilavastu is the Sakya capital where Siddhartha spent his early life, not where he preached his first sermon. Option B: Sanchi is an important Buddhist stupa site established under Emperor Ashoka, not the location of Buddha's first sermon. Option D: Rajgriha was the capital of Magadha where Buddha spent several rainy season retreats, not the site of his first sermon.

  4. Q4Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

    Who propounded Sunyavada?

    • aAsvaghosha
    • bNagarjunaAnswer
    • cSomadeva Suri
    • dKunda Kunda Acharya
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Acharya Nagarjuna was the foremost philosopher who systematized Sunyavada, or the Madhyamaka school of emptiness, in his foundational work Mula-madhyamaka-karika. Option A: Asvaghosha was a celebrated Buddhist poet and scholar who authored Buddhacharita and Saundarananda, not the propounder of Sunyavada. Option C: Somadeva Suri was a prominent tenth-century Jain scholar who authored Nitivakyamrita and Yasastilaka-champu. Option D: Kunda Kunda Acharya was a renowned Digambara Jain philosopher who composed Samayasara and Pravachanasara.

  5. Q5The Mauryan Empire

    Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

    • aGautami Balashri - Nashik Inscription
    • bKharavela - Hatigumpha Inscription
    • cRudradaman - Nanaghat InscriptionAnswer
    • dAshoka - Maski Inscription
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Nanaghat Inscription was issued by Queen Naganika of the Satavahana dynasty, whereas Rudradaman is known for the Junagadh rock inscription. Option A: Gautami Balashri - Nashik Inscription is correctly matched as she eulogized her son Gautamiputra Satakarni in this record. Option B: Kharavela - Hatigumpha Inscription is correctly matched because it describes the military campaigns and deeds of King Kharavela of Kalinga. Option D: Ashoka - Maski Inscription is correctly matched because this inscription explicitly names the ruler as Devanampriya Asoka.

  6. Q6The Mauryan Empire

    ‘Hydaspes’ is the Greek name of which Indian river?

    • aRavi
    • bSutlej
    • cJhelumAnswer
    • dChenab
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the ancient Greeks referred to the Jhelum river as the Hydaspes, most famously known for the Battle of the Hydaspes fought between Alexander the Great and King Porus in 326 BC. Option A: Ravi was known to the ancient Greeks as Hydraotes. Option B: Sutlej was referred to in ancient Greek accounts as Zaradros or Hesidros. Option D: Chenab was called Acesines by the Greeks.

  7. Q7Gupta and post-Gupta India

    Siladitya was the title of

    • aAsoka
    • bBimbisara
    • cSamudragupta
    • dHarshavardhanaAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Harshavardhana adopted the regal title Siladitya upon ascending the throne of Kannauj, as attested in his inscriptions and Xuanzang's travelogues. Option A: Asoka assumed the imperial epithets Devanampiya and Piyadassi. Option B: Bimbisara held the title Seniya. Option C: Samudragupta was known by titles such as Kaviraja and Parakramanka.

  8. Q8Early medieval South Indian dynasties

    Ghatika was a settlement of

    • aMerchants
    • bBrahmin scholarsAnswer
    • cJain monks
    • dArtisans
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because a ghatika was an elite institution of higher learning composed of a learned assembly of Brahmin scholars who engaged in Vedic and philosophical disputation and teaching. Option A: Merchant guilds or settlements were known as Nagaram, Manigramam, or Ayyavole, not Ghatika. Option C: Settlements or monastic institutions of Jain monks were known as Pallis or Basadis. Option D: Guilds or settlements of artisans were called Kammalar or Shrenis, not Ghatikas.

  9. Q9Early medieval South Indian dynasties

    “Mattavilasa Prahasanam” was composed by

    • aRamanujacharya
    • bMahendra VarmanAnswer
    • cNarasimha Varman
    • dDandi
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Mahendravarman I, the Pallava king, was an accomplished playwright and scholar who composed the celebrated Sanskrit satirical play Mattavilasa Prahasanam. Option A: Ramanujacharya was an eleventh-century philosopher and proponent of Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, not a seventh-century playwright. Option C: Narasimha Varman was primarily known as a military conqueror who defeated the Western Chalukyas, not as the author of this farce. Option D: Dandi was a later court poet at Kanchi who authored Dashakumaracharita, not Mattavilasa Prahasanam.

  10. Q10The Delhi Sultanate

    The rate of land tax levied by Shershah was

    • a1/2 of produce
    • b1/4 of produce
    • c1/3 of produceAnswer
    • d1/5 of produce
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because Sher Shah Suri set the state revenue demand uniformly at one-third of the average agricultural produce after measuring and grading the cultivable soil. Good, middling, and bad yields were averaged to fix the produce State demand was fixed at one-third of this average yield Tax could be paid either in cash or in kind, with cash preferred Option A: 1/2 of produce was the severe revenue rate established by Alauddin Khalji. Option B: 1/4 of produce was collected in certain exceptional provinces during later Mughal rule, but not under Sher Shah. Option D: 1/5 of produce was lower than the standard rate imposed by the Suri administration.

  11. Q11The Delhi Sultanate

    'Khama' is the state's financial resource from

    • aLand tax paid by Hindus
    • bLand tax paid by Muslims
    • cTrade tax paid by Muslim merchants
    • dState's share of 1/5th of the war bootyAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Khams in the Delhi Sultanate and Islamic jurisprudence refers to the state's rightful one-fifth share derived from the spoils of war and discovered treasures. Option A: Land revenue collected from non-Muslim cultivators was known as Kharaj. Option B: Land tax levied on land owned by Muslim proprietors was called Ushr. Option C: Religious tax or trade-related levy paid exclusively by Muslims was termed Zakat.

  12. Q12Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    The Bahmani kingdom was founded in

    • a1325
    • b1336
    • c1345
    • d1347Answer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Bahmani Sultanate was established in 1347 in the Deccan by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah after rebelling against the Delhi Sultanate. 1325: Accession of Muhammad bin Tughlaq 1336: Foundation of the Vijayanagara Empire 1345: Outbreak of rebellion by the Deccan nobles 1347: Establishment of the Bahmani kingdom Option A: 1325 marks the accession of Muhammad bin Tughlaq in Delhi. Option B: 1336 marks the founding of the Vijayanagara Empire by Harihara and Bukka. Option C: 1345 marks the initial revolt of the Deccan amirs at Daulatabad, not the formal establishment of the Bahmani kingdom.

  13. Q13Bhakti and Sufi movements

    The school of philosophy taught by Sankaracharya is

    • aDvaita
    • bAdvaitaAnswer
    • cVasishtadvaita
    • dDvaitadvaita
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Adi Sankaracharya expounded the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta, which asserts radical non-dualism where the individual soul (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman) are identical. Option A: Incorrect because Dvaita (dualism) was founded much later by Madhvacharya. Option C: Incorrect because Visishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism) was systematized by Ramanujacharya. Option D: Incorrect because Dvaitadvaita (dualistic non-dualism) was formulated by Nimbarkacharya.

  14. Q14Shivaji and the Marathas

    Spiritual guru of Shivaji

    • aTukaram
    • bEknath
    • cNamdev
    • dRamdasAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Samarth Ramdas, the author of the philosophical work Dasbodh, is traditionally acknowledged as the spiritual guide and guru of Chhatrapati Shivaji. Option A: Tukaram was a revered contemporary Varkari saint whose devotional poetry deeply inspired Shivaji, but he was not his formal spiritual preceptor. Option B: Eknath lived during the sixteenth century, well before Shivaji's reign. Option C: Namdev was a prominent Varkari poet-saint who flourished in the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries.

  15. Q15Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Where was the first English factory established in Bengal?

    • aTamralipti
    • bHooghlyAnswer
    • cChittagong
    • dCalcutta
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the English East India Company established their first factory in Bengal at Hooghly in 1651, following permission granted by Sultan Shuja. Option A: Tamralipti was an ancient port city of Bengal that had declined centuries before the arrival of the English Company. Option C: Chittagong was a major port controlled historically by the rulers of Arakan and the Mughals, not the site of the first English factory in Bengal. Option D: Calcutta was settled later around 1690, decades after the Hooghly factory had been operational.

  16. Q16British rule: administration, economy and society

    The Viceroy who established the Department of Archaeology:

    • aMayo
    • bRipon
    • cCanning
    • dCurzonAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Lord Curzon formally reorganized the Archaeological Survey of India under Director General John Marshall in 1902 and passed the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act in 1904. Option A: Lord Mayo initiated financial decentralization and the first imperial census, not the Department of Archaeology. Option B: Lord Ripon is known for the First Factory Act and local self-government reforms, not archaeological administration. Option C: Lord Canning served immediately after the 1857 revolt, focusing on administrative reorganization under the Crown.

  17. Q17Socio-religious reform movements

    The place where The Theosophical Society was first established

    • aNew YorkAnswer
    • bLondon
    • cParis
    • dAdyar
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Theosophical Society was first established in New York City, United States, in November 1875 by Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel H.S. Olcott. Year of founding: 1875 Place of founding: New York City Headquarters shifted to Adyar: 1882 Option B: London served as an important European centre of the movement later, but it was not the founding location. Option C: Paris hosted national branches of the society later, but had no role in its initial establishment. Option D: Adyar, near Madras, became the international headquarters in 1882, seven years after the society was founded in New York.

  18. Q18Socio-religious reform movements

    Who started the Shuddhi movement?

    • aKeshab Chandra Sen
    • bDayanand SaraswatiAnswer
    • cAtmaram Pandurang
    • dVivekananda
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Swami Dayanand Saraswati and his organisation, the Arya Samaj, initiated the Shuddhi movement to reconvert individuals who had converted from Hinduism to other religions. Option A: Keshab Chandra Sen was a leader of the Brahmo Samaj who later formed the Brahmo Samaj of India and the Navavidhan. Option C: Atmaram Pandurang founded the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay in 1867 for religious and social reform. Option D: Swami Vivekananda promoted Vedanta philosophy and social service through the Ramakrishna Mission, not the Shuddhi movement.

  19. Q19Socio-religious reform movements

    Who started the newspaper Viveka Vardhini?

    • aParavastu Rangacharyulu
    • bKandukuri VeeresalingamAnswer
    • cKashyonda Venkataratnam
    • dGidugu Ramamurthy
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Kandukuri Veeresalingam launched the monthly journal Viveka Vardhini in Rajahmundry in 1874 to attack social evils, promote widow remarriage, and fight administrative corruption. Option A: Paravastu Rangacharyulu was a traditional Sanskrit and Telugu scholar who engaged in orthodox polemics and did not start Viveka Vardhini. Option C: Kashyonda Venkataratnam was not the founder or editor of this reformist journal. Option D: Gidugu Ramamurthy was the leader of the Spoken Telugu movement and is associated with periodicals like Telugu, not Viveka Vardhini.

  20. Q20The Indian National Movement

    From which movement period did Tilak become famous as 'Lokamanya'?

    • aVande Mataram Movement
    • bKhilafat Movement
    • cHome Rule MovementAnswer
    • dNon-Cooperation Movement
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the popular epithet 'Lokamanya', meaning accepted by the people as their leader, gained nationwide prominence and widespread acceptance during the Home Rule Movement. Option A: The title Lokamanya is not historically attributed to the Vande Mataram Movement of 1905. Option B: The Khilafat Movement occurred in 1919 to 1920, by which time Tilak was already an established mass leader known by this epithet. Option D: Tilak passed away on 1 August 1920, the very day the Non-Cooperation Movement was officially launched.

  21. Q21The Indian National Movement

    Alluri Sitarama Raju's tomb is located here

    • aMogallu
    • bChintapalli
    • cSankhavaram
    • dKrishnadevi PetaAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Alluri Sitarama Raju was captured and killed by the British forces in May 1924, and his mortal remains were cremated at Krishnadevi Peta, where his tomb stands today. Option A: Mogallu is the ancestral village and birth region of Alluri Sitarama Raju, not the place where his tomb is situated. Option B: Chintapalli was the site of the first police station raid that launched the Rampa Rebellion, not his burial place. Option C: Sankhavaram was an operational area where Raju's guerrilla forces carried out attacks, not his resting site.

  22. Q22Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    The Indian Military Academy is located at

    • aBangalore
    • bCoimbatore
    • cDehradunAnswer
    • dMumbai
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Indian Military Academy is headquartered at Dehradun, Uttarakhand, established on 1 October 1932 to train officers for the Indian Army. Option A: Bangalore hosts military establishments such as the Army Service Corps Centre and College, but not the Indian Military Academy. Option B: Coimbatore hosts institutions like the Air Force Administrative College, not the Indian Military Academy. Option D: Mumbai is the base for the Western Naval Command and other defence establishments, not the Indian Military Academy.

  23. Q23Living traditions: temples, communities and social custom

    Meaning of the word 'Sikh'

    • aSoldier
    • bSage
    • cDiscipleAnswer
    • dDevotee
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the word 'Sikh' derives from the Sanskrit word 'Shishya' or the Pali word 'Sikkha', both meaning a disciple, learner, or student of the Gurus. Option A: Soldier corresponds to terms like Sipahi or Khalsa warrior, not the literal root of Sikh. Option B: Sage corresponds to terms like Rishi or Muni. Option D: Devotee translates to terms like Bhakta, whereas Sikh specifically denotes a learner or disciple.

  24. Q24Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The Chairman of the Finance and Staff Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India was

    • aRajendra PrasadAnswer
    • bJawaharlal Nehru
    • cVallabhbhai Patel
    • dB.R. Ambedkar
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman of the Finance and Staff Committee of the Constituent Assembly, in addition to heading the Steering Committee and the Rules of Procedure Committee. Option B: Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the Union Powers Committee, the Union Constitution Committee, and the States Committee. Option C: Vallabhbhai Patel headed the Provincial Constitution Committee and the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities. Option D: B.R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

  25. Q25Amendment and the basic structure

    The Indian State that was given just the status of associate in 1974 and got the status of a full state in 1975 by the Amendments of the Constitution is

    • aMizoram
    • bManipur
    • cSikkimAnswer
    • dTripura
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because Sikkim was given the status of an associate state through the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1974 and elevated to a full-fledged state through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1975. 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974 introduced Article 2A and the Tenth Schedule for associate state status 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 admitted Sikkim as the 22nd state of the Indian Union Option A: Mizoram was granted full statehood in 1987 under the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1986. Option B: Manipur became a full state in 1972 through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. Option D: Tripura achieved full statehood in 1972 through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

  26. Q26The Union executive

    A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament appointed as Minister, accord-ing to Article 75 (5) shall become a member of any one of the Houses of Parliament before the expiry of

    • a12 months
    • b3 months
    • c6 monthsAnswer
    • d9 months
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constitution permits a non-member of Parliament to be appointed as a Minister, provided they secure membership in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha within six consecutive months. Article 75(5): A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. Option A: Twelve months exceeds the maximum constitutional grace period of six months. Option B: Three months is shorter than the six-month window allowed under Article 75(5). Option D: Nine months is not the time limit specified in the Constitution.

  27. Q27Parliament and the state legislatures

    Presently, as laid in the Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India, the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to be filled by the repre- sentatives of Andhra Pradesh State is

    • a18
    • b16
    • c11Answer
    • d14
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because following the bifurcation under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, the Fourth Schedule allocates 11 seats in the Rajya Sabha to Andhra Pradesh and 7 seats to Telangana. Total seats of combined Andhra Pradesh: 18 Allocated to successor State of Andhra Pradesh: 11 Allocated to successor State of Telangana: 7 Option A: 18 was the total number of seats allocated to the undivided State of Andhra Pradesh prior to bifurcation. Option B: 16 is the number of Rajya Sabha seats allocated to West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, not Andhra Pradesh. Option D: 14 is the number of Rajya Sabha seats allocated to Assam and other states, not Andhra Pradesh.

  28. Q28Parliament and the state legislatures

    The method by which Rajya Sabha members are elected in the Indian parliamentary system

    • aNon-transferable vote system
    • bSingle transferable vote systemAnswer
    • cCumulative vote system
    • dIndian average vote system
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 80(4) of the Indian Constitution specifies that representatives of each State in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Option A: The voting system utilizes transferable voting rather than a non-transferable ballot. Option C: Cumulative voting is not used for Rajya Sabha elections in India. Option D: There is no such constitutional or statutory mechanism known as the Indian average vote system.

  29. Q29Parliament and the state legislatures

    The Chairman of Public Account Committee of Lok Sabha is

    • aSushma Swaraj
    • bMurali Manohar JoshiAnswer
    • cYashwant Sinha
    • dArun Jaitley
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Dr. Murli Manohar Joshi served as the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Lok Sabha during the 15th Lok Sabha tenure. Option A: Sushma Swaraj served as the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, not as the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee. Option C: Yashwant Sinha chaired the Standing Committee on Finance, not the Public Accounts Committee during this period. Option D: Arun Jaitley was the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha, not a member or chairman of the Lok Sabha PAC.

  30. Q30Parliament and the state legislatures

    The important permanent financial commit-tees set up by the Parliament to exercise effective control over the general and finan-cial administration of the country are Public accounts Committee, Estimates committee, Departmental Committees and

    • aCommittee on Foreign Affairs
    • bCommittee on Parliamentary Affairs
    • cCommittee on Finances of State Government
    • dCommittee on Public UndertakingsAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because the three principal standing financial committees of the Indian Parliament are the Public Accounts Committee, the Estimates Committee, and the Committee on Public Undertakings. Public Accounts Committee: created in 1921 Estimates Committee: created in 1950 Committee on Public Undertakings: created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee Option A: The Committee on Foreign Affairs is a department-related standing committee, not one of the core financial committees. Option B: The Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is a cabinet committee headed by the executive, not a parliamentary financial committee. Option C: Parliament has no permanent financial committee named the Committee on Finances of State Government.

  31. Q31Federalism and centre-state relations

    The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the three legislative lists-Central List, State List and Concurrent List Which enumerate

    • aPowers of taxation
    • bDuties of Governments
    • cCentre - State relationships
    • dSubjects of administrationAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Seventh Schedule divides legislative and administrative jurisdiction between the Union and the States by enumerating matters or subjects of administration across the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Option A: Powers of taxation form only a subset of the entries, not the entire definition or scope of the three lists. Option B: Duties of Governments are addressed through Directive Principles and executive provisions rather than through the subject lists of the Seventh Schedule. Option C: Centre-State administrative and legislative relationships are governed by the substantive Articles in Part XI of the Constitution, while the Seventh Schedule merely enumerates the specific functional subjects.

  32. Q32Federalism and centre-state relations

    States and Union Territories grouped with an advisory council each is known as

    • aState Council
    • bRegional Council
    • cJoint Council
    • dZonal CouncilAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Zonal Councils are statutory advisory bodies set up to promote interstate cooperation by grouping States and Union Territories into zones under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Option A: It refers to a non-existent category; there is no statutory interstate grouping called State Council. Option B: It uses an informal descriptive term rather than the legally designated entity. Option C: It names a non-existent council format in the context of interstate territorial groupings.

  33. Q33Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The first Indian state in which the institution of Lokayukta was constituted in 1971 is

    • aOrissaAnswer
    • bTamil Nadu
    • cAndhra Pradesh
    • dUttar Pradesh

    Explanation coming soon.

  34. Q34Parties, elections and representation

    The current prescribed expenditure limit for Parliamentary constituency elections in large (important) states

    • aRs. 40 Lakhs
    • bRs. 50 Lakhs
    • cRs. 60 Lakhs
    • dRs. 70 LakhsAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because the election expenditure limit for a candidate contesting from a Parliamentary constituency in bigger states was revised to Rs. 70 Lakhs under the Conduct of Elections Rules ahead of the 2014 general elections. Old ceiling before 2014: Rs. 40 Lakhs for Parliamentary constituencies in bigger states. Revised ceiling in 2014: Rs. 70 Lakhs for Parliamentary constituencies in bigger states. Option A: wrong because Rs. 40 Lakhs was the older spending limit prior to the 2014 revision. Option B: wrong because Rs. 50 Lakhs was never prescribed as a Lok Sabha constituency expenditure limit. Option C: wrong because Rs. 60 Lakhs is not a statutory ceiling category under the Conduct of Elections Rules.

  35. Q35India's foreign policy and international relations

    The Country which is not a part of G-4 coun-tries is

    • aGermany
    • bJapan
    • cIndia
    • dChinaAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because China is not part of the G4 alliance, which is an informal coalition of four countries mutually supporting each other's bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. G4 member countries: Brazil Germany India Japan Option A: Germany is a G4 member seeking permanent representation on the UN Security Council. Option B: Japan is a G4 member seeking permanent representation on the UN Security Council. Option C: India is a G4 member seeking permanent representation on the UN Security Council.

  36. Q36Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    The novel idea included by the Government of India in the draft Sixth Five year Plan was

    • aLong term plan
    • bMinimum Needs Programme
    • cRolling planAnswer
    • dRural development programme
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Janata Party government abandoned the Fifth Five Year Plan in 1978 and introduced the concept of a Rolling Plan for the draft Sixth Five Year Plan covering 1978 to 1983. Option A: Long term perspective planning was already an established component in previous Five Year Plans. Option B: Minimum Needs Programme was introduced during the Fifth Five Year Plan, not as a novel feature of the draft Sixth Plan. Option D: Rural development initiatives had formed an integral part of Indian planning beginning with the First Five Year Plan.

  37. Q37Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Preparing the guidelines for the formulation of national plan including assessment of its resources is the function of

    • aPlanning Commission
    • bNational Development CouncilAnswer
    • cMinistry of Finance
    • dUnion Cabinet
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the National Development Council was set up to prescribe guidelines for formulating the National Plan, including the assessment of resources, and to consider the plan prepared by the Planning Commission. Option A: The Planning Commission was responsible for formulating the draft plan itself rather than prescribing guidelines to the planning body. Option C: The Ministry of Finance prepares the Union Budget and manages fiscal policy, not the guidelines for the five-year national plans. Option D: The Union Cabinet reviews and approves government policies at the executive level, but the specific mandate to lay down plan guidelines belonged to the NDC.

  38. Q38Industry in the Indian economy

    The Industrial Policy Resolution that was described as the Economic Constitution of India is

    • a1948 Resolution
    • b1956 ResolutionAnswer
    • c1977 Resolution
    • d1991 Resolution
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 laid down the foundational framework for public sector dominance and state-led industrialisation, earning it the title of the Economic Constitution of India. Option A: 1948 Resolution was India's first industrial policy that introduced the concept of a mixed economy, not the Economic Constitution. Option C: 1977 Resolution focused primarily on promoting small, cottage, and tiny industries through District Industries Centres. Option D: 1991 Resolution marked the shift towards liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation rather than the state-led constitutional framework.

  39. Q39Industry in the Indian economy

    According to an important proposal in India's 1991 New Industrial Policy, 51.0 percent Foreign Direct Investment facility was provided for

    • aall industries
    • bagro-processing industries
    • cexport industries
    • dhigh priority industriesAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because the New Industrial Policy of 1991 permitted automatic approval for Foreign Direct Investment up to 51 percent foreign equity in 34 identified high-priority industries. Option A: The 51 percent automatic approval route was limited to a specific list of priority sectors, not extended to all industries. Option B: Agro-processing was not the overarching statutory classification defined for the 51 percent automatic approval facility. Option C: Export-oriented units had separate investment incentives and ceilings rather than the broad 51 percent high-priority industry designation.

  40. Q40Money, banking and financial markets

    The number of commercial banks nationalized in the year 1969?

    • a14Answer
    • b12
    • c24
    • d16
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Government of India promulgated an ordinance on 19 July 1969, nationalising 14 major commercial banks that each held deposits of at least 50 crore rupees. Option B: Only 12 is too small a count; 14 banks were nationalised in 1969. Option C: 24 is an overstated figure exceeding the actual number of banks nationalised in the first phase. Option D: 16 is incorrect because 14 banks were taken over in 1969, followed later by 6 banks in 1980.

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OUTWORK·
OUTTHINK·
MASTER THE SYSTEM·
OUTWORK·
OUTTHINK·
MASTER THE SYSTEM·
OUTWORK·
OUTTHINK·
MASTER THE SYSTEM·
OUTWORK·
OUTTHINK·
MASTER THE SYSTEM·