APPSC Group-I Prelims 2017

182 questions from the 2017 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

   Which of the following was mostly used to facilitate long distance communication by the inhabitants of Harappan Civilisation ?

   • aWriting on palm leaves
   • bStone and rock tablets
   • cPigeons and parrots
   • dSeals and sealingsAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because Harappan seals and sealings were pressed onto wet clay covering the knots of trade packages to ensure that the goods were not tampered with and to convey the identity of the sender. Option A: Palm leaf manuscripts appeared in much later historical periods in India and have not been found in the archaeological record of the Indus Valley. Option B: Large stone and rock inscriptions became prominent during the Mauryan period, notably with Ashoka, not in the Harappan period. Option C: There is no archaeological evidence of trained messenger birds being used for long-distance communication by the Harappans.

2. Q2Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

   Which of the following was mostly used to facilitate long distance communication by the inhabitants of Harappan Civilization ?

   • aWriting on palm leaves
   • bStone and rock tablets
   • cPigeons and parrots
   • dSeals and sealingsAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because seals and their impressions on wet clay, known as sealings, were affixed to parcels of merchandise to convey identity, ensure the integrity of the contents, and verify transactions across long distances. Option A: Writing on palm leaves emerged much later in the historical period and was not used by the Bronze Age Harappans. Option B: Stone and rock tablets were used primarily during later historical eras, notably by Ashoka, rather than for Harappan trade communication. Option C: The use of trained birds like pigeons and parrots for postal communication is not an archaeologically attested Harappan practice.

3. Q3The Mauryan Empire

   The earliest inscriptions found in India were written in?

   • aSanskrit in Brahmi script
   • bPrakrit in Brahmi scriptAnswer
   • cTamil in Kharosthi script
   • dPali in Kharosthi script
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because the earliest deciphered and firmly dated historical inscriptions in the Indian subcontinent belong to Ashoka, which were primarily composed in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script. Option A: Sanskrit in Brahmi script is incorrect because royal Sanskrit inscriptions, such as the Junagadh rock inscription, emerged much later in the common era. Option C: Tamil in Kharosthi script is incorrect because early Tamil inscriptions were recorded in Tamil-Brahmi, while Kharosthi was confined to the northwest. Option D: Pali in Kharosthi script is incorrect because Ashoka's northwestern edicts were in local Prakrit dialects or Aramaic and Greek, not classical Pali.

4. Q4The Delhi Sultanate

   Which system of transport was often used by the Delhi Sultanate to transport fruits of Khorasan to India?

   • aFoot – post systemAnswer
   • bHorse – post system
   • cCamel caravan
   • dTransport by pilgrims

   Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

5. Q5Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

   What was the practice adopted by the Vijayanagar Kings to protect the inhabitants with in a fortified area from starvation due to sieges by enemy armies?

   • aLarge granaries were built within the fortified area to store grains
   • bSecret pathways were maintained to transport groceries into fortified areas
   • cLarge agricultural tracts were incorporated within the fortified areaAnswer
   • dThe forts were built on hills to prevent siege by the enemy
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because the rulers of Vijayanagara enclosed extensive agricultural lands, gardens, and canals between the fortified outer walls so that crops could be grown and food supply maintained throughout long sieges. Option A: Granaries alone could not sustain an entire population indefinitely during multi-year sieges, necessitating active internal farming. Option B: Fortresses were tightly surrounded during sieges, making clandestine overland supply chains practically impossible. Option D: Vijayanagara was situated on rocky terrain along the Tungabhadra River, but fortifying hills alone did not resolve food shortages during a siege.

6. Q6Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

   What was the practice adopted by the Vijayanagar Kings to protect the inhabitants within a fortified area from starvation due to sieges by enemy armies ?

   • aLarge granaries were built within the fortified area to store grains
   • bSecret pathways were maintained to transport groceries into fortified areas
   • cLarge agricultural tracts were incorporated within the fortified areaAnswer
   • dThe forts were built on hills to prevent siege by the enemy
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because the rulers of Vijayanagara enclosed extensive agricultural lands, gardens, and canals between the fortified outer walls so that crops could be grown and food supply maintained throughout long sieges. Option A: Granaries alone could not sustain an entire population indefinitely during multi-year sieges, necessitating active internal farming. Option B: Fortresses were tightly surrounded during sieges, making clandestine overland supply chains practically impossible. Option D: Vijayanagara was situated on rocky terrain along the Tungabhadra River, but fortifying hills alone did not resolve food shortages during a siege.

7. Q7Bhakti and Sufi movements

   Which of the following Sufi saints was known as Garib Nawaz?

   • aSheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
   • bKhwaja Moinuddin ChistiAnswer
   • cRoyal Nasiruddin
   • dKhwaja Qutbuddin Hakhtiyar Kaki
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti, the founder of the Chishti order in India, was affectionately titled Gharib Nawaz due to his immense benevolence and service toward the poor and destitute. Option A: Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was known by the title Mahbub-e-Ilahi, meaning the beloved of God. Option C: Royal Nasiruddin refers to Nasiruddin Mahmud, who held the title Chirag-i-Dehli, meaning the lamp of Delhi. Option D: Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki was given the title Qutb-ul-Aqtab, denoting the pole of poles.

8. Q8British rule: administration, economy and society

   Having failed to control the Pahadions, the British invited the following to cultivate the land in the Rajmahal Hills:

   • aSanthalsAnswer
   • bZamindars
   • cBritish planters
   • dKols
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because the British invited the Santhals to clear the Rajmahal forests and practice settled agriculture, carving out an area known as Damin-i-Koh after failing to subdue the Paharias. Option B: Zamindars were revenue intermediaries, not the tribal cultivators invited to pioneer and clear the hill forests. Option C: British planters concentrated on commercial cash crops like indigo and tea in other regions rather than cultivating Rajmahal forest lands. Option D: The Kols were indigenous to the Chota Nagpur plateau and rose in revolt in 1831-32 instead of clearing the Rajmahal hills for the British.

9. Q9British rule: administration, economy and society

   Having failed to control the Paharias, the British invited the following to cultivate the land in the Rajmahal Hills :

   • aSanthalsAnswer
   • bZamindars
   • cBritish planters
   • dKols
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because after failing to subdue the Paharias into settled agriculture, the British encouraged Santhal migration into the Rajmahal Hills and demarcated the Damin-i-Koh tract for them to clear forests and cultivate. Option B: Zamindars collected revenue as landlords rather than acting as the agricultural community brought in to clear the forest tracts. Option C: British planters managed private cash-crop estates such as tea and indigo, and were not brought in as peasant pioneers to clear these hills. Option D: The Kols were an indigenous tribe from the Chota Nagpur region, not the settlers invited to establish settled farming in the Rajmahal Hills.

10. Q10The Indian National Movement

    Which of the following is one of the salient features of the Lucknow Pact, 1916?

    • aThe Congress and Muslim League would share power in Legislative Councils
    • bThe Congress accepted the system of separate electorates based on religionAnswer
    • cThe Congress and Muslim League would fight for complete independence
    • dA working committee was established by the Congress to run day to day affairs
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Indian National Congress made a major constitutional concession in the Lucknow Pact by accepting the principle of separate electorates for Muslims in the provincial legislative councils. Option A: The pact proposed seat quotas and minority weightage rather than a formal power-sharing coalition in the executive government. Option C: The joint demand in 1916 was for self-government or dominion status within the British Empire, not complete independence. Option D: The Congress Working Committee was instituted at the Nagpur session in 1920, not under the Lucknow Pact.

11. Q11Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    What is the title of the book published in 1958 containing the edited collection of letters written to and by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru?

    • aCritical thoughts and reflections
    • bA bunch of old lettersAnswer
    • cI and Mahatma A collection of letters
    • dIn the eyes of the World
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because A Bunch of Old Letters is the collection edited by Jawaharlal Nehru and published in 1958, containing correspondence written to him and some of his replies, documenting key moments of India's freedom struggle. Option A: Critical thoughts and reflections is an invented title not associated with this collection. Option C: I and Mahatma A collection of letters is not the title of Nehru's 1958 compiled volume. Option D: In the eyes of the World is an unrelated title that does not belong to this epistolary work.

12. Q12Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly on the lines suggested by?

    • aMountbatten
    • bCripps Mission
    • cCabinet MissionAnswer
    • dIndia Independence Act
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constituent Assembly of India was constituted in November 1946 under the framework and seat allocation formula outlined by the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. Option A: Mountbatten presented the partition plan of 3 June 1947, not the original scheme establishing the assembly. Option B: Cripps Mission proposed post-war constitution-making body provisions in 1942, but its proposals were rejected by Indian leaders. Option D: The Indian Independence Act of 1947 conferred sovereign status on the already existing assembly, rather than creating its original framework.

13. Q13Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Which of the following is not a criterion for acquiring citizenship of India, subject to other conditions?

    • aNaturalization
    • bBirth
    • cRegistration
    • dEthnic IdentityAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because ethnic identity is nowhere mentioned or recognized as a legal criterion or ground for acquiring citizenship under Indian law. Option A: Naturalization is a recognized statutory mode of acquiring citizenship under Section 6 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Option B: Birth is a recognized statutory mode under Section 3 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Option C: Registration is a recognized statutory mode under Section 5 of the Citizenship Act, 1955.

14. Q14Fundamental Rights

    Which of the following may be a violation of fundamental rights?

    • aBanning of a bookAnswer
    • bNot paying minimum wages
    • cProhibition of secessionist activities
    • dNot allowing loudspeakers in a religious procession

    Explanation coming soon.

15. Q15The Union executive

    Which of the following is a 'pocket veto' power in the Indian context?

    • aSpeaker of Lok Sabha not allowing presentation of a bill
    • bPresident keeping a bill pending with him, without any time limit and without approvingAnswer
    • cPrime Minister removing minister from his Cabinet without any reason
    • dRajya Sabha vetoing the provisions of a bill approved by Lok Sabha
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because pocket veto refers to the constitutional discretion of the President of India under Article 111 where no time limit is specified to give assent, withhold assent, or return a bill, allowing the President to simply keep it pending indefinitely. Option A: Refuses admission of legislative business, which is a procedural power of the presiding officer rather than an executive veto. Option C: Pertains to ministerial appointments and dismissals by the executive head, having no bearing on legislative bills. Option D: Involves the legislative process of the Upper House rather than the presidential veto over passed bills.

16. Q16The Union executive

    In the matter of impeachment motion against the President in any of the two houses, the following is not correct

    • aNot less than 1/4th of the members of the House shall sign on the notice
    • b14 days notice needs to be given to the President
    • cNot less than 1/2 of membership of the house shall pass the motionAnswer
    • dThe motion needs to be passed by both the Houses
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because it makes an incorrect statement; Article 61(2)(b) requires an impeachment resolution to be passed by a special majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House, not one-half. Notice must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total members of the House Notice period given to the President is fourteen days Passing majority required in each House is not less than two-thirds of the total membership Option A: This is a correct requirement under Article 61(2)(a) for introducing the impeachment notice. Option B: This is a correct requirement under Article 61(2)(a) regarding advance written notice. Option D: This is a correct requirement because both Houses must adopt the resolution for removal to take effect.

17. Q17The Union executive

    If a person is occupying an "office of profit" and wants to receive a title/award from a foreign country, who has to permit?

    • aPrime Minister
    • bMinister for External Affairs
    • cUnion Cabinet
    • dPresidentAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Constitution explicitly prohibits any person holding an office of profit or trust under the State from accepting any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State without the consent of the President. Article 18(4): Requires the consent of the President for accepting foreign titles or gifts by persons holding offices of profit or trust Option A: The Prime Minister has no constitutional authority to grant this permission independently. Option B: The Minister for External Affairs oversees diplomatic relations but lacks the constitutional power to give this consent. Option C: The Union Cabinet advises the executive, but the constitutional requirement specifically demands the consent of the President.

18. Q18Parliament and the state legislatures

    A Parliament Member can raise issues related to the transgression of written and unwritten rules of conducting the business of the House through?

    • aA point of orderAnswer
    • bCut motion
    • cAdjournment motion
    • dNo confidence motion
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a point of order is raised by a member when the proceedings of the House do not follow the accepted rules of procedure, conventions, or constitutional provisions. Option B: A cut motion is used specifically during the discussion on the budget to reduce the amount of a demand for grant. Option C: An adjournment motion is moved to draw the attention of the House to an urgent matter of definite public importance. Option D: A no-confidence motion is moved to test the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers in the Lok Sabha.

19. Q19Parliament and the state legislatures

    The provision which empowers Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance for part of a financial year pending completion of budgetary process is called?

    • aContingency Bill
    • bAdhoc provision
    • cGrant on account
    • dVote on accountAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because a Vote on Account is an advance grant given to the executive by the Lok Sabha to cover expenditure for a part of the financial year pending the enactment of the Appropriation Bill. Article 116(1)(a): Authorises a Vote on account. Option A: There is no parliamentary instrument titled Contingency Bill; the fund is the Contingency Fund of India under Article 267. Option B: Adhoc provision is an informal term and not a recognised constitutional mechanism. Option C: Grant on account is not the constitutional phrase; the correct term is Vote on account.

20. Q20The judiciary

    What is the most important reason for huge pendency of cases in Indian Courts?

    • aSevere shortage of judgesAnswer
    • bUnending adjournments taken by litigants
    • cGovernment policy of filing appeal in each case
    • dIncrease in population
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a critically low judge-to-population ratio and large numbers of unfilled judicial vacancies are recognized as the primary institutional causes of backlog in Indian courts. Option B: Frequent adjournments contribute to case delays, but they are procedural symptoms rather than the root structural bottleneck. Option C: Government litigation adds substantially to case volume, but an adequate judge strength would process the workload effectively. Option D: Population growth increases the overall demand for dispute resolution, but inadequate judicial capacity turns that demand into pendency.

21. Q21The judiciary

    An appeal against the awards of Lok Adalat can be filed in

    • aCourt of Judicial Magistrate
    • bDistrict Court
    • cHigh Court
    • dThere is no appeal against the award of Lok AdalatAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under Section 21(2) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, every award made by a Lok Adalat is final and binding on all parties, and no appeal lies against it to any court. Section 21 of Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 equates awards to civil court decrees. Section 21(2) explicitly bars appeals against any Lok Adalat award. Option A: Judicial Magistrates have no appellate jurisdiction over Lok Adalat awards. Option B: District Courts cannot entertain appeals against Lok Adalat awards due to the statutory bar. Option C: High Courts cannot hear statutory appeals against Lok Adalat awards, although limited judicial review through writ petitions exists.

22. Q22The judiciary

    In which landmark judgment delivered in 2016, did the Supreme Court issue guidelines on drought management to the Government of India?

    • aSwaraj Abhiyan Vs Union of IndiaAnswer
    • bPUCL Vs Union of India
    • cCommon Cause Vs Union of India
    • dMahipal Singh Rana Vs State of UP
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because in Swaraj Abhiyan Vs Union of India, the Supreme Court issued comprehensive directions to the Union and state governments for tackling drought situations, revising the drought management manual, and implementing the National Food Security Act. Option B: PUCL Vs Union of India established the right to food as part of Article 21 and issued guidelines on extrajudicial encounters and NOTA. Option C: Common Cause Vs Union of India primarily addressed passive euthanasia, living wills, and institutional reforms. Option D: Mahipal Singh Rana Vs State of UP pertained to professional misconduct of advocates and powers of the Bar Council under the Advocates Act.

23. Q23The judiciary

    In which of the following issues did the Supreme Court invoke Article 142 of the Constitution to issue directions in a judgement in a case in 2016?

    • aConstitutional validity of Defamation Act
    • bRegulatory mechanism for legal professor
    • cRight of disabled people to live with dignity
    • dBan on licenses to liquor shops near State and National HighwaysAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because in the 2016 State of Tamil Nadu vs. K. Balu case, the Supreme Court exercised its plenary powers under Article 142 to ban the grant of liquor licenses within five hundred metres of the outer edge of national and state highways to curb drunken driving. Option A: The constitutional validity of criminal defamation was adjudicated in Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India under Articles 19 and 21 without invoking Article 142 directives. Option B: Directions on regulating the legal profession were framed primarily under the Advocates Act and traditional supervisory powers. Option C: The rights of persons with disabilities were addressed under statutory frameworks like the Persons with Disabilities Act and constitutional guarantees of equality under Articles 14 and 21.

24. Q24The judiciary

    In which of the following issues did the Supreme Court invoke Article 142 of the Constitution to issue directions in a judgment in a case in 2016 ?

    • aConstitutional validity of Defamation Act
    • bRegulatory mechanism for legal profession
    • cRight of disabled people to live with dignity
    • dBan on licenses to liquor shops near State and National HighwaysAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because in State of Tamil Nadu vs. K. Balu (December 2016), the Supreme Court exercised its extraordinary powers under Article 142 to prohibit liquor vends within 500 metres of the outer edge of National and State Highways to curb drunk driving. Option A: It was adjudicated in Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India (2016) by evaluating the reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2), not by invoking Article 142. Option B: It did not involve the prominent 2016 nationwide Article 142 directive issued by the court. Option C: It was addressed under statutory mandates and fundamental rights under Article 21, not via the 2016 highway prohibitory order.

25. Q25Federalism and centre-state relations

    Out of the following, which is not a power granted to Rajya Sabha?

    • aAuthorising Parliament in the national interest to make a law on a matter in the State List
    • bAuthorising State Assemblies in the national interest to make law on matters in the Union ListAnswer
    • cTo return a Money Bill with recommendations
    • dAuthorising Parliament in the national interest to make a law for creation of an All India Service
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Constitution does not authorize the Rajya Sabha to transfer or delegate law-making authority over the Union List to State Legislatures under any circumstances. Article 246(1): Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any matter in the Union List Article 249: Rajya Sabha can authorize Parliament to legislate on the State List in the national interest Article 312: Rajya Sabha can authorize Parliament to create new All India Services Option A: This is a legitimate special power granted exclusively to the Rajya Sabha under Article 249. Option C: Rajya Sabha possesses the constitutional power to consider and return a Money Bill with recommendations under Article 109. Option D: This is a special power granted exclusively to the Rajya Sabha under Article 312.

26. Q26Federalism and centre-state relations

    “Cooperative Federalism in Centre – State relations is recommended for the first time by?

    • aSarkaria CommissionAnswer
    • bRajamannar Commission
    • cVenkatachaliah Commission
    • dM.M. Punchhi Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Sarkaria Commission, in its comprehensive report, pioneered the formal recommendation of cooperative federalism in Centre-State relations, emphasizing collaboration and dynamic cooperation over rigid compartmentalization. Option B: The Rajamannar Commission was set up by the Tamil Nadu state government in 1969 and focused primarily on asserting state autonomy and curbing Union powers rather than cooperative federalism. Option C: The Venkatachaliah Commission was established in 2000 to review the working of the Constitution, long after the Sarkaria Commission. Option D: The M.M. Punchhi Commission was appointed in 2007 and merely reiterated and updated the principles already framed by the Sarkaria Commission.

27. Q27Federalism and centre-state relations

    Out of the following, which is a recommendation of the M.M. Punchhi Commission on the institution of Governor ?

    • aProvision for impeachment of the Governor may be introduced by the State LegislatureAnswer
    • bThe system of Governor may be abolished
    • cConsent of Chief Minister of a State shall be necessary before appointing Governor of the State
    • dGovernors should be periodically rotated between States
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Punchhi Commission recommended that the Governor should have a guaranteed five-year term and should only be removed by an impeachment resolution passed by the State Legislature, similar to the impeachment of the President. Option B: The commission sought to reform and depoliticize the office of the Governor rather than recommend its abolition. Option C: The commission recommended a selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, and the Chief Minister, rather than making the Chief Minister's individual consent mandatory. Option D: The commission disapproved of arbitrary transfers and rotational shifting of Governors between states.

28. Q28Federalism and centre-state relations

    The Inter-State Council was established on the recommendations of?

    • aVenkatachaliah Commission
    • bSarkaria CommissionAnswer
    • cM.M. Punchhi Commission
    • dRajamannar Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1983-1988) recommended the setting up of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263, which led to its establishment by Presidential Order in 1990. Option A: Set up in 2000 to review the working of the Constitution, long after the Inter-State Council was formed. Option C: Constituted in 2007 to review Centre-State relations, well after the council's creation in 1990. Option D: Formed by the Tamil Nadu government in 1969 to examine Centre-State relations, but its recommendations did not lead to the creation of the Council.

29. Q29Federalism and centre-state relations

    What is the meaning of competitive sub-federalism in the context of achieving targets of social and developmental goals?

    • aStates competing against each other
    • bCentre competing with States
    • cStates competing with Local Bodies
    • dLocal Bodies competing with Local BodiesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because sub-federalism denotes governance tiers below the state level, so competitive sub-federalism specifically refers to local self-governing bodies competing with one another to achieve developmental milestones. Option A: States competing against each other defines standard competitive federalism, not sub-federalism. Option B: Centre competing with States represents vertical federal friction rather than sub-federal competition. Option C: States competing with Local Bodies represents an unequal hierarchical interaction rather than horizontal competition among peer units.

30. Q30Federalism and centre-state relations

    What is the meaning of competitive sub-federalism in the context of achieving targets on social and developmental goals ?

    • aStates competing against each other
    • bCentre competing with States
    • cStates competing with Local Bodies
    • dLocal Bodies competing with Local BodiesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the prefix sub-federal relates to the third tier of government, making competitive sub-federalism the horizontal competition among local bodies to deliver better public services and social outcomes. Option A: States competing against each other is standard competitive federalism at the provincial level. Option B: Centre competing with States describes vertical intergovernmental conflict rather than sub-federal competition. Option C: States competing with Local Bodies is a vertical mismatch of authority, not horizontal competition among peers.

31. Q31Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    In India, how many states have set up State Minority Commissions?

    • a12
    • b15Answer
    • c18
    • d25
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because at the time of the examination, official government records documented 15 states as having established State Minority Commissions. States with State Minority Commissions: Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Delhi, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal Option A: 12 undercounts the total number of established State Minority Commissions. Option C: 18 exceeds the number of officially recognized State Minority Commissions at the relevant time. Option D: 25 is an overstatement as several states have not enacted legislation or established such commissions.

32. Q32Parties, elections and representation

    How many members are required for a party to be recognized as the opposition party in Lok Sabha?

    • a1/5 of the total strength
    • b1/10 of the total strengthAnswer
    • c1/15 of the total strength
    • d1/20 of the total strength
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because as per the convention established by the first Lok Sabha Speaker G. V. Mavalankar and incorporated into parliamentary rules, a party must secure at least 10 percent of the total membership of the House to be officially recognized as the main opposition party. Total strength of Lok Sabha: 543 elected seats Minimum required threshold: 10 percent (55 seats) Option A: 1/5 of the total strength is incorrect because it equals 20 percent, which is double the requirement. Option C: 1/15 of the total strength is incorrect because it falls below the mandatory quorum threshold. Option D: 1/20 of the total strength is incorrect because 5 percent is insufficient to claim the official Leader of the Opposition post.

33. Q33Parties, elections and representation

    What is the percentage of votes polled in the recent By-elections to the Srinagar Lok Sabha Constituency?

    • a6.50%
    • b6.95%
    • c7.05%
    • d7.14%Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the by-election to the Srinagar Parliamentary constituency held on April 9, 2017 recorded an unprecedented low voter turnout of 7.14%. Option A: wrong because 6.50% does not match the official poll percentage reported by the Election Commission. Option B: wrong because 6.95% was not the final turnout recorded for this by-poll. Option C: wrong because 7.05% is factually incorrect regarding the declared polling figures.

34. Q34Parties, elections and representation

    In which election in India was ITYPAT used for the first time on the experimental basis?

    • aBy poll in Nagaland, 2013Answer
    • bLok Sabha Elections, 2014
    • cAssembly Elections Goa, 2017
    • dBy poll in Madhya Pradesh, 2017
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the question refers to VVPAT (Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail, misprinted as ITYPAT), which was first introduced on an experimental basis in September 2013 during the by-election to the Noksen Assembly Constituency in Nagaland. Option B: Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 saw VVPAT used across eight parliamentary constituencies, which followed the 2013 trial. Option C: Assembly Elections Goa, 2017 was the first election where VVPAT units were deployed across an entire state, not the initial pilot. Option D: By poll in Madhya Pradesh, 2017 occurred years after the initial field implementation of the system.

35. Q35Parties, elections and representation

    In which election in India was VVPAT used for the first time on experimental basis ?

    • aBy poll in Nagaland, 2013Answer
    • bLok Sabha Elections, 2014
    • cAssembly Elections, Goa, 2017
    • dBy poll in Madhya Pradesh, 2017
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Election Commission of India introduced the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail system for the first time on an experimental basis in September 2013 during the by-election to the 51-Noksen Assembly Constituency in Nagaland. Option B: Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 saw VVPAT deployed across eight select parliamentary constituencies, which occurred after the 2013 pilot. Option C: Assembly Elections, Goa, 2017 marked the first time VVPAT was implemented across an entire state, not its first experimental trial. Option D: By poll in Madhya Pradesh, 2017 took place several years after the technology had already undergone its first field trials.

36. Q36Public policy and governance

    As per the rationalisation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes by the Government of India, “core of the core” schemes are?

    • aSocial protection and Social inclusion schemesAnswer
    • bSchemes which are part of National Agenda
    • cInfrastructure schemes
    • dDigital India schemes
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the restructured centrally sponsored scheme architecture designates vital social inclusion and social protection initiatives as Core of the Core. Option B: Schemes tied directly to the National Agenda are grouped under the Core schemes category. Option C: Infrastructure schemes do not constitute the Core of the Core social classification. Option D: Digital India represents a specific government mission rather than this high-priority classification tier.

37. Q37Public policy and governance

    As per the rationalization of Centrally Sponsored Schemes by the Government of India, “core of the core” schemes are

    • aSocial protection and Social inclusion schemesAnswer
    • bSchemes which are part of National Agenda
    • cInfrastructure schemes
    • dDigital India schemes
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the rationalization framework recommended by the Sub-Group of Chief Ministers designated major social inclusion and social protection programs as Core of the Core schemes. Option B: Schemes catering to the National Agenda fall under the Core category rather than the Core of the Core category. Option C: Infrastructure initiatives are categorized under different capital funding schemes rather than the Core of the Core social umbrella. Option D: Digital India is an umbrella mission and not the title of the Core of the Core classification category.

38. Q38Public policy and governance

    The mission of the Government of India for electronic delivery of all Government services is known as?

    • aelliz
    • be-Cloud
    • ce-KrantiAnswer
    • de-Jagati
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because e-Kranti, formulated as NeGP 2.0 and integrated under the Digital India program, has the specific vision of transforming e-governance for transforming governance through electronic delivery of services. Option A: elliz is incorrect because it is not a recognized Government of India e-governance program. Option B: e-Cloud refers to cloud computing initiatives like MeghRaj rather than the mission for electronic delivery of services. Option D: e-Jagati is incorrect because it is not a national mission mode project for public service delivery.

39. Q39Public policy and governance

    The one stop e-marketplace established by the Government of India for procurement of goods and services by government organisations and PSUs is named as?

    • ae-Procure
    • be-Biz
    • cGeMAnswer
    • dGeP
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Government e-Marketplace is a dedicated national online portal launched in August 2016 to facilitate online procurement of common use goods and services required by government departments, organizations, and PSUs. Option A: e-Procure is incorrect because it refers to the Central Public Procurement Portal used for conventional tender publication rather than the dedicated marketplace platform. Option B: e-Biz is incorrect because it was a government-to-business portal designed to provide regulatory clearances and licenses to entrepreneurs. Option D: GeP is an incorrect abbreviation that does not designate any national public procurement portal.

40. Q40Public policy and governance

    The one stop e-market place established by the Government of India for procurement of goods and services by government organizations and PSUs is named as

    • ae-Procure
    • be-Biz
    • cGeMAnswer
    • dGeP
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is the dedicated national public procurement portal launched by the Government of India for end-to-end procurement of goods and services by government departments and PSUs. Option A: e-Procure refers broadly to the Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP) framework for e-tendering, not the dedicated one-stop e-market platform. Option B: e-Biz was a Government-to-Business portal designed to provide integrated clearances and licenses to investors and businesses. Option D: GeP is an arbitrary acronym and not an established government procurement portal.