APPSC Group-I Prelims 2017

182 questions from the 2017 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    What was the percentage of debt outstanding to GSDP of Andhra Pradesh in 2014 – 15 after reorganization of the State of Andhra Pradesh ?

    • a28·19
    • b28·91
    • c29·36Answer
    • d29·63

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

82. Q82STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Which of the following is a principle followed by the farmers who are participants to the APFAAMGS (Andhra Pradesh Farmer Managed Groundwater Systems) Project?

    • aSanctions are levied on violators
    • bRules are set by users and not by outsidersAnswer
    • cFormal dispute resolution is available
    • dFixed rules which are nut amenable to change are made
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Andhra Pradesh Farmer Managed Groundwater Systems (APFAMGS) project was designed on participatory, community-based resource management principles where groundwater users themselves monitor resources and formulate operational rules rather than having external agents impose them. Option A: The project operated on voluntary behavioural change, education, and collective consensus rather than imposing legal or punitive sanctions on violators. Option C: APFAMGS relied on informal community consensus and social pressure rather than establishing formal dispute-resolution bodies. Option D: Ground rules were deliberately flexible and adapted continuously based on seasonal water-level monitoring and water audits, not fixed or unamenable to change.

83. Q83STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Which of the following is a principle followed by the farmers who are participants to the APFAMGS (Andhra Pradesh Farmer Managed Groundwater Systems) Project ?

    • aSanctions are levied on violators
    • bRules are set by users and not by outsidersAnswer
    • cFormal dispute resolution is available
    • dFixed rules which are not amenable to change are made
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Andhra Pradesh Farmer Managed Groundwater Systems (APFAMGS) project operates on the principle of demystifying science and enabling local communities to establish their own groundwater-use rules based on seasonal crop-water budgeting rather than having them imposed by external agencies. Option A: Incorrect because the APFAMGS framework does not impose formal penalties or coercive sanctions, relying instead on voluntary behavioural change through collective hydrological monitoring. Option C: Incorrect because the project relies on consensus-building and community facilitation rather than formal legal dispute resolution mechanisms. Option D: Incorrect because rules and crop plans under APFAMGS are adaptive and change dynamically according to yearly groundwater recharge measurements.

84. Q84STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    As per Andhra Pradesh retail trade policy 2015—20, how many additional employment opportunities would be created in the retail sector by 2?020?

    • a5000
    • b10000
    • c15000
    • d20000Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Andhra Pradesh Retail Trade Policy 2015-20 explicitly targeted the generation of 20,000 additional employment opportunities in the organized retail sector across the state by 2020. Targeted organized retail investment: Rs. 5,000 crore by 2020 Targeted additional retail employment: 20,000 jobs by 2020 Option A: Understates the employment creation target by 15,000 jobs. Option B: Cites 10,000 jobs, which is only half of the official policy target. Option C: Mentions 15,000 jobs, falling short of the required 20,000 job creation benchmark.

85. Q85STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Which of the following could be the most important factor in decline of slate industry in Markapur?

    • aNon-availability of slate in the mines
    • bNon-availability of labour far quarrying
    • cGovernment policies restricting mining
    • dChange in user preferencesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the primary cause of the collapse of the slate industry in Markapur (Prakasam district) was the rapid shift in user preferences, specifically the replacement of traditional slate boards and slate pencils by paper, notebooks, digital media, and modern synthetic whiteboards. Option A: Non-availability of slate in the mines is incorrect because raw slate reserves in and around Markapur remain plentiful. Option B: Non-availability of labour is a secondary consequence of declining wages caused by falling market demand, not the root cause. Option C: Government policies restricting mining is incorrect as the primary driver was the eradication of consumer demand for slate products in schools.

86. Q86STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    Upon reorganisation of the State, Andhra Pradesh had a higher public debt than Telangana because?

    • aAndhra Pradesh is bigger than Telangana in area
    • bAndhra Pradesh had more assets and hence more debt
    • cPopulation ratio was the sole factor for distribution of debtAnswer
    • dUnion Government decided that Andhra Pradesh has to bear more debt
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because unallocated public debt of the composite state was divided strictly according to population ratio (58.32 percent for Andhra Pradesh and 41.68 percent for Telangana), causing Andhra Pradesh to inherit a much larger debt burden despite losing revenue-rich Hyderabad. Basis of public debt allocation: Population ratio Andhra Pradesh population share: 58.32 percent Telangana population share: 41.68 percent Option A: Geographic area was not the legal criterion applied to apportion public debt. Option B: Capital assets were divided mostly on a location basis rather than dictating the debt division. Option D: The debt division was governed by the statutory provisions of the 2014 Act, not an arbitrary executive decision.

87. Q87STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    Upon reorganization of the State, Andhra Pradesh had a higher public debt than Telangana because

    • aAndhra Pradesh is bigger than Telangana in area
    • bAndhra Pradesh had more assets and hence more debt
    • cPopulation ratio was the sole factor for distribution of debtAnswer
    • dUnion Government decided that Andhra Pradesh has to bear more debt
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Section 59 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 stipulated that the public debt of the undivided state of Andhra Pradesh was to be apportioned between the successor states solely in proportion to their population ratio. Public debt apportionment criterion: Section 59 of the Act Andhra Pradesh population share: 58.32 percent Telangana population share: 41.68 percent Option A: land area was not the criterion adopted in the Act for distributing debt liabilities. Option B: debt division was strictly delinked from physical asset allocation and based only on population. Option D: debt division was governed by the statutory formula laid down in the Act rather than an executive decision of the Union Government.

88. Q88STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    The recent order of the Union Home Ministry on sharing of assets of APSCHE specifies that?

    • a1. Assets and liabilities are to shared in 52 : 48 ratio
    • b2. Assets belong to the State of their location but cash deposits/balances to be shared in equal ratioAnswer
    • c3. Assets belong to the State of their location but cash deposits/balances to be shared in equal ratio
    • d4. All assets belong to the State of Telangana

    Explanation coming soon.

89. Q89STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    After the reorganisation of Andhra Pradesh, which of the following organisations is established to act as a catalyst to facilitate economic growth and investment in Andhra Pradesh?

    • aAP Economic Development BoardAnswer
    • bAP Invest
    • cAP First
    • dAP Infrastructure Corporation
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Andhra Pradesh Economic Development Board was established following bifurcation to drive sustainable economic growth, mobilize investments, and facilitate ease of doing business in the state. Option B: No statutory or executive nodal investment agency by the name AP Invest was established for this overall mandate. Option C: AP First is not an institutional investment facilitation board created after bifurcation. Option D: Andhra Pradesh Infrastructure Corporation is not the designated overall catalyst agency formed to accelerate comprehensive economic growth and investment promotion.

90. Q90STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    With regard to funding of the Polavaram Project, the Centre would provide?

    • a100% of the cost of the irrigation component for the period starting from 01/04/2014 to the extent of the cost as on that dateAnswer
    • b100% of the cost of the irrigation component as incurred
    • c100% of the cost of the irrigation component as per value decided by the Centre
    • d100% of the cost of the full project for the period starting from 01/04/2014 to the extent of the cost as on that date
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because, under the special financial assistance framework approved in 2016 following the 2014 Act, the Central Government committed to providing 100 percent of the remaining cost of the irrigation component of the Polavaram Project incurred from 1 April 2014, capped at the cost level prevailing on that date. Option B: 100% of the cost of the irrigation component as incurred is incorrect because the funding commitment excluded open-ended post-2014 escalations. Option C: 100% of the cost of the irrigation component as per value decided by the Centre is incorrect because the baseline was anchored strictly to 1 April 2014 rates rather than arbitrary ongoing discretion. Option D: 100% of the cost of the full project is incorrect because the central reimbursement commitment was restricted to the irrigation component and excluded the power and drinking water supply components.

91. Q91STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    What is the amount of special assistance provided by the Central Government to Andhra Pradesh in 2016 — 17?

    • aRs 4,058.04 Cr
    • bRs 1,976.50 CrAnswer
    • cRs 1,176.50 Cr
    • dRs 2,081.54 Cr
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Ministry of Finance released Rs 1,976.50 Cr to Andhra Pradesh during the 2016-17 fiscal year as special assistance to compensate for the state's resource deficit. Fiscal year: 2016-17 Special assistance released: Rs 1,976.50 Cr Option A: Option A is incorrect because Rs 4,058.04 Cr refers to a different cumulative allocation across multiple fiscal heads. Option C: Option C is incorrect because Rs 1,176.50 Cr understates the official amount sanctioned by exactly 800 crore rupees. Option D: Option D is incorrect because Rs 2,081.54 Cr is an incorrect figure not matching the Union Finance Ministry releases for that year.

92. Q92Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Which of the following is a direct source of information about the interior of the Earth?

    • aStudy of seismic activity
    • bGravity anomaly
    • cSurface rock from mining areasAnswer
    • dMagnetic surveys
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because surface rocks collected directly from outcrops and deep mining shafts provide actual physical samples available for direct laboratory analysis. Option A: Seismic activity provides indirect data deduced from the travel times and refraction patterns of sound waves. Option B: Gravity anomalies yield indirect information calculated from regional variations in gravitational pull. Option D: Magnetic surveys give indirect data inferred from the magnetic properties of subsurface materials.

93. Q93Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    What is the cause of earthquakes in the region from the Himalayas to the Arakan Yoma?

    • aCollision of pacific Plate and Indian Plate
    • bCollision of Indian Plate and Tibetan Plate
    • cCollision of Eurasion Plate and Indian PlateAnswer
    • dConstruction of dams on the Ganga and Brahmaputta
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the continuous continental collision between the northward-drifting Indian Plate and the stationary Eurasian Plate produces the tectonic stresses that cause earthquakes from the Himalayas to the Arakan Yoma. Option A: The Pacific Plate lies along the Pacific Rim and does not make direct tectonic contact with the Indian Plate in this region. Option B: The Tibetan Plateau is part of the overriding Eurasian Plate rather than an independent tectonic plate in standard plate tectonic theory. Option D: Dam construction can cause localized reservoir-induced seismicity, but it cannot generate regional-scale mountain-building seismic activity across thousands of kilometers.

94. Q94Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Out of the events given below, which is the most important cause of Tsunami?

    • aFault movement on the sea floorAnswer
    • bUnderwater Landslide
    • cUnderwater volcanic explosions
    • dUnderwater mining explosions
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the majority of tsunamis are triggered by sudden vertical displacement of the ocean floor along tectonic fault lines during undersea megathrust earthquakes. Option B: Underwater Landslide can displace water to create localized tsunamis, but it is far less frequent than tectonic fault displacement. Option C: Underwater volcanic explosions can generate waves, but they account for only a small percentage of recorded tsunami events. Option D: Underwater mining explosions do not release energy on the immense scale required to displace oceanic water columns.

95. Q95Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Till moraine and boulder clay are depositional landforms due to?

    • asurface water activity
    • bunderground water activity
    • caerial activity
    • dglacial activityAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because till, moraines, and boulder clay are unsorted rock sediments directly dropped and deposited by melting glacial ice. Option A: surface water activity deposits sorted sediments forming features like floodplains, deltas, and natural levees. Option B: underground water activity produces depositional features such as stalactites and stalagmites in karst caves. Option C: aerial activity forms wind-deposited features such as sand dunes and loess deposits.

96. Q96Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Till, Moraines and boulder clay are depositional land forms due to

    • asurface water activity
    • bunderground water activity
    • caerial activity
    • dglacial activityAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because till, moraines, and boulder clay are unstratified, unsorted sediments deposited directly by melting glaciers. Option A: It deposits sorted, stratified fluvial features such as alluvial fans, natural levees, and river deltas. Option B: It deposits subterranean karst features such as stalactites, stalagmites, and dripstones. Option C: It produces aeolian depositional forms such as sand dunes, barchans, and loess.

97. Q97Atmosphere, weather and climate

    Out of the below, identify the process which is not part of the hydrological cycle?

    • aEvaporation
    • bPrecipitation
    • cHydrationAnswer
    • dCondensation
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because hydration is a chemical weathering process where mineral structures expand by absorbing water molecules, making it part of rock disintegration rather than the hydrological cycle. Option A: Evaporation is a core component that converts surface liquid water into atmospheric vapor. Option B: Precipitation is the essential phase that returns condensed water vapor to the Earth surface as rain, snow, or sleet. Option D: Condensation is the key process by which atmospheric water vapor cools and transforms into liquid droplets to form clouds.

98. Q98India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Which is the largest tributary of the Godavari in terms of coverage of drainage area?

    • aSabari
    • bPranhitaAnswer
    • cIndravati
    • dManjira
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Pranhita river, formed by the confluence of the Wardha and Wainganga, drains approximately 34 percent of the total basin area of the Godavari. Option A: Sabari drains a much smaller catchment area on the left bank of the lower Godavari basin. Option C: Indravati drains roughly 13 percent of the Godavari basin, which is less than half the area drained by the Pranhita. Option D: Manjira is the largest right-bank tributary, but its catchment coverage is considerably smaller than that of the Pranhita.

99. Q99Natural resources and their distribution

    As per reliable estimates, which of the following locations in India has the largest shale gas reserves compared to others?

    • aCambay Basin
    • bKrishna-Godavari BasinAnswer
    • cCauvery Basin
    • dGanga-Brahmaputra Basin
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because studies by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons and the US Energy Information Administration indicate that the Krishna-Godavari Basin holds the largest prospective shale gas resources among Indian sedimentary basins. Option A: Cambay Basin has high prospective potential, but its estimated total shale gas resource base is smaller than that of the Krishna-Godavari Basin. Option C: Cauvery Basin contains prospective shale layers, but its estimated reserves are considerably lower than those in the Krishna-Godavari Basin. Option D: Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin has thick sediments, but confirmed and assessed shale gas potential is far smaller compared to the Krishna-Godavari Basin.

100. Q100Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Which of the following crops is generally cultivated by transplanting seedlings?

     • aMaize
     • bCarrot
     • cOnionAnswer
     • dSoybean
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because onion is commonly cultivated by raising nursery seedlings first and then transplanting them into the main field to ensure proper bulb development and optimal spacing. Option A: Maize is a cereal crop directly sown into the soil using seeds. Option B: Carrot is a taproot vegetable that is directly seeded in the field because transplanting damages and deforms the taproot. Option D: Soybean is a leguminous crop sown directly by seed drilling or broadcasting.

101. Q101Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Muga silk is a product of the silkworm endemic to which State of India?

     • aKarnataka
     • bTamil Nadu
     • cAssamAnswer
     • dManipur
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the silkworm Antheraea assamensis, which yields the naturally golden-yellow muga silk, is endemic to Assam. Option A: Karnataka is the leading producer of mulberry silk in India, not muga silk. Option B: Tamil Nadu specializes in weaving mulberry silks such as Kanchipuram silk. Option D: Manipur is prominent for oak tasar silk rather than being the primary endemic home of the muga silkworm.

102. Q102Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Out of the items given below, what is korambu?

     • aTemporary wall of brushwood, grass and mud laid across channels to raise the level of water in use in KeralaAnswer
     • bA runoff farming and groundwater recharging system of Rajasthan
     • cA traditional step well of Tamil Nadu
     • dA system of channels built to intercept and collect rainwater in Nagaland
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because korambu is an indigenous water harvesting structure built as a temporary barrier of brushwood, grass, and mud across water channels to lift and divert stream water to betel vine and paddy fields in Kerala. Option B: Traditional runoff farming and groundwater recharging systems in Rajasthan are called khadins or johads. Option C: Traditional stepwells of Tamil Nadu and western India are known as ooranis, baolis, or vavs. Option D: The traditional indigenous farming and water management system of Nagaland is known as the zabo or ruza system.

103. Q103Population, settlement and human geography

     The most important reason for higher absolute increase in urban population in India compared to rural population in the decade from 2001 to 2011 could be due to?

     • amigration from rural to urban areas
     • bhigher death rate in rural areas due to lesser access to medical facilities
     • cbetter methods of birth control in rural areas
     • dcategorization of erstwhile rural areas as urban areasAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the substantial rise in urban population during the 2001 to 2011 decade was largely driven by the reclassification of thousands of large rural villages into new census towns. Option A: Rural-to-urban migration contributed to urban growth but was secondary to the net addition of newly classified census towns. Option B: Death rates in rural areas declined over the decade due to improving healthcare rather than increasing. Option C: Contraceptive and family planning adoption is typically higher in urban centres, leaving rural birth rates higher than urban ones.

104. Q104Natural hazards, disasters and their management

     As per the Manual for Drought Management, 2016 published by the Union Ministry of Agriculture, an area which is classified as “chronically drought prone” receives mean annual rainfall which is less than?

     • a450 mm
     • b500 mm
     • c750 mnAnswer
     • d900 mm
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Manual for Drought Management classifies regions receiving a mean annual rainfall of less than 750 mm as chronically drought prone. Chronically drought prone: mean annual rainfall less than 750 mm Drought prone: mean annual rainfall between 750 mm and 1125 mm Reliable rainfall zone: mean annual rainfall greater than 1125 mm Option A: 450 mm describes extremely arid conditions but does not represent the standardized upper threshold for this classification. Option B: 500 mm is an incorrect cutoff not specified in the official manual. Option D: 900 mm lies within the broader drought-prone range rather than the chronically drought-prone category.

105. Q105Natural hazards, disasters and their management

     Which of the following is not a parameter used by the Crop Weather Watch Group constituted by Government of India to monitor the drought situation in the country?

     • aMeteorological parameters
     • bHydrological parameters
     • cAgricultural parameters
     • dGeological parametersAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because geological parameters deal with rocks, minerals, and tectonic activity, none of which reflect atmospheric or soil-moisture conditions used for drought assessment. Option A: Meteorological parameters like precipitation quantity and rainfall distribution are core inputs evaluated by the group. Option B: Hydrological parameters such as reservoir capacity and river discharge levels are tracked to gauge water availability. Option C: Agricultural parameters including crop acreage, phenology, and vegetative vigor are direct indicators monitored by the group.

106. Q106Natural hazards, disasters and their management

     Which of the following is not a parameter used by the The Crop Weather Watch Group constituted by Government of India to monitor the drought situation in the country ?

     • aMeteorological parameters
     • bHydrological parameters
     • cAgricultural parameters
     • dGeological parametersAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Crop Weather Watch Group monitors dynamic agro-climatic indicators to assess drought, whereas geological parameters concern internal earth structures and play no role in seasonal drought tracking. Option A: Meteorological parameters such as rainfall departure and dry spells are tracked as primary triggers. Option B: Hydrological parameters like water storage in major reservoirs and stream flows are routinely monitored. Option C: Agricultural parameters like sowing progression, soil moisture, and crop health form the basis of the group's periodic reviews.

107. Q107Natural hazards, disasters and their management

     For the purpose of reducing wind forces on the roof during a cyclone, the best roof architecture of a building, out of the options below is

     • aGable ended roof
     • bHip roof
     • cPyramidal roofAnswer
     • dFlat roof
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because a pyramidal roof has four sloped faces meeting at a central point, which aerodynamically deflects wind from all directions, minimizing localized wind suction and uplift forces compared to other geometries. Option A: Incorrect because gable roofs have vertical end walls that trap wind and generate high suction pressures along eaves and ridges. Option B: Incorrect because although hip roofs are aerodynamic, a symmetrical pyramidal roof offers equal wind shedding performance across all four sides without a vulnerable long ridge line. Option D: Incorrect because flat roofs experience severe negative pressure and intense uplift forces across their leading edges during high-velocity cyclonic winds.

108. Q108STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     In which of the following places of Andhra Pradesh are Karst topography features seen?

     • aBojjonnakonda Caves
     • bUndavalli Caves
     • cBelum CavesAnswer
     • dErravaram Caves
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Belum Caves in Nandyal district are natural limestone caves exhibiting classic Karst topography features such as sinkholes, stalactites, stalagmites, and underground water passages. Option A: Bojjonnakonda Caves are man-made Buddhist rock-cut monuments, not solution-formed karst features. Option B: Undavalli Caves are monolithic rock-cut cave temples carved out of solid sandstone. Option D: Erravaram Caves are historic rock-cut Buddhist caves located along the Danavaigudem hillocks.

109. Q109STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     In which part of Andhra Pradesh are a major portion of Uranium reserves located?

     • aKadapa BasinAnswer
     • bRelieve Basin
     • cKrishna Basin
     • dGooty Basin
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Proterozoic Kadapa Basin, specifically the Tummalapalle region in the southwestern margin, hosts one of the largest uranium reserves in the world. Option B: Relieve Basin is not a recognized geological or mineral basin in Andhra Pradesh. Option C: Krishna Basin is known primarily for hydrocarbon deposits and limestone, not major uranium ore reserves. Option D: Gooty Basin is not an established uranium-bearing geological formation in the state.

110. Q110Ecology and ecosystems

     In ecosystem terminology, who are the major producers in a terrestrial ecosystem?

     • aHuman beings
     • bPhytoplankton
     • cHerbaceous and woody PlantsAnswer
     • dAll the given options
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because herbaceous and woody plants possess chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis on land, synthesizing organic biomass that supports all terrestrial life. Option A: Human beings are heterotrophs and consumers, not primary producers. Option B: Phytoplankton are microscopic photosynthetic organisms that act as primary producers in aquatic ecosystems, not terrestrial ones. Option D: All the given options is incorrect because only herbaceous and woody plants serve as terrestrial producers among the choices.

111. Q111Wildlife and forest conservation

     Which of the following is the traditional method of conservation of tree cover across communities in India?

     • aVan Mahotsav
     • bSacred GrovesAnswer
     • cGrowing plantations
     • dAdopt a tree per home
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because sacred groves represent an age-old community conservation tradition where forest tracts are dedicated to local deities and protected from exploitation by customary social rules. Option A: Van Mahotsav is a government-initiated annual tree-planting festival introduced in 1950, rather than an ancient community tradition. Option C: Growing plantations refers to structured modern silviculture or commercial cropping rather than indigenous habitat protection. Option D: Adopt a tree per home is a modern civic initiative rather than an indigenous community-led conservation system.

112. Q112Wildlife and forest conservation

     Which of the following is a traditional method of conservation of tree cover across communities in India ?

     • aVan Mahostav
     • bSacred grovesAnswer
     • cGrowing plantations
     • dAdopt a tree per home
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because sacred groves are patches of natural vegetation protected by indigenous and rural communities through cultural and religious traditions since ancient times. Option A: Van Mahotsav is a modern annual tree-planting festival launched by the Indian government in 1950, not a traditional community custom. Option C: Growing plantations is a commercial or modern afforestation practice rather than an indigenous community tradition. Option D: Adopt a tree per home is a contemporary urban environmental awareness initiative rather than a traditional conservation practice.

113. Q113Climate change: policy and response

     How many national missions have been started as part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change?

     • a7
     • b8Answer
     • c9
     • d10
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) created eight national missions to achieve its goals in mitigation and adaptation. Option A: Seven is incorrect as it omits one of the eight formally designated national missions. Option C: Nine is incorrect as additional proposed missions were not part of the formally enacted core framework. Option D: Ten is incorrect as it overstates the number of foundational missions established under the plan.

114. Q114Sustainable development goals

     What is the target ratio set by SDG for the reduction in poverty level by 2030?

     • aPoverty ratio to be below 10%
     • bPoverty ratio to be below 5%
     • cPoverty ratio to be below 12%
     • dThere should be no poverty in any formAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because SDG 1 explicitly aims to "End poverty in all its forms everywhere" by 2030, which sets an absolute target rather than merely capping the poverty ratio at a specific percentage. Option A: Poverty ratio to be below 10% is incorrect because the primary target seeks the complete eradication of extreme poverty rather than a 10% limit. Option B: Poverty ratio to be below 5% is incorrect because SDG 1 does not specify a 5% baseline ratio. Option C: Poverty ratio to be below 12% is incorrect because the international commitment is total elimination of extreme poverty in every form.

115. Q115Sustainable development goals

     What is the target ratio set by SDG for reduction in poverty level by 2030 ?

     • aPoverty ratio to be below 10%
     • bPoverty ratio to be below 5%
     • cPoverty ratio to be below 12%
     • dThere should be no poverty in any formAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Sustainable Development Goal 1 specifically aims to end poverty in all its forms everywhere by 2030, rather than targeting a non-zero residual percentage. Option A: SDG 1 sets the absolute target of eradicating extreme poverty and ending poverty in all dimensions, not a 10 percent threshold. Option B: SDG 1 does not specify a 5 percent poverty level as its official overarching goal. Option C: Setting a 12 percent poverty ceiling contradicts the universal eradicate-poverty mandate of the 2030 Agenda.

116. Q116STATE ENVIRONMENT: what the two states actually protect and pollute

     Out of the options below, which type of activities are taken up under the Neeru Chettu programme by Government of AP?

     • aTree plantation in government buildings
     • bDesiltation of minor irrigation tanks and channelsAnswer
     • cDevelopment of parks and community groves
     • dVana Mahostav
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because desiltation of minor irrigation tanks, supply channels, and feeder channels forms a core water conservation component under the Neeru-Chettu mission to restore water storage capacity. Option A: Plantation inside government premises was not the principal water-harvesting activity under Neeru-Chettu. Option C: Developing urban parks and community groves was outside the core mandate of desilting and water-structure renovation. Option D: Vana Mahotsavam is a broader annual national afforestation festival rather than a scheme-specific sub-activity of Neeru-Chettu.

117. Q117Social issues

     As stated in the Economic Survey 2016 – 17, what is the potential consequence experienced by a majority of women in a household not having toilets?

     • aReducing food intake
     • bReducing water intake
     • cTravelling long distance for toilet facilityAnswer
     • dSexual Assault

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

118. Q118Social movements after independence

     What is the objective of the Appiko movement?

     • aTo construct check dams to consere water
     • bTo construct steel bridge in rural area
     • cTo fight against corporate farming
     • dTo protect forestsAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Appiko movement, launched in 1983 in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka and inspired by Chipko, aimed to protect the natural forests of the Western Ghats from commercial felling. Option A: Constructing check dams for water harvesting was the focus of groups like Tarun Bharat Sangh, not Appiko. Option B: Rural bridge construction was never an objective of this environmental conservation movement. Option C: The movement was targeted against government-sanctioned tree felling and monoculture forestry, not corporate farming.

119. Q119Welfare mechanism

     A recent radical idea to overcome the problem of poor targeting and misallocation of social welfare schemes is that of?

     • aUniversal Basic IncomeAnswer
     • bDirect Beneficiary Transfer
     • cDirect allocation of funds to Local Bodies
     • dPrivatisation of all subsidy schemes
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Economic Survey 2016-17 conceptualised Universal Basic Income as a radical alternative to eliminate misallocation, leakage, and exclusion errors inherent in existing targeted welfare schemes. Option B: Direct Beneficiary Transfer is an electronic delivery mechanism for existing welfare benefits rather than a radical conceptual alternative to targeted welfare. Option C: Direct allocation of funds is a fiscal devolution mechanism rather than an individual welfare targeting reform. Option D: Privatisation refers to the transfer of service delivery to private actors, not a welfare model addressing entitlement targeting.

120. Q120Space technology

     As per the expectations of ISRO, which rocket would be a "game changer" in the operations of ISRO?

     • aGSLV-Mk-II-D2
     • bGSLV-Mk-III-D1Answer
     • cGSLV-Mk-IV-D1
     • dGSLV-Mk-III-D2
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the first developmental flight of GSLV Mk III, designated GSLV-Mk-III-D1 and launched on June 5, 2017, was widely described by ISRO as a game-changer because it enabled India to launch 4-tonne class satellites indigenously rather than relying on foreign launch providers. Option A: GSLV-Mk-II-D2 refers to an earlier vehicle class that did not introduce the heavy-lift cryogenic capability of the Mk-III series. Option C: GSLV-Mk-IV-D1 is a non-existent launch vehicle designation, as ISRO has not developed a Mark-IV rocket. Option D: GSLV-Mk-III-D2 was the second developmental flight in November 2018, which followed the breakthrough maiden flight D1.