TGPSC Group-I Prelims 1983

170 questions from the 1983 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The work of the drafting of Indian Constitution completed on

    • a9th December, 1946
    • b15th August, 1947
    • c26th November, 1949Answer
    • d26th January, 1950
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constituent Assembly completed the drafting process and adopted the Constitution on 26th November, 1949. 9 December 1946: First meeting of the Constituent Assembly 29 August 1947: Drafting Committee appointed 26 November 1949: Drafting completed and Constitution adopted 26 January 1950: Constitution came into force Option A: 9th December, 1946 was the date of the very first meeting of the Constituent Assembly. Option B: 15th August, 1947 was the date India achieved independence, well before the draft was prepared. Option D: 26th January, 1950 was the date of commencement of the Constitution, two months after the drafting was finalized.

42. Q42Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    On what date was the work of drafting the Indian Constitution completed?

    • aDecember 9, 1946
    • bAugust 15, 1947
    • cNovember 26, 1949Answer
    • dJanuary 26, 1950
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constituent Assembly completed the drafting of the Constitution and adopted it on November 26, 1949. December 9, 1946: First session of the Constituent Assembly August 15, 1947: Attainment of Indian Independence November 26, 1949: Completion of drafting, adoption, and enactment of the Constitution January 26, 1950: Full commencement of the Constitution of India Option A: December 9, 1946 was the date on which the Constituent Assembly met for the first time, not the completion date. Option B: August 15, 1947 marks India's independence from British colonial rule. Option D: January 26, 1950 marks the commencement of the Constitution as a whole, celebrated as Republic Day.

43. Q43The Preamble

    The wording of the preamble to the Indian Constitution is

    • aSovereign Democratic Republic
    • bSovereign Socialist Secular Democratic RepublicAnswer
    • cFederal Democratic Country
    • dDemocratic Republic Country
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Preamble defines India as a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic following the incorporation of the words Socialist and Secular. Original text in 1950: Sovereign Democratic Republic 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976: added Socialist, Secular, and Integrity Present text: Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic Option A: This reflects the phrasing prior to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Option C: The words Federal and Country are not part of the Preamble's declaration. Option D: This phrasing omits Sovereign, Socialist, and Secular, which are essential parts of the text.

44. Q44The Preamble

    The terms in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution are.

    • aSovereign Democratic Republic
    • bSovereign Socialist Secular Democratic RepublicAnswer
    • cFederal Democratic Country
    • dDemocratic Republic Country
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the opening declaration of the Preamble resolves to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. Original 1950 text: Sovereign Democratic Republic 42nd Amendment Act, 1976: Added Socialist, Secular, and Integrity Current text: Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic Option A: This reflects the original 1950 wording before the inclusion of Socialist and Secular. Option C: The words Federal and Country are absent from the text of the Preamble. Option D: This omits Sovereign, Socialist, and Secular, and substitutes Country for Republic.

45. Q45Fundamental Rights

    An order from the Court to any official to show his right to the office is called

    • aHabeast Corpus
    • bWrit of Certiorari
    • cWrit of Quo WarrantoAnswer
    • dWrit of officialKy
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Quo Warranto literally means by what authority or warrant, and it is issued by the court to prevent illegal usurpation of a substantive public office by an official. Option A: Habeas Corpus is a writ issued to secure the release of a person unlawfully detained. Option B: Certiorari is a writ issued to quash an illegal order passed by a judicial or quasi-judicial body. Option D: Writ of officialKy is an invented phrase and does not exist in constitutional law.

46. Q46Fundamental Rights

    What is the order by which a court directs an officer to prove his right to his office called?

    • aHabeas Corpus
    • bCertiorari Writ
    • cQuo Warranto WritAnswer
    • dAdhisippiyality Writ
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the writ of Quo Warranto literally means by what warrant and calls upon the holder of a public office to demonstrate their legal title and right to hold that office. Option A: Habeas Corpus requires a detained person to be brought before a court to test the lawfulness of the detention. Option B: Certiorari Writ quashes orders passed by lower courts or tribunals lacking jurisdiction. Option D: Adhisippiyality Writ is a fictitious term unknown to Indian constitutional law.

47. Q47The Union executive

    The President of India is eligible to seek re-election

    • aTwo times
    • bThree times
    • cFour times
    • dAny number of timesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Article 57 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides that a person holding or who has held the office of President is eligible for re-election without any limit on the number of terms. Article 56 prescribes a five-year term of office for the President Article 57 declares a person eligible for re-election to the office without any numerical limit Option A: A two-term limit is a constitutional restriction in the United States under the 22nd Amendment, but no such limit exists in India. Option B: The Indian Constitution does not cap presidential terms at three. Option C: There is no four-term restriction prescribed under Indian law.

48. Q48The Union executive

    The Lok Sabha is dissolved by the

    • aSpeaker
    • bPresidentAnswer
    • cVice President
    • dPrime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution, the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha is vested exclusively in the President, acting on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. Option A: The Speaker presides over the House and can adjourn sittings or adjourn the House sine die, but lacks the power of dissolution. Option C: The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and has no power over the dissolution of either House. Option D: The Prime Minister advises the President to dissolve the House, but does not possess the constitutional authority to dissolve it directly.

49. Q49The Union executive

    Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces of India?

    • aDefence Minister
    • bPresidentAnswer
    • cVice-President
    • dPrime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 53(2) explicitly vests the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union in the President of India. Article 53(1): Executive power of the Union is vested in the President Article 53(2): Supreme command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President Option A: The Defence Minister is the political executive heading the Ministry of Defence, not the constitutional Supreme Commander. Option C: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and possesses no military command authority. Option D: The Prime Minister is the head of the Union cabinet, but the Constitution vests supreme military command in the President.

50. Q50The Union executive

    How many times is the President of India eligible for re-election?

    • aTwo times
    • bThree times
    • cFour times
    • dAny number of timesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Article 57 of the Constitution provides that a person who holds, or who has held, office as President is eligible for re-election to that office any number of times without any term ceiling. Article 56 establishes the presidential term as five years Article 57 permits eligibility for re-election without placing any numerical limit Option A: Two terms is a statutory limit under the US Constitution, but the Indian Constitution imposes no such cap. Option B: Three times is not a limit found in the Indian Constitution. Option C: Four times is an arbitrary limitation without any constitutional basis.

51. Q51The Union executive

    Who dissolves the Lok Sabha?

    • aPrime Minister
    • bSpeaker
    • cMinister of Home Affairs
    • dPresident on the advice of the Prime MinisterAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution, the President dissolves the Lok Sabha, acting on the binding advice of the Prime Minister and the Union Council of Ministers. Article 85(2)(b) empowers the President to dissolve the House of the People Article 74 mandates that the President acts on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers Option A: The Prime Minister cannot dissolve the House directly, but can only recommend its dissolution to the President. Option B: The Speaker has the authority to adjourn sittings or adjourn the House sine die, but lacks the power of dissolution. Option C: The Minister of Home Affairs possesses no constitutional power regarding the dissolution of Parliament.

52. Q52The Union executive

    The Vice President of India is

    • anominated by the President
    • belected by the electoral collegeAnswer
    • cappointed by the Prime Minister
    • dselected through none of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 66(1) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Vice-President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Article 66(1): Vice-President is elected by an electoral college of all members of both Houses of Parliament Electoral system: Proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote through secret ballot Option A: The Vice-President is an elected constitutional functionary and is not nominated by the President. Option C: The Prime Minister has no constitutional authority to appoint the Vice-President. Option D: This is incorrect because the Constitution clearly specifies election by an electoral college.

53. Q53The Union executive

    The Vice-President of India is ..........

    • anominated by the President
    • belected by an Electoral CollegeAnswer
    • cappointed by the Prime Minister
    • dnot elected by any of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 66 of the Constitution provides that the Vice-President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Option A: Wrongly claims the office is nominated, whereas it is an elective constitutional post. Option C: Wrongly claims appointment by the Prime Minister, which does not apply to constitutional executive heads. Option D: Fails to recognize that an Electoral College is explicitly designated by the Constitution for this election.

54. Q54The Union executive

    The Prime Minister of India is

    • aThe Chairman of Rajya Sabha
    • bLeader of the majority party int he Lok SabhaAnswer
    • cVice President of the Ruling Party
    • dPresident of the Ruling Party
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under the parliamentary system established by the Constitution of India, the leader of the party or coalition commanding a majority in the Lok Sabha is invited by the President to form the government as Prime Minister. Option A: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, not the Prime Minister. Option C: The Prime Minister holds an executive constitutional post rather than a party office like Vice President of the ruling party. Option D: The presidency of a political party is an organizational post distinct from the constitutional office of the Prime Minister.

55. Q55The Union executive

    The Prime Minister of India is the __________.

    • aChairman of Rajya Sabha
    • bLeader of the majority party in Lok SabhaAnswer
    • cVice-President of the ruling party
    • dPresident of the ruling party
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because, by established constitutional convention in India's parliamentary democracy, the Prime Minister is the leader of the party or coalition commanding a majority in the Lok Sabha. Option A: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Article 64, not the Prime Minister. Option C: Vice-President of the ruling party is an internal political party post and has no constitutional connection to the office of Prime Minister. Option D: President of the ruling party is an organizational post within a political party, which is distinct from the constitutional post of Prime Minister.

56. Q56Parliament and the state legislatures

    The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is the

    • aSpeaker
    • bPresident
    • cVice PresidentAnswer
    • dPrime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Constitution designates the Vice-President of India as the ex-officio Chairman and presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha. Article 64: The Vice-President shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States Article 89(1): The Vice-President of India shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States Option A: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. Option B: The President is the executive head of the Union and does not preside over legislative sittings. Option D: The Prime Minister is the head of government and leader of the House or majority party, not a presiding officer.

57. Q57Parliament and the state legislatures

    Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?

    • aSpeaker
    • bPresident
    • cVice-PresidentAnswer
    • dPrime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Vice-President of India is designated as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Article 64 and Article 89(1) of the Constitution. Article 64: The Vice-President shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States. Article 89(1): Reiterates that the Vice-President of India presides over the Rajya Sabha. Option A: The Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. Option B: The President does not preside over either House of Parliament. Option D: The Prime Minister is the head of the executive government and the leader of the House in whichever House they belong to, not its presiding officer.

58. Q58The judiciary

    Supreme Court's verdict in the Bachan Singh case

    • aUpholds the death penalty in the rarest of rare cases.Answer
    • bUpholds the government order reducing the retirement age.
    • cProvides assistance to rape victims.
    • dUpholds the Constitution.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab upheld the constitutional validity of the death penalty under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, enunciating the principle that capital punishment must be restricted to the rarest of rare cases. Option B: The judgment did not examine administrative rules regarding employee retirement ages. Option C: Delhi Domestic Working Women's Forum v. Union of India formulated assistance and rehabilitation measures for rape victims. Option D: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala dealt with constitutional supremacy and the Basic Structure doctrine.

59. Q59The state government

    What is the tenure of the State Governor?

    • a6
    • b5Answer
    • c7
    • d4
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 156(3) of the Indian Constitution, a Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office, subject to the pleasure of the President. Article 156(1): Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. Article 156(3): Normal tenure of the Governor is five years. Option A: A six-year term applies to members of the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils, not the Governor. Option C: Seven years is not a prescribed constitutional tenure for any public office in India. Option D: Four years is the term of certain foreign offices like the US President, not the Governor of an Indian State.

60. Q60Federalism and centre-state relations

    The Commission set up by the Central Government to examine Centre State relations is the

    • aSarkaria CommissionAnswer
    • bMohan Commission
    • cPadmanabhan Commission
    • dSadasivan Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Sarkaria Commission, headed by retired Supreme Court Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria, was set up by the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1983 to examine and recommend reforms in Centre-State relations. Option B: Mohan Commission is not a commission constituted by the Central Government to address Centre-State relations. Option C: Padmanabhan Commission was a committee appointed to suggest police reforms, not federal issues. Option D: Sadasivan Commission is not an appointed body for reviewing relations between the Union and the States.

61. Q61Federalism and centre-state relations

    The Commission constituted by the Central Government to examine Centre-State relations.

    • aSarkaria CommissionAnswer
    • bMohan Commission
    • cPadmanabha Commission
    • dSadasiva Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the Central Government in 1983 to review and suggest changes to the working of Centre-State relations. Option B: Mohan Commission was not constituted for Centre-State relations. Option C: Padmanabha Commission dealt with police reforms and criminal justice matters. Option D: Sadasiva Commission was set up to study internal reservations within Scheduled Castes in Karnataka.

62. Q62India's foreign policy and international relations

    What is the geopolitical importance of India?

    • aIts highest population
    • bIts high agricultural production
    • cIts ancient culture
    • dIts size and locationAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because geopolitics examines how geographical factors influence international relations and power dynamics; India's vast size and central location in South Asia and the Indian Ocean give it immense strategic importance. Option A: refers to a demographic metric rather than a defining geographical factor of international relations. Option B: relates to domestic agricultural output rather than spatial and strategic positioning. Option C: represents cultural heritage rather than geopolitical or territorial influence.

63. Q63India's foreign policy and international relations

    What is the specialty of the Word conference, which is different from the Comecon conference?

    • aIt is a meeting of Communist leaders
    • bIndia did not participate in itAnswer
    • cIndia should not participate in it
    • dIt is a meeting of poor countries of the world

    Explanation coming soon.

64. Q64India's foreign policy and international relations

    What is the other country in SAARC along with India, Maldives, Bhutan, Nepal, Pakistan, and Bangladesh?

    • aMadagascar
    • bCuba
    • cSri LankaAnswer
    • dDenmark
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Sri Lanka is a founding member of SAARC, representing one of the South Asian nations along with India, Maldives, Bhutan, Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan. Option A: Madagascar is an island nation located in the Indian Ocean off the coast of East Africa, not part of South Asia or SAARC. Option B: Cuba is a Caribbean island nation and belongs to Latin American regional organizations. Option D: Denmark is a Scandinavian country in northern Europe and a member of the European Union.

65. Q65India's foreign policy and international relations

    Who presided over the Seventh Non-Aligned Movement conference?

    • aSmt. Indira GandhiAnswer
    • bDr. Fidel Castro
    • cSri K. Natwar Singh
    • dSri Raul Roa Kouri
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the 7th Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement was held in New Delhi in March 1983, and as the host country's Prime Minister, Smt. Indira Gandhi presided over it. 7th NAM Summit year: 1983 Host city: New Delhi, India Chairperson: Smt. Indira Gandhi Option B: Dr. Fidel Castro presided over the 6th NAM Summit held in Havana in 1979. Option C: Sri K. Natwar Singh served as the Secretary-General of the 7th NAM Summit, not its presiding Chairperson. Option D: Sri Raul Roa Kouri was a Cuban diplomat and representative, not the president of the conference.

66. Q66What an economy is measured by

    What is the current saving rate in the Indian economy?

    • a22 percent
    • b18 percentAnswer
    • c18 percent
    • d10 percent

    Explanation coming soon.

67. Q67What an economy is measured by

    Which sector in India provides the highest proportion of saving amounts?

    • aBanking
    • bCorporate
    • cHousehold sectorAnswer
    • dPublic sector
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the household sector contributes the highest proportion of savings in India, comprising both physical assets and financial assets such as bank deposits, life insurance, and provident funds. Option A: Banking acts as a financial intermediary that mobilizes and allocates savings rather than serving as an institutional sector that generates net domestic savings. Option B: The corporate sector generates substantial internal business savings, but its share remains secondary to the total volume saved by households. Option D: The public sector, which includes general government administration and public enterprises, accounts for the smallest share of total domestic savings and frequently registers net dis-savings.

68. Q68Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Which sector had the highest plan outlay in the Union Budget 1983-84?

    • aAgriculture
    • bSpecial Area Programme
    • cScience and Technology
    • dEnergyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the energy sector was prioritized during the Sixth Five Year Plan (1980-85) to achieve self-reliance following global oil shocks, thereby receiving the highest budgetary plan outlay in 1983-84. Option A: Agriculture received significant priority but had an outlay lower than the energy sector in 1983-84. Option B: Special Area Programme allocations were comparatively small, targeted interventions. Option C: Science and Technology formed a very small percentage of the total annual plan outlay.

69. Q69Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Who formulated the Mahalanobis model, which was used as the basis for India's Second Five-Year Plan?

    • aAnek Nove
    • bL.V. Natorao
    • cG.A. FeldmanAnswer
    • dV.S. Nemvina
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Mahalanobis four-sector model of economic development was structurally identical to the two-sector growth model independently developed by Soviet economist G.A. Feldman in 1928, which is why it is often referred to as the Feldman-Mahalanobis model. Option A: Alec Nove was a British economic historian famous for his works on Soviet economics, not the originator of the heavy-industry growth model. Option B: L.V. Natorao is an incorrect name with no contribution to the development of the Mahalanobis planning framework. Option D: V.S. Nemvina is a distractor and not associated with the formulation of the Soviet structural growth model.

70. Q70Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Due to the sector-wise distribution of public sector expenditure, it is known that 25 percent was spent on _____ during the Fifth Five-Year Plan period.

    • aAgriculture, Irrigation
    • bTransport, Communication
    • cElectricityAnswer
    • dIndustry

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

71. Q71Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    What was the projected current saving rate in the Sixth Plan?

    • a7.6
    • b5.2Answer
    • c4.4
    • d2.5
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Sixth Five Year Plan (1980-1985) document projected the public sector current saving rate at 5.2 percent of gross domestic product. Option A: 7.6 percent was not the projected current saving rate in the Sixth Plan macroeconomic framework. Option C: 4.4 percent does not correspond to the targeted rate for current savings in the plan projections. Option D: 2.5 percent is substantially below the target envisaged by the Planning Commission.

72. Q72Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    By what means is the largest share of the total outlay of India's Five-Year Plans mobilized?

    • aDirect taxes
    • bDeficit financing
    • cForeign loans
    • dIndirect taxesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because within the domestic budgetary resources mobilized for financing India's Five-Year Plans, indirect taxes constituted the largest single contributor to public revenues and plan outlays. Option A: Direct taxes contributed a much smaller fraction of domestic plan resources because the direct tax base remained extremely narrow throughout the planning decades. Option B: Deficit financing was used as a supplementary measure to bridge gaps and was kept within limits to avoid severe inflation. Option C: Foreign loans and external assistance provided valuable foreign exchange but only accounted for a modest share of the overall plan outlay.

73. Q73Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    The targeted export growth rate in the Sixth Five-Year Plan was approximately ........

    • a10Answer
    • b8
    • c5.5
    • d4.5
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Sixth Five Year Plan (1980-1985) set a targeted annual export volume growth rate of approximately 9 to 10 percent to maintain balance of payments stability. Sixth Plan period: 1980 to 1985 Targeted export volume growth rate: approximately 10 percent per annum Option B: 8 percent underestimates the target laid down in the official plan document. Option C: 5.5 percent corresponds roughly to the targeted overall GDP growth rate of the Sixth Plan, not the export target. Option D: 4.5 percent is far below the projected expansion rate necessary to finance imported crude oil and capital goods at the time.

74. Q74Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Currently, the total food grain production in the country (including drought grains)

    • aBetween 130 - 135 million tonnes
    • bBetween 10 - 20 million tonnes
    • cBetween 200 - 240 million tonnesAnswer
    • dBetween 80 - 90 million tonnes
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because at the time this exam was conducted, India's annual food grain output consistently hovered in the range of 200 to 240 million tonnes. Option A: Between 130 - 135 million tonnes reflects production figures typical of the late 1970s and early 1980s. Option B: Between 10 - 20 million tonnes is far too low and represents only a fraction of any single major cereal crop. Option D: Between 80 - 90 million tonnes reflects production levels seen in the 1960s prior to the full impact of the Green Revolution.

75. Q75Industry in the Indian economy

    In India's public sector, the major portion of large investment is allocated for the development of ........

    • aConsumer goods industries
    • bMinistry of Defence
    • cHeavy producer goods industriesAnswer
    • dNon-domestic producer goods industry
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy prioritized the development of capital goods, directing the largest share of public sector investment into heavy producer goods industries like steel, power, coal, and heavy machinery to build a self-reliant industrial base. Option A: Consumer goods industries were largely assigned to the private sector and received minimal direct public capital allocation. Option B: The Ministry of Defence receives budgetary defence allocations for security operations and equipment, not commercial public sector enterprise investment. Option D: Non-domestic producer goods is not a recognized economic category under India's Five-Year Plan strategies.

76. Q76Industry in the Indian economy

    The prominent system in Indian industry.

    • aCooperative sectors
    • bJoint Stock CompanyAnswer
    • cPartnership
    • dOwnership
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Joint Stock Company is the most prominent system in organized Indian industry, allowing large-scale mobilization of capital, limited liability, and perpetual succession. Option A: Cooperative sectors are limited largely to specific processing industries like sugar, textiles, and dairy. Option C: Partnership suffers from unlimited liability and small capital constraints, restricting it to small and medium enterprises. Option D: Ownership as sole proprietorship is confined to micro businesses and the unorganized sector.

77. Q77Industry in the Indian economy

    Units with gross fixed capital of Rs. ........ lakhs are referred to as small establishments.

    • a20
    • b15
    • c7.5
    • d5Answer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

78. Q78Money, banking and financial markets

    The reason for gradually phasing out small coins.

    • aLack of security in carrying them
    • bEven beggars do not take them
    • cTheir production cost is higher than their valueAnswer
    • dPeople turning them into decorative items
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because inflation caused the face value of small coins such as 25 paise and below to fall below the intrinsic cost of the metal used to mint them, creating an incentive for illegal melting and rendering their production economically unviable. Option A: Security issues in carrying coins did not influence the withdrawal decision. Option B: Informal acceptance patterns are a symptom of inflation rather than the economic cause for government demonetisation. Option D: The conversion of coins into decorative items was not the primary macroeconomic driver behind the phase-out.

79. Q79The Earth in the solar system

    Indian Standard Time is referred to the _______ longitude.

    • a85° East
    • b82 1/2° EastAnswer
    • c80° East
    • d88° West
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because 82 1/2° East longitude is the standard meridian chosen to provide a uniform time across all regions of India. Option A: 85° East is incorrect because it lies east of the reference meridian adopted by India. Option C: 80° East is incorrect because it lies west of the designated standard meridian. Option D: 88° West is incorrect because it is situated in the Western Hemisphere.

80. Q80Atmosphere, weather and climate

    If the Indianness of monsoons is excluded, they are part of _______.

    • aLand and sea breezesAnswer
    • bTrade winds
    • cWesterlies
    • dLocal winds

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.