TGPSC Group-I Prelims 1983

170 questions from the 1983 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Where is Vandavaramelam located in India?

    • aGodavari Valley
    • bPunjab
    • cMiddle Ganga ValleyAnswer
    • dMaharashtra

    Explanation coming soon.

82. Q82India: physiography, drainage and climate

    What is the southernmost part of India?

    • aKanyakumari
    • bNicobar IslandAnswer
    • cHyderabad
    • dNagercoil
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the southernmost point of the entire Indian territory is Indira Point, located in the Great Nicobar Island at 6°45' N latitude. Indira Point in Great Nicobar Island: 6°45' N latitude Cape Comorin at Kanyakumari: 8°4' N latitude Option A: Kanyakumari is the southernmost tip of the Indian mainland, not of the Indian territory as a whole. Option C: Hyderabad is a landlocked city situated in the Deccan plateau in Telangana. Option D: Nagercoil is a town in mainland Tamil Nadu located just north of Kanyakumari.

83. Q83India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Where was the sinking coastal area discovered?

    • aCoromandel Coast
    • bKonkan Coast
    • cKerala CoastAnswer
    • dSouth Canara Coast

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

84. Q84India: physiography, drainage and climate

    The reason why all major peninsular rivers flow eastward, while Narmada and Tapi rivers flow westward.

    • aLava flow
    • bFold
    • cRift valleyAnswer
    • dVindhya Satpura mountains
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Narmada and Tapi rivers flow westward through structural rift valleys formed by faulting, whereas the rest of the peninsula slopes gently towards the east. Option A: Lava flow created the basaltic trap formations of the Deccan but did not dictate the westward flow of these rivers. Option B: Fold refers to buckling during mountain-building, while these valleys were formed by crustal faulting. Option D: Vindhya Satpura mountains flank the Narmada, but the westward flow is specifically caused by the structural rift valley between them.

85. Q85India: physiography, drainage and climate

    The region that receives high rainfall due to the Northeast Monsoon.

    • aTamil Nadu coastAnswer
    • bAssam
    • cGanga plain
    • dKashmir
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the northeast monsoon winds blow over the Bay of Bengal, pick up moisture, and strike the Tamil Nadu coast, bringing the majority of its annual precipitation between October and December. Option B: Assam receives almost all of its rain from the southwest monsoon and pre-monsoon thunderstorms rather than the northeast monsoon. Option C: Ganga plain receives its main rainfall during the southwest monsoon, along with minor winter rain from western disturbances. Option D: Kashmir receives winter precipitation primarily in the form of rain and snow from western disturbances coming from the Mediterranean region.

86. Q86Natural resources and their distribution

    India has the highest reserves of _____ in the entire world.

    • aCoal
    • bMicaAnswer
    • cIron ore
    • dBauxite
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because India holds the largest reserves and is one of the leading global producers and exporters of sheet mica. Option A: India has large coal deposits but ranks behind the United States, Russia, China, and Australia in total world reserves. Option C: Australia and Brazil hold far larger iron ore reserves globally than India. Option D: Guinea and Australia possess the largest bauxite reserves in the world, far exceeding India.

87. Q87Natural resources and their distribution

    Which state is in the leading position in India in terms of quality and quantity, above in mining?

    • aAndhra PradeshAnswer
    • bBihar
    • cRajasthan
    • dTamil Nadu

    Explanation coming soon.

88. Q88Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

    What is the name of the science that promotes honey production?

    • aApicultureAnswer
    • bSericulture
    • cHorticulture
    • dAgriculture
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because apiculture is the scientific study, management, and rearing of honeybees for the production of honey and other hive products. Option B: Sericulture is the commercial rearing of silkworms for raw silk production rather than honey. Option C: Horticulture is the branch of agriculture dealing with the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, flowers, and ornamental plants. Option D: Agriculture is the broader discipline encompassing the cultivation of soil, crop production, and raising of livestock.

89. Q89Population, settlement and human geography

    According to the recent census

    • a20 percent of the population lives in urban areas
    • b18.6 percent of the population lives in urban areasAnswer
    • c76.5 percent of the population lives in rural areas
    • d0.5 percent of the population lives in urban areas

    Explanation coming soon.

90. Q90Population, settlement and human geography

    Among the following states in India, in which state is urbanization highest?

    • aTamil Nadu
    • bAndhra Pradesh
    • cMaharashtraAnswer
    • dUttar Pradesh

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

91. Q91World regional geography

    Which region in Sri Lanka has the highest concentration of Indian people?

    • aColombo
    • bAnuradhapura
    • cJaffnaAnswer
    • dMannar
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Jaffna Peninsula in northern Sri Lanka is the historic heartland of the Tamil-speaking population of Indian cultural and ethnic origin, representing the densest concentration of this community in the country. Option A: Colombo is multi-ethnic and predominantly Sinhalese in its broader metropolitan area. Option B: Anuradhapura is situated in the North Central Province and is heavily dominated by the Sinhalese majority. Option D: Mannar has a sizable Tamil presence, but its total population and concentration are far lower than those of the Jaffna district.

92. Q92Mapping India: the Survey of India, remote sensing and applied geography

    The Sagar Kanya is the name of

    • aThe Oceanographic research vessel India has boughtAnswer
    • bA satellite constructed at SAAR
    • cA ship employed by the Coast guards
    • dA new high yielding variety of wheat
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because ORV Sagar Kanya is an oceanographic research vessel built in Germany and acquired by India in 1983, operated by the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Option B: A satellite constructed at SAAR is incorrect because Sagar Kanya is a marine vessel rather than an artificial satellite or space payload. Option C: A ship employed by the Coast guards is incorrect because the ship is a civilian scientific research platform, not a military or maritime law enforcement patrol craft. Option D: A new high yielding variety of wheat is incorrect because Sagar Kanya is an ocean vessel, not an agricultural crop cultivar.

93. Q93Mapping India: the Survey of India, remote sensing and applied geography

    What is named as Sagarakanya?

    • aOceanographic research vessel discovered by IndiaAnswer
    • bSatellite built in SHAR
    • cA ship used by the Coast Guard
    • dHigh-yielding Gogu variety
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because ORV Sagar Kanya is a well-known Indian oceanographic research vessel operated by the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Option B: Sagar Kanya is a research ship, not an artificial satellite constructed at Sriharikota (SHAR). Option C: It is a dedicated scientific research vessel, not an operational patrol or defence vessel of the Indian Coast Guard. Option D: It denotes an oceanographic vessel, not an agricultural cultivar or variety of Gogu (kenaf/roselle).

94. Q94Mapping India: the Survey of India, remote sensing and applied geography

    Cloud seeding is

    • aCauses rainAnswer
    • bGrows plants in space
    • cIncreases rain only
    • dChanges the direction of clouds
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because cloud seeding is a deliberate weather modification technique that introduces artificial condensation nuclei into clouds to induce precipitation and produce rain. Option B: Incorrect because cloud seeding is an atmospheric weather modification method and has no connection with cultivating plants in outer space. Option C: Incorrect because cloud seeding can trigger rainfall in unprecipitated cloud systems, disperse fog, or suppress hail, rather than solely increasing ongoing rain. Option D: Incorrect because cloud seeding alters the internal microphysical condensation processes of clouds and does not redirect wind currents or steer cloud paths.

95. Q95STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    The objective of the Telugu Ganga project.

    • aTo take Kaveri waters to Hyderabad
    • bTo take Krishna waters to Nellore
    • cTo take Krishna waters to MadrasAnswer
    • dTo take Ganga waters to Tamil Nadu
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Telugu Ganga project was envisioned in 1983 as an interstate initiative to draw Krishna River waters to Chennai (Madras) to fulfill its drinking water requirements, while providing irrigation to drought-prone areas of Rayalaseema. Option A: The project draws water from the Krishna basin at Srisailam, not the Kaveri, and supplies Chennai rather than Hyderabad. Option B: While the canal route irrigates portions of Nellore, the primary defining objective of the interstate pact was meeting the drinking water shortage of Madras. Option D: The project has no connection to the River Ganga; it diverts water from the Krishna River.

96. Q96STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    The region in Andhra Pradesh where Badami Chalukya temples are located.

    • aTadipatri
    • bGhantasala
    • cChittoor
    • dAlampurAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Alampur, historically considered the western gateway of Srisailam in undivided Andhra Pradesh, is home to the renowned Navabrahma group of temples constructed by the Badami Chalukyas during the 7th and 8th centuries. Option A: Tadipatri features temples built predominantly during the Vijayanagara empire, not the Badami Chalukya period. Option B: Ghantasala is an ancient Buddhist settlement dating back to the Satavahana era, not a site of Badami Chalukya temples. Option C: Chittoor contains Pallava, Chola, and Vijayanagara architectural influences rather than Badami Chalukya temples.

97. Q97Pollution and its control

    Atmospheric pollution is caused by the excessive presence of this:

    • aCarbon monoxideAnswer
    • bOxygen
    • cHydrogen
    • dNone of these
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because carbon monoxide is a toxic atmospheric pollutant that binds strongly to hemoglobin, disrupting oxygen transport in the body and harming ecosystems when present in excess. Option B: Oxygen is a fundamental atmospheric gas necessary for the survival of aerobic organisms and does not cause pollution. Option C: Hydrogen is a harmless trace atmospheric constituent that does not act as an environmental contaminant. Option D: None of these is incorrect because carbon monoxide is a major criteria air pollutant.

98. Q98Science, technology and society

    Who is the Indian-origin doctor who received the Nobel Prize in recognition of his work in Genetic Engineering?

    • aDr. J.C. Bose
    • bDr. H.G. KhoranaAnswer
    • cDr. C.V. Raman
    • dDr. Raja Ramanna
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Dr. Har Gobind Khorana was an Indian-born American biochemist who shared the 1968 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for cracking the genetic code and synthesising artificial genes, pioneering modern genetic engineering. Option A: Dr. J.C. Bose made foundational contributions to plant physiology and microwave radio technology, but was never awarded a Nobel Prize. Option C: Dr. C.V. Raman won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930 for his work on the scattering of light. Option D: Dr. Raja Ramanna was a prominent nuclear scientist who led India's first peaceful nuclear explosive test in 1974.

99. Q99Space technology

    Rakesh Sharma and Ravish Malhotra are

    • aWorld class openers
    • bAntarctica team members
    • cGhazal singers
    • dIAF test pilots undergoing training USSR for space flight.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma and Air Commodore Ravish Malhotra were Indian Air Force test pilots selected in 1982 to undergo cosmonaut training in Star City, USSR, for the joint Indo-Soviet Soyuz T-11 spaceflight mission. Option A: Neither officer was a professional cricket player. Option B: Both officers were trained for space exploration, not scientific expeditions to Antarctica. Option C: Both men are decorated military aviators and cosmonauts, not vocal performers.

100. Q100Space technology

     What is the BLAST-10 orbit called?

     • aHeliocentric
     • bGeostationary orbitAnswer
     • cHelio stationary orbit
     • dNone of these

     Explanation coming soon.

101. Q101Space technology

     Rakesh Sharma, Ravish Malhotra are

     • aworld-renowned owners
     • bmembers of the Antarctica team
     • cGhazal singers
     • dIAF test pilots training in Russia for space travelAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Rakesh Sharma and Ravish Malhotra were Indian Air Force test pilots selected to train in the Soviet Union for India's first joint manned spaceflight mission. Option A: They were military aviators and astronaut-trainees rather than business owners. Option B: Their mission was focused on orbital spaceflight rather than the Indian Antarctic Program. Option C: They served in military aviation and spaceflight instead of music or the arts.

102. Q102Space technology

     The orbit of INSAT - I B is said to be :

     • aHeliocentric
     • bGeo-stationaryAnswer
     • cHeliostationary
     • dNone of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because INSAT-1B was placed in a geostationary orbit at approximately 36,000 km altitude above the equator to maintain a fixed position over India for continuous telecommunications and meteorological observations. Option A: Heliocentric describes an orbit around the Sun, whereas INSAT-1B revolves around the Earth. Option C: Heliostationary describes an orbit stationary relative to the Sun, which does not apply to Earth-monitoring satellites. Option D: None of the above is incorrect because geostationary orbit correctly defines the orbit of INSAT-1B.

103. Q103Space technology

     The Indian National Programmes are telecast via

     • aIntelsat-1Answer
     • bRohini
     • cStationar - 6
     • dIntelsat - 4

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

104. Q104Space technology

     Through what are Indian national programs broadcast?

     • aINTELSATAnswer
     • bRohini
     • cStationer
     • dIndir Sat4
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because before the full establishment of dedicated domestic communication satellites, early Indian national television and telecommunication programs were relayed by leasing transponders on the INTELSAT (International Telecommunications Satellite Organization) system. Option B: Rohini was an early experimental satellite series launched by SLV-3 for technology testing, not for broadcasting national television networks. Option C: Stationer is not an Indian satellite or telecommunications network. Option D: Indir Sat4 is a fictitious name not associated with Indian space program missions.

105. Q105Space technology

     Among the following, who/what is named Anuradha?

     • aA film actress
     • bA government hotel in Delhi
     • cFor India's space experiment to study Anomalous Ultra-energy Cosmic RaysAnswer
     • dFor a technical method related to removing salts from water
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Anuradha was an Indian cosmic ray experiment developed by TIFR and ISRO that flew aboard NASA's Space Shuttle Spacelab-3 mission in 1985 to study anomalous low-energy cosmic ray ions. Option A: Anuradha in this scientific context designates a space-borne cosmic ray detector, not a film personality. Option B: Anuradha does not refer to a government-run hotel in Delhi. Option D: Anuradha has no connection to water treatment, reverse osmosis, or desalination processes.

106. Q106Space technology

     Which spacecraft, launched by America in 1972 to observe Jupiter, is still in orbit?

     • aCosmos 1402
     • bPioneer 10Answer
     • cCosmos 1445
     • dUppercut
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Pioneer 10 was launched by NASA in March 1972, completed the first mission to Jupiter, and remains on an escape trajectory wandering interstellar space. Option A: Incorrect because Kosmos 1402 was a Soviet radar reconnaissance satellite powered by a nuclear reactor that re-entered Earth's atmosphere in 1983. Option C: Incorrect because Kosmos 1445 was a Soviet test orbital vehicle. Option D: Incorrect because Uppercut was a series of American nuclear tests, not an interplanetary probe.

107. Q107Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     A child is given "Triple Antigen" within one year. Why?

     • aTo provide protection from Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Whooping CoughAnswer
     • bTo provide protection from Diphtheria, Malaria, and Cholera
     • cTo provide protection from Diphtheria, Polio, and Malaria
     • dTo provide protection from Chickenpox, Malaria, and Filariasis
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Triple Antigen, administered as the DPT vaccine in early childhood immunization schedules, protects infants against diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), and tetanus. Option B: The formulation does not confer immunity against malaria, which is protozoan, or cholera, which is caused by Vibrio cholerae. Option C: Protection against polio is provided separately by OPV or IPV, and malaria cannot be prevented by this vaccine. Option D: Chickenpox, malaria, and filariasis are caused by unrelated viral and parasitic agents that are not covered by the DPT vaccine.

108. Q108Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     From which of the following are life-saving antibiotics extracted?

     • aAlgae
     • bFungiAnswer
     • cBacteria
     • dMedicinal plants
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the historic discovery of penicillin, the first life-saving antibiotic that revolutionized modern medicine, was extracted from the fungus Penicillium notatum. Option A: Algae are not an industrial or clinical source of life-saving medical antibiotics. Option C: While many modern antibiotics derive from actinomycetes, the classic life-saving antibiotic discovery highlighted in curricula refers to fungal sources. Option D: Medicinal plants produce antimicrobial phytochemicals, but antibiotics in the strict microbiological sense are derived from microorganisms.

109. Q109SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     What is the necessity of growing plants in an aquarium?

     • aTo increase the supply of carbon dioxide to fish
     • bTo increase the supply of oxygen to fishAnswer
     • cTo keep the aquarium beautiful
     • dTo increase the supply of nitrogen to fish
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because aquatic plants undergo photosynthesis in the presence of light, which consumes carbon dioxide and releases dissolved oxygen vital for fish respiration. Option A: Photosynthesis absorbs carbon dioxide from water rather than increasing its supply to the fish. Option C: Aesthetics may be desirable for the aquarium keeper, but it is not a biological necessity for the fish. Option D: Aquatic plants do not generate or supply elemental nitrogen gas to fish.

110. Q110SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     The number of chromosomes in humans is

     • a46Answer
     • b44
     • c48
     • d23
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because human somatic cells normally contain a diploid complement of 46 chromosomes, consisting of 23 pairs. Total number of pairs: 23 Autosome pairs: 22 (44 chromosomes) Sex chromosome pair: 1 (2 chromosomes) Total individual chromosomes: 46 Option B: 44 is the number of autosomes in a human somatic cell, not the total chromosome count. Option C: 48 is the diploid chromosome number characteristic of chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans, not humans. Option D: 23 represents the haploid number of chromosomes found in human gametes, not the total count in somatic cells.

111. Q111SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     How does a mosquito make an annoying sound?

     • aBy vigorously flapping its wingsAnswer
     • bBy forcing air through its spiracles
     • cThrough its vocal cords
     • dNone of these
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because mosquitoes produce their characteristic buzzing whine by beating their wings rapidly at several hundred beats per second, which sets the surrounding air into vibration. Option B: Spiracles are respiratory openings through which air diffuses and are not used by mosquitoes to generate sound. Option C: Mosquitoes are invertebrates lacking lungs and vocal cords entirely. Option D: An accurate mechanism is provided in Option A.

112. Q112HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     The non-secretion of which hormone causes Diabetes Mellitus?

     • aThyroxine
     • bGlucagon
     • cPituitary
     • dInsulinAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder caused by the absolute deficiency or insufficient secretion of insulin by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets. Option A: Non-secretion of thyroxine results in hypothyroidism, causing reduced basal metabolic rate and myxedema. Option B: Non-secretion of glucagon causes an inability to raise blood sugar levels rather than diabetes mellitus. Option C: It identifies an entire endocrine gland located in the skull rather than a specific hormone.

113. Q113HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     One of the vitamins that helps in blood clotting

     • aVitamin KAnswer
     • bVitamin D
     • cVitamin C
     • dVitamin E
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because vitamin K is an indispensable cofactor for the hepatic synthesis of blood clotting factors including prothrombin (Factor II), VII, IX, and X. Option B: Vitamin D regulates calcium and phosphate homeostasis for bone health, not the clotting cascade. Option C: Vitamin C is an antioxidant essential for collagen synthesis and immune function. Option E: Vitamin E acts as a lipid-soluble antioxidant and has mild anticoagulant properties rather than promoting clotting.

114. Q114HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     How to cure night blindness?

     • aBy using convex lenses
     • bBy using concave lenses
     • cBy using contact lenses
     • dBy eating carrots containing caroteneAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because night blindness is primarily caused by a deficiency of vitamin A, and carrots are rich in beta-carotene, an essential precursor that converts to retinol and replenishes the rhodopsin pigment in retinal rod cells. Option A: provides refractive correction for hypermetropia or presbyopia but cannot restore biochemical synthesis of visual pigments in the retina. Option B: corrects the focal point in myopic eyes without affecting the nutritional status of retinal photoreceptors. Option C: alters corneal refraction to correct refractive errors, offering no cure for vitamin-deficiency-induced retinal dysfunction.

115. Q115HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     What is Acupuncture?

     • aPuncturing diseased organs
     • bA type of surgery performed in India
     • cCuring disease by puncturing specific skin-related areas with needlesAnswer
     • dNone of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because acupuncture is a branch of traditional Chinese medicine that treats ailments and relieves pain by inserting fine, sterile needles into designated points along the skin and underlying tissues. Option A: Acupuncture stimulates specific superficial anatomical points along meridians, never puncturing internal organs. Option B: Acupuncture originated and developed in China as part of traditional Chinese medicine, not as surgery in India. Option D: Option C accurately defines the therapeutic technique and practice of acupuncture.

116. Q116SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Among the following, which is an example of an inert gas?

     • aArgonAnswer
     • bOxygen
     • cLaughing gas
     • dNone of these
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because argon is a noble gas belonging to Group 18 of the periodic table, with a completely filled valence shell that makes it chemically inert. Option B: Oxygen is a reactive non-metal that readily forms chemical bonds with almost all elements. Option C: Laughing gas is nitrous oxide (N2O), which is a chemical compound rather than an elemental inert gas. Option D: None of these is incorrect because argon is a well-known inert gas.

117. Q117SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     How is the silicon element used in transistor manufacturing classified?

     • aMetal
     • bSemiconductorAnswer
     • cInsulator
     • dNone of these
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because silicon has electrical conductivity between that of a conductor and an insulator, making it a semiconductor whose conductivity can be precisely tuned for transistors. Option A: Metals possess very high electrical conductivity and lack the energy bandgap required for switching currents in transistors. Option C: Insulators have extremely wide bandgaps that prevent the controlled flow of electric current under standard operating voltages. Option D: Silicon is definitively classified as a semiconductor element.

118. Q118SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Among the following, which is an example of physical changes?

     • aRusting
     • bBoiling
     • cMeltingAnswer
     • dNone of these

     Explanation coming soon.

119. Q119SCHOOL PHYSICS

     The repulsive force between two objects like magnetic poles is.

     • aDirectly proportional to the distance between them
     • bDirectly proportional to the square of the distance between them
     • cInversely proportional to the square of the distance between themAnswer
     • dNone of these
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because according to Coulomb's law for magnetism, the force between two magnetic poles is directly proportional to the product of their pole strengths and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Option A: Magnetic force weakens with increasing separation rather than increasing in direct proportion. Option B: The force decreases with the square of the distance instead of being directly proportional to it. Option D: Option C accurately reflects the inverse-square law governing magnetic interactions.

120. Q120SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Which of the following is a heat conductor?

     • aBlack colored objectAnswer
     • bWhite colored object
     • cMirror-polished object
     • dNone of these

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.