TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2024

262 questions from the 2024 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   What is a Buddhist prayer hall called?

   • aStupa
   • bVihara
   • cChaityaAnswer
   • dArama
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because a chaitya refers specifically to a Buddhist prayer hall or shrine containing a stupa at the far end for worship and congregation. Option A: Stupas are domical structures enclosing sacred relics rather than prayer halls for congregational assembly. Option B: Viharas are residential quarters and monastic dwellings where Buddhist monks resided. Option D: Aramas are pleasure groves or garden retreats donated to the Buddhist sangha.

2. Q2Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   Consider the following statements: A. Fourfold division of the society had taken shape only after the Satavahana period. B. The joint family system was not followed during the Satavahana period. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

   • aB only
   • bNeither A nor BAnswer
   • cA only
   • dBoth A and B

   Explanation coming soon.

3. Q3Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   Consider the following propositions regarding Brahmarshi Sri Santamula: A. He patronized the Vedic religion. B. He performed the Ashwamedha Yajna in Bagayyapet. C. He donated gold to Buddhist Sanghas and Jain Basadis. D. He was a devotee of Mahasena Virupaksha. Which of the above statements are incorrect?

   • aA and B
   • bB and CAnswer
   • cB and D
   • dC and D
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because statements B and C are historically false regarding Vasishthiputra Chantamula I. He performed his Vedic sacrifices in the capital region around Vijayapuri rather than Jaggayyapeta, and he was an orthodox Vedic monarch devoted to Kartikeya who did not bestow donations on Buddhist sanghas or Jain basadis. Option A: Statement A is correct because Chantamula was a staunch revivalist of Vedic rites. Option C: Statement D is correct because inscriptions describe him as a fervent devotee of Mahasena Virupaksha. Option D: Statement D is factually accurate, which makes any combination containing it incorrect.

4. Q4Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Match the following: A. Bhavabhuti B. Harshavardhana C. Mahendra-Vikramavarman D. Visakhadatta / I. Devichandragupta II. Malatimadhava III. Mattavilasa IV. Nagananda Choose the correct answer:

   • aA-II; B-IV; C-III; D-IAnswer
   • bA-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
   • cA-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
   • dA-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV

   Explanation coming soon.

5. Q5Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Which of the following was a Mahasanghika center during the period of the Vishnukundinas who ruled the Telangana region?

   • aBapatla
   • bKeesara
   • cKondapur
   • dIndrapalanagaramAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because Indrapalanagaram (Tummalagudem in modern Nalgonda district) served as a prominent Buddhist center of the Mahasanghikas where Vishnukundin rulers, notably Govindavarma I and his queen Mahadevi, built viharas and made substantial land grants. Option A: Bapatla is renowned for its Bhavanarayana Swamy temple and was not the primary Mahasanghika center of the Vishnukundina period in Telangana. Option B: Keesara was predominantly an important Shaivite stronghold of the Vishnukundinas known for its numerous lingas. Option C: Kondapur was a major Satavahana urban and Buddhist site rather than a Vishnukundin Mahasanghika foundation.

6. Q6Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Consider the following statements: A. Pampa Kavi's 'Vikramarjuna Vijayamu' provides some information about the Mudigonda Chalukyas. B. The Srikrishna inscription provides information about the relations between the Mudigonda Chalukyas and the Rashtrakutas. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

   • aA only
   • bB only
   • cBoth A and B
   • dNeither A nor BAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because both statements are historically inaccurate regarding the epigraphic and literary records of the regional dynasties. Pampa Kavi's Vikramarjuna Vijayamu describes Arikesari II and the Vemulawada Chalukyas, not the Mudigonda Chalukyas. The Koravi and Mogalicherla inscriptions provide historical details on the Mudigonda Chalukyas, not the non-existent Srikrishna inscription. Option A: Statement A is incorrect because Vikramarjuna Vijayamu focuses on the genealogy and valour of the Vemulawada Chalukyas. Option B: Statement B is incorrect because the inscription named does not exist as a source for Mudigonda-Rashtrakuta relations. Option C: Both statements contain factual errors regarding the dynasties and texts described.

7. Q7Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Consider the following statements regarding the religious conditions during the Kakatiya period: A. Jainism flourished. B. Jain temples were destroyed. C. The names of Jainacharyas were not mentioned in Kakatiya inscriptions. D. Generally, there were no differences between Shaivites and Vaishnavites. Which of the above statements are correct?

   • aA and B only
   • bA, B and C only
   • cA, B, C and DAnswer
   • dB and D only.

   Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

8. Q8Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Who among the following is the author of the book 'Prataparudra Yashobhushanam'?

   • aVidyanathaAnswer
   • bMallinatha
   • cIshwara Suri
   • dSakalyamalla
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Vidyanatha was the Kakatiya court poet who authored the famous Sanskrit work on poetics, Prataparudra Yashobhushanam, in honor of King Prataparudra II. Option B: Mallinatha was a renowned Sanskrit commentator from a later era known for his commentaries on Kalidasa and Bharavi. Option C: Ishwara Suri was not the author of this literary treatise on Sanskrit rhetoric. Option D: Sakalyamalla was a contemporary poet in the Kakatiya court known for works like Udararaghava rather than this treatise.

9. Q9Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Consider the following statements: A. Mallikarjuna Deva in Tribhuvanam was called Chencharamayya. B. Tikkana preached Harihara worship in his work Mahabharatam. C. 'Anantarambhati Vratamu' was an important program during the Kakatiya period. D. Panditaradhya religion was with Tiruvadi. Which of the above statements are correct?

   • a(1) A and B only
   • b(2) A and C only
   • c(3) B and C onlyAnswer
   • d(4) C and D only
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because statements A and B are historically accurate. Mallikarjuna Deva in Tribhuvanam was popularly addressed as Chencharamayya, and poet Tikkana promoted the syncretic cult of Harihara worship through his composition of the Andhra Mahabharatam. Option B: Statement C is incorrect because Anantarambhati Vratamu is not documented as a major recognized program during the Kakatiya era. Option C: Statement C is incorrect, making this combination invalid. Option D: Both statements C and D contain historically inaccurate assertions regarding religious programs and associations.

10. Q10Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    Which foreign traveler, who visited Golconda in the month of 'Mughal', described the conflicts between Shia and Sunni Muslim communities?

    • aJean de ThévenotAnswer
    • bJean-Baptiste Tavernier
    • cFrançois Bernier
    • dDuarte Barbosa
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the French traveler Jean de Thévenot visited Golconda in 1666 during the reign of Abdullah Qutb Shah and recorded firsthand observations of Muharram observances and sectarian tensions between Shias and Sunnis. Option B: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a diamond merchant whose accounts focused primarily on trade, gems, and commerce in Golconda. Option C: François Bernier was a physician who spent most of his time in the Mughal court of Aurangzeb, not producing detailed records of Golconda Muharram conflicts. Option D: Duarte Barbosa was a Portuguese writer who visited Vijayanagara and the Deccan in the early sixteenth century, prior to the major sectarian developments under later Golconda rulers.

11. Q11Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    Consider the following statements: A. The architectural style of the Qutb Shahis is a mixed style of Persian, Hindu, and Mughal. B. Pictures and symbols from Hindu epics are prominently displayed on the Hissar Darwaza. C. During the reign of Abul Hasan, the temple in Anantagiri was renovated. D. The five symbols of Shias are carved on the Char Kaman. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA and B only
    • bB and C onlyAnswer
    • cA, C and D only
    • dB and D only

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

12. Q12British rule: administration, economy and society

    Which of the following paintings were not painted by Raja Ravi Varma? A. Woman Lost in Thought B. Nair Lady C. The Bride and Her Two Companions D. Woman Begging at the Temple Correct answer:

    • aB, C and D only
    • bA, B and C only
    • cA, B and D onlyAnswer
    • dA, C and D only

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

13. Q13Socio-religious reform movements

    Which of the following statements regarding Raja Ram Mohan Roy is/are correct? A. He supported polygamy. B. He founded the Vedanta College in 1825. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA only
    • bB onlyAnswer
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the Vedanta College in 1825 to teach both Indian learning and Western science, while he consistently opposed polygamy rather than supporting it. Option A: statement A is incorrect because Raja Ram Mohan Roy strictly opposed polygamy and advocated legal measures against it. Option C: includes statement A, which falsely asserts that he endorsed polygamy. Option D: incorrectly denies the validity of statement B, as he did establish the Vedanta College in 1825.

14. Q14The Indian National Movement

    Consider the following statements: A. Mahatma Gandhi wrote the book 'Indian Opinion' to express widespread dissatisfaction with the British government. B. In 1909, 'Hind Swaraj' written by Mahatma Gandhi in Gujarati language was banned by the Bombay government. Later, it was published in English in London in 1910. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor BAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

15. Q15The Indian National Movement

    Which of the following statements regarding the Indian National Army are correct? A. The fighting units of the Indian National Army were named after Gandhi, Subhash and Rani Jhansi. B. The slogans of the Indian National Army were 'Jai Hind' and 'Delhi Chalo Hai' (Delhi is far away). C. Rash Behari Bose handed over the leadership to Subhash Chandra Bose. D. Captain Mohan Singh was the commander of the Indian National Army. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and B only
    • bA, C and D onlyAnswer
    • cB, C and D only
    • dA, B, C and D
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statements A, C, and D are accurate facts regarding the INA, while statement B misrepresents the famous slogan Delhi Chalo by rendering it as Delhi Chalo Hai with the meaning that Delhi is far away. Option A: incorrectly omits statements C and D, both of which are historically established facts regarding INA leadership. Option C: wrongly includes statement B, which falsely attributes the defeatist phrase Delhi is far away to the INA. Option D: wrongly includes statement B, as the INA slogan was an offensive battle cry meaning March to Delhi rather than an admission of distance.

16. Q16Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Identify the correct statement(s) from the following: A. The Ministry of External Affairs of India described the first Pokhran test as a peaceful nuclear explosion. B. The technical name of this nuclear test was 'Smiling Buddha'. Choose the correct answer :

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because both statements are historically accurate regarding India's first nuclear test conducted on May 18, 1974. First Pokhran test conducted: May 18, 1974 Official MEA designation: Peaceful Nuclear Explosion (PNE) Operation code name: Smiling Buddha Option A: A only is incorrect because statement B is also factually accurate. Option B: B only is incorrect because statement A is also factually accurate. Option D: Neither A nor B is incorrect because both statements A and B are correct.

17. Q17Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Arrange the following in chronological order according to their year of establishment: A. Aligarh Scientific Society B. Benares Debating Club C. Bihar Scientific Society D. Society for Translating European Sciences E. Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science Choose the correct order:

    • aB, C, D, A, E
    • bD, B, A, C, EAnswer
    • cD, E, A, B, C
    • dB, E, A, D, C

    Explanation coming soon.

18. Q18Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Who among the following is the first Indian woman to receive a Ph.D. in Science?

    • aKamala SohonieAnswer
    • bAnandibai Joshi
    • cJanaki Ammal
    • dMaharani Chakravorty
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Kamala Sohonie became the first Indian woman to earn a Ph.D. in a scientific discipline, awarded by Cambridge University in 1939 for her research on cellular enzymes. Option B: Anandibai Joshi was one of the first Indian female physicians with a medical degree, but she did not earn a Ph.D. in science. Option C: E.K. Janaki Ammal earned a D.Sc. in botany from the University of Michigan in 1931, but Kamala Sohonie is conventionally recognized in official PSC syllabi as the first Indian woman to receive a Ph.D. in science. Option D: Maharani Chakravorty was a prominent biochemist and molecular biologist who earned her Ph.D. much later, in the 1960s.

19. Q19Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Arrange the following institutions in Hyderabad in chronological order of their inception: A. The School of Engineering B. St. George's Grammar School C. Madarasa-i-Aliya D. Dar-ul-Uloom Oriental High School Choose the correct order:

    • aD, B, C, A
    • bA, B, C, D
    • cB, D, A, CAnswer
    • dB, C, D, A
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the chronological sequence of their foundation years is St. George's Grammar School, Darul-Uloom, Madrasa-i-Aliya, and the Engineering School. St. George's Grammar School was established in 1834 Darul-Uloom Oriental High School was established in 1854 Madrasa-i-Aliya was established in 1873 Engineering School was established in 1888 Option B: D, B, A, C places Darul-Uloom before St. George's Grammar School. Option C: C, C, D, A incorrectly repeats an option and misplaces the 1873 institution at the start. Option D: A, B, C, D erroneously lists the 1888 Engineering School as the earliest institution.

20. Q20Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Arrange the following organisations in chronological order of their establishment: A. Matangi Sabha B. Arundatiya Mahasabha C. Ambedkar Youth League D. Munnurukapu Mahasabha Choose the correct order:

    • aC, B, A, D
    • bA, B, D, CAnswer
    • cC, D, B, A
    • dB, C, D, A

    Explanation coming soon.

21. Q21Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Consider the following statements: A. Jayapasenani mentioned the dance form 'Kollata' in 'Nrutta Ratnavali'. B. This dance was performed by Dommarus in Telangana. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Jayapa Senani, the Kakatiya military general, documented regional folk dances including Kollata in his treatise Nrutta Ratnavali, noting its performance by traditional folk communities like the Dommaras in Telangana. Option A: Fails to acknowledge statement B, which is also historically correct regarding the performers of the dance. Option B: Fails to acknowledge statement A, which is historically accurate regarding Jayapa Senani's treatise. Option D: Incorrectly rejects both statements despite both being historically documented facts.

22. Q22Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Consider the following statements: A. The Baddegeshwara Temple was built in Vemulawada. B. The book 'Kalyanakarakam', written in Prakrit language, is related to medicine. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA onlyAnswer
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statement A is true while statement B is false; the Baddegeshwara temple was constructed by the Vemulawada Chalukya ruler Baddega I at Vemulawada, but the medical treatise Kalyanakarakam was composed in Sanskrit, not Prakrit. Option B: Fails to recognize that statement B incorrectly identifies the language of Kalyanakarakam as Prakrit instead of Sanskrit. Option C: Incorrectly claims both statements are true despite the factual error in statement B. Option D: Incorrectly claims both statements are false despite statement A being historically accurate.

23. Q23Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Match the following authors with their works: Author Work A. Singama Nayaka I. Chandodarpanam B. Peddana II. Vikramarka Charitra C. Ananta III. Ratnapancalika D. Jakkana IV. Kavyalankara Cudamani Choose the correct answer :

    • aA-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
    • bA-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
    • cA-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
    • dA-III; B-IV; C-I; D-IIAnswer

    Explanation coming soon.

24. Q24Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Which studio produced the first Telugu talkie film “Bhakta Prahlada”?

    • aRanjit Movietone
    • bBharat MovietoneAnswer
    • cMadan Theatres
    • dMadras Talkies Theatre
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the first Telugu talkie film Bhakta Prahlada was directed by H.M. Reddy and produced at the Bharat Movietone studio in Bombay, releasing in 1931. Option A: Ranjit Movietone was a prominent early Hindi film studio in Bombay, but it did not produce Bhakta Prahlada. Option C: Madan Theatres was based in Calcutta and pioneered early Bengali talkies, not this first Telugu talkie. Option D: Madras Talkies Theatre did not exist as a production company during the release of the first Telugu talkie in 1931.

25. Q25Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Identify the correct pair among the following:

    • aSuravaram Pratapa Reddy - Golconda Pandithula Sanchika
    • bKodati Narayana Rao - Bala Sundari
    • cPunna Anjayya - Nilagiri Kavula SanchikaAnswer
    • dRallapalli Ananta Krishna Sarma - Palle Patalu

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

26. Q26Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, on the debate of "due process" in the Constituent Assembly, observed that: A. It involves the relation between legislature and judiciary. B. In a federal system, it is about judiciary deciding law as ultra vires or intra vires. C. It involves the adjustment of federal arrangement. Choose the correct answer:

    • aOnly B and C are true.
    • bA, B and C are true.
    • cOnly A and B are true.Answer
    • dOnly A and C are true.

    Explanation coming soon.

27. Q27Fundamental Rights

    Match the following Articles of the Indian Constitution with their descriptions: Article Description A. Article 14 1. Abolition of Untouchability B. Article 16 2. Equality of opportunity in public employment C. Article 17 3. Equality before law D. Article 18 4. Abolition of titles Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    • bA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4Answer
    • cA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    • dA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because matching each Article under the Right to Equality with its respective constitutional subject yields A-3, B-2, C-1, and D-4. Article 14 matches 3: Equality before law Article 16 matches 2: Equality of opportunity in public employment Article 17 matches 1: Abolition of Untouchability Article 18 matches 4: Abolition of titles Option A: It incorrectly pairs Article 14 with abolition of untouchability and Article 17 with equality before law. Option C: It incorrectly links Article 14 to untouchability and Article 16 to equality before law. Option D: It reverses the assignments for all four Articles.

28. Q28Fundamental Rights

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct regarding Article 15? A. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. B. This Article does not prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children. C. Equality before law. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and B onlyAnswer
    • bA and C only
    • cA, B and C
    • dB only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements A and B are verbatim provisions of Article 15(1) and Article 15(3) respectively, whereas statement C belongs to Article 14. Option B: Statement C is incorrect under Article 15 because equality before law is guaranteed under Article 14. Option C: Statement C is incorrect because equality before law is not a subject of Article 15. Option D: Statement A is also a correct feature of Article 15 and is improperly omitted.

29. Q29Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Which of the following pairs of Articles related to the Directive Principles of State Policy are correct? A. Article 39 A : Free legal aid B. Article 43 A : Participation of workers in the management of industries C. Article 48 A : Protection of children's rights D. Article 51 : Promotion of international peace and security Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B and C only
    • bA, B and D onlyAnswer
    • cA, C and D only
    • dA, B, C and D only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statements A, B, and D correctly match the Articles to their subjects, whereas statement C is incorrect since Article 48A deals with environmental protection rather than children's rights. Article 39A: Free legal aid Article 43A: Participation of workers in the management of industries Article 48A: Protection of environment, forests, and wildlife Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security Option A: It wrongly includes statement C and excludes the correct statement D. Option C: It includes the incorrect statement C and omits the correct statement B. Option D: It erroneously accepts statement C, which pertains to environmental preservation rather than child rights.

30. Q30Amendment and the basic structure

    Consider the following statements regarding Article 368 of the Constitution: A. It gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution. B. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution with the approval of 2/3 members. C. It does not empower Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights. D. It empowers Parliament to amend any aspect other than the basic structure of the Constitution. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA and B only are true.
    • bA, B and C only are true.
    • cA, B and D only are true.Answer
    • dA, B, C and D are true.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Parliament does have the power to amend Fundamental Rights so long as the basic structure of the Constitution is not violated, making statement C incorrect while statements A, B, and D are correct. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): Held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, provided it does not alter the basic structure. Article 368(2): Requires a special majority, defined as a majority of the total membership and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Option A: Omits statement D, which correctly states the basic structure doctrine restriction established by the Supreme Court. Option B: Includes statement C, which is incorrect because Parliament does possess the power to amend Fundamental Rights within the bounds of the basic structure. Option D: Includes statement C, which falsely asserts that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.

31. Q31Amendment and the basic structure

    The concept of eminent domain was introduced by the Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955. This concept includes: A. It explains the police power to detain anyone in the public interest. B. It informs about the power to impose goods in the interest of public welfare. C. The power to acquire private property in the public interest. D. The power to distribute public burden. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and B only
    • bB, C and D only
    • cC onlyAnswer
    • dD only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the concept of eminent domain refers specifically to the inherent sovereign power of the state to acquire private property for public use upon the payment of compensation. Option A: It wrongly includes police powers of detention, which pertain to criminal law and preventive detention rather than eminent domain. Option B: It incorrectly describes eminent domain as the power to impose goods and distribute burdens, which relate to regulatory and taxation powers. Option D: It confines the concept to distributing public burden, which is an attribute of the taxing power rather than property acquisition.

32. Q32Parliament and the state legislatures

    Consider the following statements regarding the election of Members of Parliament: A. Lok Sabha members are directly elected by adult citizens having the right to vote. B. Rajya Sabha members are indirectly elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies based on the system of proportional representation. C. Some persons with special knowledge are nominated as Rajya Sabha members by the Prime Minister. D. Rajya Sabha members are allocated to each state based on its geographical area. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA, B and C only
    • bA, B and D only
    • cA and B onlyAnswer
    • dA and D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements A and B are constitutionally accurate, whereas statements C and D contain factual inaccuracies regarding nomination authority and seat allocation criteria. Article 81: Lok Sabha members are directly elected by adult suffrage Article 80(4): Rajya Sabha members are elected by elected MLAs via proportional representation Article 80(1)(a): 12 members are nominated by the President, not the Prime Minister Fourth Schedule: Rajya Sabha seats are allocated based on population, not geographical area Option A: Incorrect because statement C is false; the 12 nominated members are nominated by the President of India, not the Prime Minister. Option B: Incorrect because statement D is false; seats in the Rajya Sabha are apportioned according to population, not land area. Option D: Incorrect because statement D is false and it omits statement B, which is correct.

33. Q33The judiciary

    Parliament passed the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955. Which of the following was the first case that came before the Supreme Court under this Act?

    • aState of Karnataka Vs. Appa Balu IngaleAnswer
    • bState of Kerala Vs. Gulab Singh
    • cP & T Scheduled Castes/Tribes Employees Welfare Association Vs. Union of India
    • dVimalesh Tomar Vs. State of Haryana.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because State of Karnataka vs. Appa Balu Ingale (1993) was the prominent landmark case to reach the Supreme Court regarding the enforcement and conviction under the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, for restraining lower-caste persons from taking water from a newly dug borewell. Option B: State of Kerala vs. Gulab Singh is not a Supreme Court precedent under the Untouchability Offences Act. Option C: P & T Scheduled Castes/Tribes Employees Welfare Association vs. Union of India dealt with service jurisprudence and reservation in promotional posts rather than criminal offences under the 1955 Act. Option D: Vimalesh Tomar vs. State of Haryana related to service matters and appointments, not untouchability prosecutions.

34. Q34Federalism and centre-state relations

    Which of the following is a key feature of a federal state?

    • aElection Commission
    • bSupremacy of the Judiciary
    • cSupremacy of Parliament
    • dDivision of powersAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the division of legislative, executive, and financial powers between a central authority and constituent units is the foundational and indispensable characteristic of any federal system. Option A: An Election Commission is an administrative mechanism to conduct polls and exists in both unitary and federal states. Option B: Federalism requires supremacy of the Constitution rather than supremacy of the judiciary, though the judiciary acts as an interpreter and arbiter. Option C: Supremacy of Parliament is a hallmark of the British unitary model and contradicts federalism, where the written Constitution is supreme.

35. Q35Local government and decentralisation

    Consider the following statements. Assertion (A): Democratic decentralisation provided space for the deprived and marginalised social sections for their collective bargains and to get their due share in local governance and development process. Reason (R): Decentralisation and democratisation process helps to protect the interests of the most excluded social groups like Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women. Choose the correct answer:

    • aBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Answer
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • d(A) is false, but (R) is true.

    Explanation coming soon.

36. Q36Parties, elections and representation

    Consider the following statements: A. The Supreme Court of India has recognized that exercising the right to vote is a form of expression. B. Voters have been given the right to know the antecedents of candidates contesting elections. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only is true.
    • bB only is true.
    • cBoth A and B are true.Answer
    • dNeither A nor B is true.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Supreme Court affirmed in ADR (2002) and PUCL (2003) that casting a vote is a form of expression under Article 19(1)(a), and that voters possess a corresponding fundamental right to know the antecedents of contesting candidates. Option A: overlooks statement B, which is an established constitutional right recognized in the 2002 ADR judgment. Option B: overlooks statement A, which was explicitly affirmed as a component of freedom of speech and expression. Option D: rejects both propositions despite both being settled constitutional law.

37. Q37Public policy and governance

    Which of the following measures did the Second Administrative Reforms Commission suggest in its reports to ensure ethics in governance? A. Liability of corrupt public servants to pay damages B. Protecting whistle blowers C. Continuation of discretionary funds at the disposal of legislators D. Restoring Official Secrets Act Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and C only
    • bA, B and D only
    • cA and B onlyAnswer
    • dC and D only

    Explanation coming soon.

38. Q38Public policy and governance

    The Cabinet Secretariat of India is organised in three wings. Which one of the following is a part of the three wings?

    • aSocial Policy Wing
    • bAgricultural Policy Wing
    • cMilitary WingAnswer
    • dFiscal Policy Wing

    Explanation coming soon.

39. Q39Public policy and governance

    Which of the following are areas where the civil society organisations can contribute to good governance? A. Mobilizing people to take part in public affairs B. Promoting cross-cutting business groups C. Improving transparency in governance D. Promoting competitiveness for individual gains Choose the correct answer:

    • aA and B only
    • bB, C and D only
    • cB and D only
    • dA and C onlyAnswer

    Explanation coming soon.

40. Q40Rights issues and social justice

    Which of the following Articles is not related to the economic protection of Scheduled Castes in the Indian Constitution?

    • aArticle 23
    • bArticle 46
    • cArticle 24
    • dArticle 34Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Article 34 pertains to the indemnification of officials and restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force, bearing no relation to the economic protection of Scheduled Castes. Article 23: Prohibits human trafficking and begar, protecting marginalized groups from economic exploitation. Article 24: Prohibits the employment of children in hazardous occupations. Article 46: Directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections, particularly SCs and STs. Article 34: Regulates fundamental rights during periods of martial law. Option A: It relates to economic protection by banning forced and unfree labour practices. Option B: It directly mandates the promotion of the economic interests of Scheduled Castes. Option C: It shields vulnerable children from hazardous labour and economic exploitation.