TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2024

262 questions from the 2024 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

121. Q121Space technology

     Who among the following were selected as astronauts to go into space through India's first manned space mission? I. Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla II. Group Captain P. Balakrishnan Nair III. Group Captain Pankaj M. Sinha IV. Group Captain Ajit Krishnan V. Group Captain Angad Pratap Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

     • aI, II, III and V
     • bI, III, IV and V
     • cI, II, III and IV
     • dI, II, IV and VAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the four IAF officers announced as astronaut-designates for the Gaganyaan mission are Shubhanshu Shukla, Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, Ajit Krishnan, and Angad Pratap. Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla: selected Gaganyaan astronaut Group Captain Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair: selected Gaganyaan astronaut Group Captain Ajit Krishnan: selected Gaganyaan astronaut Group Captain Angad Pratap: selected Gaganyaan astronaut Option A: includes Group Captain Pankaj M. Sinha who was not selected among the Gaganyaan astronauts, and omits Ajit Krishnan. Option B: includes Pankaj M. Sinha and omits Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair. Option C: includes Pankaj M. Sinha and omits Angad Pratap.

122. Q122Space technology

     Who built India's first spy satellite, which is preparing for launch by a Space X rocket?

     • aBellatrix Aerospace Private Limited
     • bSkyroot Aerospace Private Limited
     • cDhruva Space Private Limited
     • dTata Advanced Systems LimitedAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Tata Advanced Systems Limited built TSAT-1A, India's first sub-metre resolution optical earth observation satellite launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket. Option A: Bellatrix Aerospace Private Limited specializes in in-space satellite propulsion and thruster technologies, not this satellite. Option B: Skyroot Aerospace Private Limited focuses on developing the Vikram series of small satellite launch vehicles. Option C: Dhruva Space Private Limited develops full-stack small satellite platforms and deployers rather than this optical spy satellite.

123. Q123Space technology

     Which of the following space agencies launched its next-generation H3 rocket into orbit?

     • aCanadian Space Agency (CSA)
     • bEuropean Space Agency
     • cIsrael Space Agency (ISA)
     • dJapan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the H3 rocket is a next-generation, two-stage, liquid-propellant launch vehicle developed by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) alongside Mitsubishi Heavy Industries. Option A: Incorrect because the Canadian Space Agency does not operate indigenous orbital heavy-lift launch vehicles. Option B: Incorrect because the European Space Agency develops the Ariane and Vega rocket families, not the H3. Option C: Incorrect because the Israel Space Agency relies on the Shavit rocket for indigenous orbital launches.

124. Q124Defence technology

     Which of the following statements given about Agni-5 are correct? A. It uses a three-stage solid-propellant engine. B. It has the capability to hit targets only within a range of 2000 kilometers. C. It was indigenously developed by DRDO. D. It uses Multiple-Independent Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA and B only
     • bA, B and C only
     • cA, C and D only
     • dA and C onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Agni-5 is a DRDO-developed, three-stage solid-fuel missile with MIRV capability, whereas statement B is false because its operational range exceeds 5000 km, placing it in the intercontinental category. Agni-5 propulsion: Three-stage solid propellant Agni-5 range: Greater than 5000 km Agni-5 developer: DRDO Agni-5 payload: Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle capable Option A: It mistakenly accepts statement B, which grossly understates the missile range. Option B: It includes statement B as correct, failing to recognize Agni-5 as an intercontinental-class weapon. Option D: It omits statement D, which is a verified technological feature of the Agni-5 system.

125. Q125Information and communication technology

     'Sangam : Digital Twin', recently seen in the news, is an initiative of which department of India among the following?

     • aDepartment of TelecommunicationsAnswer
     • bWestern Naval Command
     • cEastern Naval Command
     • dDepartment of Science and Technology
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Sangam: Digital Twin initiative was launched by the Department of Telecommunications to integrate telecommunication networks with digital twin modeling and artificial intelligence for infrastructure planning. Option B: Western Naval Command is an operational fleet formation of the Indian Navy and does not administer this telecommunications initiative. Option C: Eastern Naval Command is an operational wing of the armed forces with no jurisdiction over digital infrastructure initiatives. Option D: Department of Science and Technology handles broad scientific research and development, but this particular initiative belongs to the telecommunications sector.

126. Q126Energy technology and management

     Identify the objectives of NITI Aayog's 'Methanol Economy' program: I. Reducing India's oil import bill. II. Reducing Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions. III. Converting coal reserves and municipal solid waste into methanol. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

     • aI and II only
     • bII and III only
     • cI and III only
     • dI, II and IIIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because NITI Aayog's Methanol Economy initiative aims to replace crude oil imports, lower greenhouse gas emissions, and gasify India's high-ash coal and municipal solid waste into clean methanol. Option A: It excludes the primary domestic feedstock conversion goal involving high-ash coal and municipal waste. Option B: It omits the economic driver of slashing the nation's crude oil import bill. Option C: It overlooks the environmental objective of lowering vehicular emissions and urban air pollution.

127. Q127Energy technology and management

     Consider the following in relation to the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for National Programme on High Efficiency Solar Modules: A. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Power, Government of India. B. It aims to develop an ecosystem for sourcing of local materials in solar manufacturing. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

     • aB onlyAnswer
     • bNeither A nor B
     • cA only
     • dBoth A and B

     Explanation coming soon.

128. Q128Nuclear technology

     On March 4, 2024, the place where the core material was loaded into India's fastest indigenous breeder reactor (Breader Reactor) was:

     • aKaiga, Karnataka
     • bKalpakkam, Tamil NaduAnswer
     • cNarora, Uttar Pradesh
     • dTarapur, Maharashtra
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the core loading of India's indigenous 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor was initiated on March 4, 2024, at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, in the presence of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Option A: Kaiga hosts pressurized heavy water reactors and is not the site of India's prototype fast breeder reactor. Option C: Narora operates thermal pressurized heavy water reactors and does not house the fast breeder development project. Option D: Tarapur hosts boiling water reactors and pressurized heavy water reactors, not the fast breeder reactor facility.

129. Q129Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Covaxin, India's indigenous COVID-19 vaccine, was developed by: I. Bharat Biotech II. Serum Institute of India Pvt. Ltd. III. Pharmacy Council of India – AstraZeneca IV. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) – National Institute of Virology (NIV) Choose the correct answer:

     • aII and III
     • bII and IV
     • cI and IVAnswer
     • dI and III

     Explanation coming soon.

130. Q130Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Identify India's first domestically developed CAR-T cell therapy that received market approval from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO):

     • aNexCAR19Answer
     • bTECARTUS
     • cINDYESCARTA
     • dBREYANZI-BH
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because NexCAR19, developed jointly by ImmunoACT, IIT Bombay, and Tata Memorial Hospital, received market approval from the CDSCO as India's first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy for treating specific blood cancers. Option B: Tecartus is an autologous CAR-T cell therapy developed and manufactured by Kite Pharma in the United States, not an Indian product. Option C: INDYESCARTA is an invalid designation; Yescarta is an American CAR-T cell therapy manufactured abroad. Option D: Breyanzi is a CAR-T cell therapy developed by Bristol Myers Squibb and approved in the United States, not in India as an indigenous product.

131. Q131Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Consider the following statements about the ARTSENS device. I. It is a novel, non-invasive device useful for assessing inspired health and their age, and thereby providing early screening for central nervous system diseases. II. The ARTSENS device was developed by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Science (NIMHANS). III. The ARTSENS device is powered by a proprietary non-imaging probe and an intelligent computing platform. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

     • aI and IIAnswer
     • bII and III
     • cI and III
     • dII only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because statements I and II are incorrect; ARTSENS stands for Arterial Stiffness Evaluation for Non-invasive Screening, designed to assess vascular aging and cardiovascular risk, and it was developed by IIT Madras rather than NIMHANS. Option B: Statement III is a factually correct description of the device, making this combination wrong. Option C: Statement III is accurate because the system operates on a non-imaging ultrasound probe and an intelligent platform. Option D: Statement I is also incorrect, so selecting statement II alone fails to identify all wrong statements.

132. Q132Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Which researchers developed smart, biodegradable, natural polymer-based nanoparticles from renewable resources for the treatment of colorectal cancer:

     • aIndian Institute of Technology, MandiAnswer
     • bIndian Institute of Technology, Bombay
     • cIndian Institute of Technology, Madras
     • dIndian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Tirupati
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because a research team from the Indian Institute of Technology Mandi engineered smart, biodegradable nanoparticles using natural polymers derived from renewable sources for targeted colorectal cancer therapy. Option B: Indian Institute of Technology Bombay was not the host institution for this specific polymer nanoparticle development. Option C: Indian Institute of Technology Madras conducts extensive biomedical research, but it was not the institution behind this particular study. Option D: Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Tirupati was not the institute that developed these specific nanoparticles.

133. Q133Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Consider the following statements about Garbhini-GA2: I. It is the first Indian-specific Artificial Intelligence (AI) model that accurately determines the gestational age of the fetus in the second and third trimesters. II. Garbhini-GA2 was developed by researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras and Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and IIAnswer
     • dNone of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because both statements accurately describe Garbhini-GA2, an artificial intelligence tool created specifically for the Indian population to improve gestational age estimation. Garbhini-GA2 is an India-specific AI model for gestational age determination. It estimates fetal age accurately during the second and third trimesters. It was jointly developed by IIT Madras and THSTI Faridabad. Option A: Statement II is also correct, as IIT Madras and THSTI jointly developed the model. Option B: Statement I is also correct, as the model specifically evaluates gestational age in the second and third trimesters. Option D: Neither statement is incorrect.

134. Q134Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Identify the multimodal AI tool developed domestically by BharatGPT system and Sita Maha Lakshmi Speech (SML) and capable of demonstrating in 11 Indian languages?

     • aKrutrim
     • bBhashini
     • cOpenHathi
     • dHanoomanAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Hanooman is a suite of indigenous multimodal AI models developed by the BharatGPT ecosystem in collaboration with SML (Sarvam / Sita Mahalakshmi Healthcare) and IIT Bombay, designed to support multiple Indian languages. Option A: Krutrim is an AI model developed by Ola's founder Bhavish Aggarwal. Option B: Bhashini is a Government of India language translation mission under MeitY, not a multimodal AI tool from the SML/BharatGPT consortium. Option C: OpenHathi is the open-source Hindi large language model developed by Sarvam AI.

135. Q135Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Identify the company that launched 'Pratham', the world's first no-code computer vision platform.

     • aAssert AIAnswer
     • bMicrosoft Inc
     • cGoogle
     • dDell Technologies
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Assert AI, an Indian computer vision software company, launched 'Pratham' to enable users to deploy custom computer vision models without writing code. Option B: It incorrectly names Microsoft, which offers other cognitive vision services but not the Pratham platform. Option C: It mistakenly credits Google, which is not the originator of the Pratham platform. Option D: It names Dell Technologies, an enterprise infrastructure corporation that did not launch this software.

136. Q136SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Which of the following symmetries is not found in animals?

     • aRadial symmetry
     • bBilateral symmetry
     • cAsymmetry
     • dCircular symmetryAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because circular symmetry is a geometric concept rather than a recognized biological body plan symmetry in animal classification. Option A: Radial symmetry is naturally found in animals like cnidarians, ctenophores, and adult echinoderms. Option B: Bilateral symmetry is the most common animal body plan, found in annelids, arthropods, molluscs, and chordates. Option C: Asymmetry is a recognized animal body organization exhibited by most sponges belonging to phylum Porifera.

137. Q137SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Which of the following specific hormones is related to insects and is specifically not a plant hormone?

     • aAuxin
     • bGibberellin
     • cJuvenile hormoneAnswer
     • dCytokinin

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

138. Q138HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code: Assertion (A): A person with AB+ve blood group is called a 'Universal Recipient'. Reason (R): A person with AB+ve blood group has A & B antigens and antibodies in their plasma. Code:

     • a(A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
     • b(A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
     • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.Answer
     • dBoth (A) and (R) are false.
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Assertion (A) is a true statement while Reason (R) is false. Individuals with AB positive blood group are universal recipients because their red blood cells display A, B, and Rh antigens, but their plasma lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Option A: Reason (R) incorrectly claims that plasma of AB positive individuals contains antibodies against A and B antigens. Option B: Reason (R) is factually false because anti-A and anti-B antibodies are absent in AB positive plasma. Option D: Assertion (A) is true as AB positive individuals can safely receive red blood cells of any ABO and Rh blood group.

139. Q139HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Match the following vitamin deficiencies with their associated health problems: Vitamin Deficiency Health Problem A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 1. Beriberi 2. Night blindness 3. Scurvy 4. Rickets (bow-legged disease) Choose the correct answer :

     • aA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4Answer
     • bA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
     • cA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
     • dA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because each vitamin is accurately paired with its classic deficiency manifestation: Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness, Vitamin B1 deficiency causes beriberi, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, and Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets. Vitamin A: Night blindness (Nyctalopia) Vitamin B1: Beriberi Vitamin C: Scurvy Vitamin D: Rickets Option B: Inaccurately links Vitamin A to beriberi and Vitamin B1 to scurvy. Option C: Swaps the consequences of Vitamin C and Vitamin D. Option D: Inaccurately pairs Vitamin A with scurvy and Vitamin B1 with night blindness.

140. Q140HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Match the following diseases with their modes of transmission: Disease Mode of Transmission A. Cholera B. Filariasis C. Tuberculosis 1. Air-borne 2. Food-borne 3. Through insect vectors 4. Water-borne Choose the correct answer :

     • aA-4, B-1, C-3
     • bA-4, B-3, C-1Answer
     • cA-2, B-4, C-1
     • dA-2, B-4, C-3
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because cholera spreads through water contaminated with Vibrio cholerae, filariasis is transmitted by Culex mosquito vectors carrying microfilariae, and tuberculosis is an airborne bacterial infection spread by respiratory droplets. Option A: incorrectly links filariasis to airborne transmission and tuberculosis to insect vectors. Option C: incorrectly links cholera to food-borne and filariasis to water-borne transmission. Option D: incorrectly links cholera to food-borne, filariasis to water-borne, and tuberculosis to insect vectors.

141. Q141HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Match the commonly used medicines and their sources: Medicine Source A. Penicillin 1. Velvet Bean B. L-Dopa 2. Yellow Cinchona C. Quinine 3. Penicillium Fungi D. Taxol 4. Pacific Yew Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
     • bA-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
     • cA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
     • dA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because it correctly matches each therapeutic drug to its natural biological source. Penicillin is derived from Penicillium Fungi L-Dopa is extracted from Velvet Bean (Mucuna pruriens) Quinine is obtained from the bark of Yellow Cinchona Taxol is derived from the bark of Pacific Yew (Taxus brevifolia) Option A: It incorrectly pairs Penicillin with Pacific Yew and L-Dopa with Cinchona. Option B: It erroneously links Penicillin to Pacific Yew and L-Dopa to Penicillium fungi. Option C: It inverts the natural origins of Penicillin, L-Dopa, and Quinine.

142. Q142SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Consider the following statements regarding Sun Halo: I. A Sun Halo is an optical phenomenon caused by the refraction of sunlight in millions of hexagonal ice crystals floating in the atmosphere. II. A Sun Halo takes the form of a ring with a radius of approximately 22 degrees around the Sun. III. A Sun Halo is exclusively produced by cumulonimbus clouds, which are thin, detached hair-like clouds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

     • aI and II onlyAnswer
     • bII only
     • cI and III only
     • dII and III only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because a 22-degree halo is an optical phenomenon formed by the refraction of sunlight through millions of suspended hexagonal ice crystals, typically present in high-altitude cirrostratus clouds. Option B: It omits statement I, which correctly describes the refraction of light through hexagonal ice crystals. Option C: It incorrectly includes statement III, which erroneously claims halos are produced by cumulonimbus clouds rather than cirrus or cirrostratus clouds. Option D: It omits statement I and includes the false statement III.

143. Q143SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Which of the following types of energy storage system is currently predominantly used in electric vehicles?

     • aLead-acid battery
     • bLithium-ion batteryAnswer
     • cNickel-metal hydride battery
     • dUltracapacitors
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because lithium-ion batteries dominate modern electric vehicle manufacturing due to their superior energy density, light weight, and long cycle life. Option A: Lead-acid batteries have very low energy density and high weight, making them unsuitable for EV propulsion beyond auxiliary 12V systems. Option C: Nickel-metal hydride batteries were used in early hybrid models but have lower specific energy and lower efficiency than lithium-ion chemistry. Option D: Ultracapacitors offer rapid discharge and high power density but lack sufficient energy density for sustained vehicle propulsion.

144. Q144STATE SCIENCE: what the two states run

     According to the Telangana Government's SpaceTech Framework 2022, which of the following are part of the Space Market Value Chain? A. Launch of services like telescope and mission control B. Satellite manufacturing/Launcher (launch vehicle) manufacturing C. Satellite operations and payload services D. Establishment of a space station in orbit Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B and C onlyAnswer
     • bB, C and D only
     • cA, B, C and D
     • dB and C only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Space Market Value Chain under Telangana's SpaceTech Framework 2022 includes launch services and mission control, satellite and launcher manufacturing, and payload and downstream operations, but does not encompass building an orbital space station. Option B: It includes establishment of an orbital space station, which is outside the scope of the framework. Option C: It erroneously includes all four components, treating a space station in orbit as an identified state value chain segment. Option D: It omits launch services and mission control, which are explicitly identified segments in the framework.

145. Q145Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Consider the following statements: I. Crime against women is lower in a state with higher literacy rate. II. Higher literacy rate leads to better economy. Read the statements carefully and choose the most suitable option among the following:

     • aII is the cause and I is its effect.
     • bBoth I and II are independent effects of the same cause.Answer
     • cI is the cause and II is its effect.
     • dBoth I and II are effects of independent causes.

     Explanation coming soon.

146. Q146Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     In the following table, the numbers in the third column have a definite relationship with the numbers in the first and second columns. Find the number that fits in the '?' position. 2209 784 15 3249 1444 19 4489 ? 13

     • a3254Answer
     • b1140
     • c2918
     • d3016
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the pattern across each row is that the difference between the first and second numbers divided by the third number equals a constant value of 95. Row 1: (2209 - 784) / 15 = 1425 / 15 = 95 Row 2: (3249 - 1444) / 19 = 1805 / 19 = 95 Row 3: (4489 - ?) / 13 = 95 4489 - ? = 95 * 13 = 1235 ? = 4489 - 1235 = 3254 Option B: It subtracts 1235 from an incorrect base or calculates the difference wrongly. Option C: It assumes the pattern is based on square roots rather than the constant quotient rule. Option D: It is an arithmetic miscalculation that does not yield the required constant quotient of 95.

147. Q147Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Consider the following addition: A, B and C represent three distinct digits from 0 to 9. In the following, which of the two inequalities is/are correct? A B C 9 + C A B 8 B ------------- B 2 9 2 C I. A + B - C ≤ 7 II. 2A - 3B < 4C

     • aI only is correct.
     • bII only is correct.
     • cBoth I and II are correct.Answer
     • dNeither I nor II is correct.
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because solving the cryptarithmetic addition gives the distinct values A = 6, B = 4, and C = 3, which satisfy both inequalities. Units column: 9 + B = 10 + C gives carry 1 Tens column: C + 8 + 1 = 12, which gives C = 3 Units column: 9 + B = 13, which gives B = 4 Hundreds column: 4 + 4 + 1 = 9 gives carry 0 Thousands column: 2A ends in 2 with carry 1, giving 2A = 12 and A = 6 Inequality I: 6 + 4 - 3 = 7, which satisfies 7 <= 7 Inequality II: 2(6) - 3(4) = 0 and 4(3) = 12, which satisfies 0 < 12 Option A: Inequality II is also correct since 0 is strictly less than 12. Option B: Inequality I is also correct since 7 is less than or equal to 7. Option D: Both statements are mathematically true after evaluating the digits.

148. Q148Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     In a New Year's party, 60% of the total guests are women, 80% of the guests are married couples (husband and wife are together as a couple), and the rest are unmarried. Which of the following statements is correct? I. All men are married. II. More than 30% of women are unmarried. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and IIAnswer
     • dNeither I nor II
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because both statements I and II are mathematically correct based on the given percentages. Assume 100 guests in total: 60 women and 40 men 80 guests form 40 married couples (40 husbands and 40 wives) All 40 men are married, so statement I is true Unmarried women equal 60 minus 40, which is 20 women 20 out of 60 women equals 33.33%, which is more than 30%, so statement II is true Option A: Incorrect because statement II is also true. Option B: Incorrect because statement I is also true. Option D: Incorrect because both statements logically hold true.

149. Q149Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     A statement is given as true, followed by two assumptions. State which assumption(s) is/are implicit in the given statement. Statement: The pass percentage of students in a college has significantly increased. Assumptions: I. Many students are going for higher education. II. This time, students studied with more capability than before. Choose the correct option:

     • aOnly I is implicit.
     • bOnly II is implicit.Answer
     • cBoth I and II are implicit.
     • dNeither I nor II is implicit.
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because an increase in pass percentage indicates academic success in college examinations, but it does not inherently assume future career paths like higher education, nor does it solely imply enhanced capability as the improvement could arise from easier exams or better teaching. Option A: passing an examination does not necessarily mean students will choose to pursue higher education. Option B: an improved pass percentage can be caused by various external factors such as lenient evaluation, curriculum changes, or improved teaching, not solely increased student capability. Option C: neither assumption is an indispensable presupposition of the college's examination results.

150. Q150Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Consider the following statement and conclusions. Find the correct conclusion(s) that follow(s) the statement. Statement: Today, the condition of some Indian sports is not like before. In the past, India achieved many significant victories in sports like football and hockey. Conclusions: I. Currently, there are no good players in football and hockey in our country. II. In the last few years, India has faced many defeats in football and hockey. Choose the correct option:

     • aOnly I
     • bOnly IIAnswer
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor II

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

151. Q151Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Consider the following statements and conclusions. Find the correct conclusion(s) that follow(s) the statements: Statements: I. Some employees are managers. II. All managers are engineering graduates. Conclusions: P. All employees are engineering graduates. Q. All engineering graduates are managers. R. Some employees are engineering graduates. Choose the most suitable option:

     • aOnly RAnswer
     • bOnly R and P
     • cOnly P and Q
     • dOnly P
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the employees who are managers are necessarily engineering graduates since all managers are engineering graduates, which validates 'Some employees are engineering graduates' (R). Option B: Conclusion P is invalid because not all employees are necessarily managers. Option C: Both P and Q are invalid conversions of A-type and I-type statements. Option D: Conclusion P incorrectly distributes the term 'employees' when only a subset is confirmed to be managers.

152. Q152Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Read the following statements and conclusions. Choose the conclusions that logically follow from the given statements: Statements: All professors are doctors. All doctors are engineers. Some professors are lawyers. Conclusions: I. All professors are engineers. II. All engineers are lawyers. III. Some doctors are lawyers.

     • a1) Only conclusion I follows.
     • b2) Only conclusions I and III follow.Answer
     • c3) Only conclusions I and II follow.
     • d4) Only conclusions II and III follow.
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because combining 'All professors are doctors' and 'All doctors are engineers' yields 'All professors are engineers' (Conclusion I), and since 'Some professors are lawyers' and all professors are doctors, the overlapping professors must also be doctors, making 'Some doctors are lawyers' (Conclusion III) valid. Option A: It omits Conclusion III, which is also a valid and necessary deduction. Option C: Conclusion II assumes all engineers are lawyers, which is an invalid generalization from an I-type premise. Option D: Conclusion II does not follow, and it omits the valid Conclusion I.

153. Q153Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table. P, Q and R are facing the center, while the other three are facing opposite to the center. The person opposite to U is second to the left of P. The person T, who is opposite to P, is second to the left of U. If T and S are on either side of Q, then who is opposite to R?

     • aSAnswer
     • bT
     • cQ
     • dP
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because plotting the positions and facing directions around the six-seat circle shows that S is seated directly opposite to R. Seats 1 to 6 arranged clockwise: let P be at 1 (facing center) T is opposite P, so T is at 4 (facing outward) T is second to the left of U; since U faces outward, U is at seat 2 Opposite to U is seat 5, which is second to the left of P (clockwise), matching the conditions T and S are on either side of Q: since T is at 4, Q must be at 3 and S at seat 5 R must occupy the remaining position, seat 2 The person opposite R (seat 2) is seat 5, which is S Option B: T is already directly opposite to P. Option C: Q is opposite to an empty space between seats or adjacent to S and T, not opposite R. Option D: P is opposite to T, not R.

154. Q154Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     In a hostel room, five people P, Q, R, S, and T were sleeping in a single row. The person who read the novel first later gave it to R. The person who read the novel last took it from P. T was neither the first nor the last person to read the novel. There are two readers between Q and P. Identify the two readers between Q and P in the same order.

     • aR and S
     • bR and TAnswer
     • cT and S
     • dS and T
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because R read the novel second and T read it third, placing them directly between Q and P in that order. R took the novel from the first reader, so R is 2nd. The last reader took it from P, so P is 4th. T was neither 1st nor 5th, so T is 3rd. Q must be 1st to allow two readers between Q and P. S is 5th, giving the complete reading sequence Q, R, T, P, S. Option A: S is the fifth reader, not one of the readers between Q and P. Option C: T read before S, but S read after P rather than between Q and P. Option D: S was the last reader and did not read between Q and P.

155. Q155Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     There are 5 members in a family: Ravi, Madhu, Mahesh, Raghu, and Praveen. Praveen is taller than Raghu but not heavier than Raghu. Mahesh is taller than Ravi but shorter than Madhu. Ravi is heavier than Raghu but not heavier than Madhu. Praveen is thinner than Mahesh and Mahesh is thinner than Raghu. If the weights of the family members are arranged in ascending order (heaviest first and thinnest last), who comes in the middle?

     • aPraveen
     • bRaghuAnswer
     • cMahesh
     • dMadhu
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because arranging the members from heaviest to thinnest places Raghu exactly in the middle position. Madhu is heavier than or equal to Ravi Ravi is heavier than Raghu Raghu is heavier than Mahesh Mahesh is heavier than Praveen Decreasing weight order: Madhu, Ravi, Raghu, Mahesh, Praveen Option A: Praveen is the thinnest family member and stands at the end of the order. Option C: Mahesh is the second thinnest, occupying the fourth position. Option D: Madhu is the heaviest family member, occupying the first position.

156. Q156Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     (Instructions for questions 19-21) During the Bathukamma festival, sports competitions were organized for children under the aegis of Green Field Apartments Association. As part of this, Keerthi, Joshna, Pallavi, Rama, and Shweta participated in a race. They obtained different ranks from 1 to 5 in the race (1 being the fastest and 5 being the slowest). The following information was also known: I. Keerthi was not the person who finished the race first. II. Pallavi did not get the 5th rank, but finished the race after Keerthi. III. Rama finished the race after Joshna. IV. The sum of Keerthi's and Shweta's ranks is equal to the sum of Pallavi's and Rama's ranks. Among the five girls who participated in the race, who was the last to finish the race?

     • aShwetaAnswer
     • bPallavi
     • cKeerthi
     • dRama
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Shweta finishes in fifth place, making her the last person to complete the race. The ranks from 1 to 5 sum to 15. Joshna's rank equals 15 minus twice the sum of a pair, making it an odd number. Joshna cannot be 5th because Rama finished after her, and cannot be 3rd without violating conditions, so Joshna is 1st. Keerthi and Shweta sum to 7, as do Pallavi and Rama. Keerthi cannot be 1st and finishes before Pallavi, placing Keerthi at 2nd, Pallavi at 3rd, Rama at 4th, and Shweta at 5th. Option B: Pallavi finished in third place, which is before the final position. Option C: Keerthi finished in second place. Option D: Rama finished in fourth place.

157. Q157Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Directions for questions 19-21: As part of the Bathukamma festival, the Green Field Apartment Association held games for children. In a race, Keerthi, Jyotsna, Pallavi, Rama and Shweta took part. They got five different ranks, 1 to 5 (rank 1 is the fastest and rank 5 the slowest). The following is also known: I. Keerthi was not the first to finish the race. II. Pallavi did not get 5th rank, but finished after Keerthi. III. Rama finished the race after Jyotsna. IV. The sum of Keerthi's and Shweta's ranks equals the sum of Pallavi's and Rama's ranks. If the sum of Shweta's and Pallavi's ranks is 8, who achieved the 4th rank?

     • aKeerthi
     • bRamaAnswer
     • cPallavi
     • dShweta

     Explanation coming soon.

158. Q158Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Directions for questions 19-21: As part of the Bathukamma festival, the Green Field Apartment Association held games for children. In a race, Keerthi, Jyotsna, Pallavi, Rama and Shweta took part. They got five different ranks, 1 to 5 (rank 1 is the fastest and rank 5 the slowest). The following is also known: I. Keerthi was not the first to finish the race. II. Pallavi did not get 5th rank, but finished after Keerthi. III. Rama finished the race after Jyotsna. IV. The sum of Keerthi's and Shweta's ranks equals the sum of Pallavi's and Rama's ranks. Among five girls, who would not have finished the race after Pallavi?

     • aKeerthiAnswer
     • bRama
     • cShweta
     • dCannot be determined.

     Explanation coming soon.

159. Q159Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Six boxes are placed one above the other in a rack of a bridge. The red box is above the blue box. The purple box is between the black and green boxes. The yellow box is between the red and black boxes. If the boxes are numbered from 1 to 6 from top to bottom, the difference between the positions of the green and red boxes is D. Then what is the value of D²/2?

     • a4
     • b13.5
     • c0.5
     • d32Answer

     Explanation coming soon.

160. Q160Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Seven boys named A, B, C, D, E, F and G each have an exam on a different day of the week, starting from Sunday and ending on Saturday of the same week. Only two people have their exams between C and A. B has an exam immediately before E. F has an exam immediately before C. Only G has an exam after A. Which of the following options represents the correct pair of the boy and his exam day?

     • aA : Thursday
     • bG : Friday
     • cC : TuesdayAnswer
     • dB : Monday
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because deducing each boy's exam day from the given constraints places C's exam on Tuesday. Only G has an exam after A, so A is on Friday and G is on Saturday Two people have exams between C and A, which places C on Tuesday F has an exam immediately before C, fixing F on Monday B and E take consecutive days with B before E, placing B on Wednesday and E on Thursday D takes the remaining day, Sunday Option A: A has the exam on Friday, not Thursday. Option B: G has the exam on Saturday, not Friday. Option D: B has the exam on Wednesday, not Monday.