APPSC Group-I Prelims 2010

382 questions from the 2010 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Which of the following Governor Generals was associated with the 'Doctrine of Lapse'?

    • aCornwallis
    • bRipon
    • cCurzon
    • dDalhousieAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Lord Dalhousie, who served as Governor-General from 1848 to 1856, vigorously applied the Doctrine of Lapse to annex Indian princely states whose rulers died without a natural male heir. Satara annexed in 1848 Jaitpur and Sambalpur annexed in 1849 Baghat annexed in 1850 Udaipur annexed in 1852 Jhansi annexed in 1853 Nagpur annexed in 1854 Option A: Cornwallis is associated with the Permanent Settlement of Bengal and civil service reforms, not the Doctrine of Lapse. Option B: Ripon is known for the introduction of local self-government and the repeal of the Vernacular Press Act. Option C: Curzon is known for the Partition of Bengal in 1905 and the Indian Universities Act of 1904.

42. Q42British rule: administration, economy and society

    The year the partition of Bengal was repealed:

    • a1905
    • b1910
    • c1911Answer
    • d1919
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the partition of Bengal, which had been enacted by Lord Curzon in 1905, was formally annulled in December 1911 by King George V at the Delhi Durbar. Partition of Bengal enacted: 1905 Partition of Bengal repealed: 1911 Option A: 1905 was the year the partition of Bengal was implemented, not repealed. Option B: 1910 marks no significant official decision regarding the partition of Bengal. Option D: 1919 was the year of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

43. Q43British rule: administration, economy and society

    Who is the author of poverty and as British rule in India?

    • aV.T. Krishnamachari
    • bS.K. Desai
    • cDadabai NaorojiAnswer
    • dM. Visveswaraigh
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Dadabhai Naoroji authored the pioneering work Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, which demonstrated how colonial mechanisms systematically drained wealth out of India. Option A: V.T. Krishnamachari was an administrator who served as Diwan of Baroda and Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission, not the author of this work. Option B: S.K. Desai was a legal scholar and jurist who had no connection to this economic critique. Option D: M. Visveswaraiah was a legendary civil engineer and statesman who authored Planned Economy for India in 1934.

44. Q44British rule: administration, economy and society

    The Press / Information Act in mother tongue was passed during the tenure of which of the following?

    • aWarren Hastings
    • bBentinck
    • cLyttonAnswer
    • dCurzon
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, which placed strict restrictions on newspapers printed in Indian mother tongues, was enacted during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Lytton. Vernacular Press Act passed: 1878 Viceroy: Lord Lytton Option A: Warren Hastings governed from 1773 to 1785, long before vernacular press regulations were legislated. Option B: Bentinck adopted a liberal approach towards the press and did not introduce restrictive vernacular press legislation. Option D: Curzon was Viceroy from 1899 to 1905, well after the passage and subsequent repeal of the Vernacular Press Act.

45. Q45Socio-religious reform movements

    'Tattva Bodhini Samaj' was started by:

    • aRaja Ram Mohan Roy
    • bDebendranath TagoreAnswer
    • cBadri Raju brothers
    • dVeeresalingam
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Debendranath Tagore founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha (later known as Tattva Bodhini Samaj) in Calcutta in 1839 to promote a rational study of India's past and propagate the religious ideas of the Upanishads. Option A: Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1814 and the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, dying six years before Tattvabodhini Sabha was created. Option C: Badri Raju brothers were regional social activists in Andhra and had no connection with the founding of this Bengal-based organisation. Option D: Kandukuri Veeresalingam was a social reformer in Andhra who established the Rajahmundry Social Reform Association.

46. Q46The Indian National Movement

    The founders of 'Servants of India Society' are:

    • aDadabhai Naoroji
    • bGopalakrishna GokhaleAnswer
    • cM.G. Ranade
    • dBal Gangadhar Tilak
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in Pune in 1905 to train national missionaries for the service of India and promote education, social reform, and civic duty. Option A: Dadabhai Naoroji founded the East India Association in London, not the Servants of India Society. Option C: M.G. Ranade was Gokhale's political mentor and associated with the Prarthana Samaj and Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, not the founder of this society. Option D: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent Extremist leader who established the Home Rule League, not the Servants of India Society.

47. Q47The Indian National Movement

    Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions ?

    • aAnnulment of partition of BengalAnswer
    • bBoycott
    • cNational education
    • dSwadeshi
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the four famous resolutions passed at the 1906 Calcutta session under Dadabhai Naoroji were Swadeshi, Boycott, National Education, and Swaraj, whereas the annulment of the partition of Bengal was not framed as one of those four specific programmatic resolutions. Resolution 1: Swadeshi Resolution 2: Boycott Resolution 3: National Education Resolution 4: Swaraj or Self-Government Option B: Boycott was explicitly adopted as one of the four cornerstone resolutions at the 1906 session. Option C: National education was formally endorsed as one of the four resolutions to create indigenous educational institutions. Option D: Swadeshi was one of the foundational four resolutions passed to promote domestic industries.

48. Q48The Indian National Movement

    Mahatma Gandhi presided over the annual Congress session only once at:

    • aKakinada 1923
    • bBelgaum 1925 (1924)Answer
    • cKanpur 1925
    • dGuwahati 1926
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Mahatma Gandhi served as the president of the Indian National Congress only at the 39th annual session held at Belgaum in December 1924. Option A: The Kakinada session of 1923 was presided over by Maulana Mohammad Ali. Option C: The Kanpur session of 1925 was presided over by Sarojini Naidu. Option D: The Guwahati session of 1926 was presided over by S. Srinivasa Iyengar.

49. Q49The Indian National Movement

    The year Gandhiji first launched Satyagraha in South Africa:

    • a1905
    • b1906Answer
    • c1915
    • d1916
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Mahatma Gandhi launched his first Satyagraha campaign on 11 September 1906 at the Empire Theatre in Johannesburg to protest against the Asiatic Law Amendment Ordinance. Option A: In 1905, Gandhi was actively writing in Indian Opinion, but the formal technique of Satyagraha had not yet been launched. Option C: In 1915, Gandhi returned permanently to India from South Africa. Option D: In 1916, Gandhi was touring India and attending the Lucknow Session of Congress.

50. Q50The Indian National Movement

    'Azad Hind Fauj' was started in:

    • aBangkok
    • bTokyo
    • cBerlin
    • dSingaporeAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Indian National Army, or Azad Hind Fauj, was formally reorganized and launched under Subhas Chandra Bose at Singapore in July 1943, where he gave his famous call Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom. Option A: Bangkok hosted the Bangkok Conference in June 1942 where Rash Behari Bose invited Subhas Chandra Bose, but it was not the launching site of the army. Option B: Tokyo was where the Japanese military liaised with Indian revolutionaries, but the armed force itself was formed and stationed in Southeast Asia. Option C: Berlin was the site where Subhas Chandra Bose established the Free India Centre and the Indian Legion in 1941, not the Azad Hind Fauj.

51. Q51The Indian National Movement

    The Tenali Bomb case was related to:

    • aVande Mataram MovementAnswer
    • bHome Rule Movement
    • cSalt Satyagraha
    • dNon-Cooperation Movement
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Tenali Bomb case took place in 1909, arising directly out of the militant nationalist enthusiasm of the Vande Mataram (Swadeshi) Movement. Option B: The Home Rule Movement started in 1916, years after the Tenali incident. Option C: The Salt Satyagraha began in 1930 under the Civil Disobedience Movement. Option D: The Non-Cooperation Movement commenced in 1920 and strictly adhered to non-violent agitation.

52. Q52The Indian National Movement

    The one who became popularly known as 'Andhra Shivaji' is:

    • aDuggirala Gopalakrishnayya
    • bKanneganti Hanumanthu
    • cKonda Venkatappayya
    • dP. Veerayya ChowdaryAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Paruchuri Veerayya Chowdary was given the popular title Andhra Shivaji for his courage and leadership during the national movement. Option A: Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya was known by the title Andhra Ratna. Option B: Kanneganti Hanumanthu was the martyr who led the Palnadu Forest Satyagraha and was not called Andhra Shivaji. Option C: Konda Venkatappayya was revered with the title Desabhakta.

53. Q53The Indian National Movement

    The occasion on which the State Congress leaders released the 'Kurnool Circular':

    • aVande Mataram Movement
    • bQuit India MovementAnswer
    • cSalt Satyagraha
    • dNon-Cooperation Movement
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Kurnool Circular, which outlined a program of non-violent and underground resistance for national volunteers, was formulated and circulated by local Congress leaders during the 1942 Quit India Movement. Option A: It occurred during 1905 to 1911 in response to the partition of Bengal, long before district action plans like the Kurnool Circular were drafted. Option C: It took place in 1930 and was dedicated to manufacturing contraband salt and violating the salt monopoly. Option D: It was conducted between 1920 and 1922 and focused on boycotting British courts, titles, and educational institutions.

54. Q54Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

    The date on which the Muslim League observed Direct Action Day:

    • aAugust 12, 1946
    • bAugust 15, 1946
    • cAugust 16, 1946Answer
    • dAugust 15, 1947
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the All-India Muslim League under Muhammad Ali Jinnah designated August 16, 1946, as Direct Action Day to assert its demand for Pakistan. Muslim League passes Direct Action resolution: July 29, 1946 Direct Action Day observed: August 16, 1946 Great Calcutta Killings outbreak: August 16, 1946 Option A: August 12, 1946 is incorrect because on this day Viceroy Wavell invited Jawaharlal Nehru to form the Interim Government. Option B: August 15, 1946 is incorrect because the day of action was called for the following day. Option D: August 15, 1947 is incorrect because this marks the independence of India, one year after Direct Action Day.

55. Q55Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

    Who was the architect of the Constitution of India?

    • aDr. AmbedkarAnswer
    • bVallabh Bhai Patel
    • cGovind Vallabh Pant
    • dK. Santhanam
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Dr. B.R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played the most decisive role in shaping the provisions, earning him the title of the Chief Architect of the Constitution of India. Option B: Vallabhbhai Patel headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas, not the Drafting Committee. Option C: Govind Vallabh Pant was an active member of the Constituent Assembly and later Union Home Minister, but not the chief architect of the Constitution. Option D: K. Santhanam was a prominent member who contributed to debates on financial relations and later headed the Anti-Corruption Committee, not the Constitution's primary architect.

56. Q56Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    The first coalition government formed at the Centre

    • aJanata GovernmentAnswer
    • bUnited Front Government
    • cNational Democratic Government
    • dNational Front Government
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Janata Party government formed in 1977 under Prime Minister Morarji Desai was India's first coalition government at the Centre, formed through the coming together of diverse parties like the Bharatiya Lok Dal, Congress (O), Jan Sangh, and Socialist Party. Option B: The United Front government was formed much later, in 1996, under H. D. Deve Gowda. Option C: The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) government was formed first in 1998 under Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Option D: The National Front government was formed in 1989 under V. P. Singh.

57. Q57Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Who was India's first Deputy Prime Minister?

    • aLal Bhadur Shastri
    • bSardar Vallabhai PatelAnswer
    • cB.D. Jitty
    • dDr. Rajendra Prasad
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as India's first Deputy Prime Minister from 15 August 1947 until his death on 15 December 1950. Option A: Lal Bahadur Shastri served as Railway Minister, Home Minister, and Prime Minister, but never as Deputy Prime Minister. Option C: B. D. Jatti was the Vice President of India and acting President, not the first Deputy Prime Minister. Option D: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly and India's first President, not Deputy Prime Minister.

58. Q58History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    Nicolaus Copernicus 16th century:

    • aAstronomerAnswer
    • bMathematician
    • cNavigator
    • dPhilosopher
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Nicolaus Copernicus was a 16th-century astronomer who formulated the revolutionary heliocentric model, demonstrating that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun. Option B: Mathematics was a tool Copernicus applied, but his historical reputation rests primarily on his revolutionary astronomical model. Option C: Copernicus did not undertake maritime explorations or seafaring voyages. Option D: Copernicus was primarily a scientist and canon who performed observational and mathematical astronomy rather than a philosopher.

59. Q59History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    Alfred Nobel was the inventor of which of the following?

    • aCosmic rays
    • bDynamiteAnswer
    • cDynamo
    • dPenicillin
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Alfred Nobel developed and patented dynamite in 1867, making the handling of nitroglycerin significantly safer and more practical for industrial blasting. Option A: Cosmic rays were discovered through high-altitude balloon experiments by Victor Hess in 1912. Option C: Dynamo was invented through Michael Faraday's electromagnetic induction principles and developed practically by Werner von Siemens and others. Option D: Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928 from Penicillium notatum mold.

60. Q60Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    The one who translated Vigneshwara's 'Mitakshara' into Telugu is:

    • aVisvesvara
    • bMaradi Singana
    • cKetanaAnswer
    • dBaddena
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Moolaghatika Ketana, a 13th-century poet in the court of Tikkana Somayaji, rendered Vijnaneshwara's Sanskrit legal treatise Mitakshara into Telugu under the name Vijnaneswariyama. Option A: Visvesvara was not the translator of Mitakshara into Telugu. Option B: Maradi Singana compiled works such as Sakalaniti Sammatam and translated portions of the Padma Puranam, not Mitakshara. Option D: Baddena is celebrated for composing the didactic works Sumati Shatakam and Niti Sastra Muktavali.

61. Q61Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Which of the following is not correctly matched?

    • aThe Government of India Act, 1935
    • bThe Cabinet Mission Plan Year, 1946
    • cThe Cripps Mission Year 1942
    • dThe Government of India Act, 1919-Minto Morley ReformsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Government of India Act, 1919 is known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, whereas the Minto-Morley Reforms correspond to the Indian Councils Act, 1909. Option A: The Government of India Act, 1935 is correctly matched with its year of enactment. Option B: The Cabinet Mission Plan Year, 1946 is correctly matched with the year it was sent to India. Option C: The Cripps Mission Year 1942 is correctly matched with the year Sir Stafford Cripps visited India.

62. Q62Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The constituent Assembly was set up under the

    • aPandit Jawaharlal Report
    • bCabinet Mission PlanAnswer
    • cCripps Mission
    • dRajagopalachari Report
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the framework formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Option A: Pandit Jawaharlal Report is incorrect because the constitutional report was the Nehru Report of 1928 drafted by Motilal Nehru, not Jawaharlal Nehru. Option C: Cripps Mission proposed a post-war constitution-making body in 1942, but its proposals were rejected by Indian political parties. Option D: Rajagopalachari Report was a formula aimed at ending the Congress-Muslim League deadlock, not a blueprint for setting up the Assembly.

63. Q63Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Provision to employment to all comes under :

    • aDirective Principles of State PolicyAnswer
    • bFundamental Rights
    • cPreamble
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the provision of employment and the right to work are covered under the Directive Principles of State Policy, notably Articles 39, 41, and 43. Article 39(a) directs securing an adequate means of livelihood for all citizens. Article 41 directs securing the right to work, education, and public assistance. Article 43 directs securing a living wage and decent conditions of work. Option B: It is incorrect because the right to employment is not a guaranteed justiciable right under Part III. Option C: It is incorrect because the Preamble outlines broad constitutional objectives rather than specific socio-economic provisions like employment. Option D: It is incorrect because the provision is clearly embodied within the Directive Principles.

64. Q64Amendment and the basic structure

    The result of the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act:

    • aReorganization of Lok Sabha constituencies
    • bProhibition of offices of profit for Members of Parliament
    • cIncreasing the number of languages in Schedule 8 of the Constitution
    • dLimiting the size of Union and State Councils of Ministers not to exceed 10 percent of the total number of members in the lower house (Union, State)Answer

    Explanation coming soon.

65. Q65The Union executive

    The Union Territories are administered by the :

    • aParliament
    • bUnion Council of Ministers
    • cPresident through administrators appointed by himAnswer
    • dPrime Minister
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 239(1) of the Indian Constitution specifies that every Union Territory shall be administered by the President, acting to such extent as he thinks fit through an administrator appointed by him. Article 239 vests the administration of Union Territories in the President through an administrator Option A: Parliament has legislative powers over Union Territories, but the executive administration is not directly run by it. Option B: The Union Council of Ministers aids and advises the President, but administration is carried out through administrators appointed by the President. Option D: The Prime Minister does not directly administer the Union Territories under the Constitution.

66. Q66The Union executive

    Minimum age required to contest for presidentiship is :

    • a35 yearsAnswer
    • b30 years
    • c23 years
    • d21 years
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Article 58(1)(b) of the Constitution mandates that no person shall be eligible for election as President unless they have completed the age of 35 years. Option B: 30 years is the minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha or a State Legislative Council, not the President. Option C: 23 years is not a prescribed constitutional age threshold for any legislative or executive office in India. Option D: 21 years is the minimum age required to contest local panchayat or municipal elections.

67. Q67The Union executive

    Among the following four pairs, which correct pair of high officials served in diplomatic positions and became Vice-Presidents?

    • aDr. S. Radhakrishnan and Dr. Zakir Husain
    • bDr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S. PathakAnswer
    • cDr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V. Giri
    • dB.D. Jatti and Dr. K.R. Narayanan

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

68. Q68The Union executive

    Official Residence of Prime Minister of India

    • a7 Race Course RoadAnswer
    • b10th Janapath Road
    • cM.Ps Residential Road
    • dAirport Road
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because 7 Race Course Road, officially renamed 7 Lok Kalyan Marg in 2016, is the designated official residence and principal workplace of the Prime Minister of India. Option B: 10 Janpath is the private official residence of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and later Sonia Gandhi, not the official prime ministerial residence. Option C: M.Ps Residential Road is not an official address or designated estate for the head of government. Option D: Airport Road is a general transit thoroughfare and has no official prime ministerial residential designation.

69. Q69The Union executive

    The Ministers are individually responsible to :

    • aThe President
    • bThe Prime Minister
    • cLok Sabha
    • dThe House of which they are membersAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

70. Q70Parliament and the state legislatures

    The Rajya Sabha has a life of :

    • a2 years
    • b6 years
    • c7 years
    • dPermanencyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Rajya Sabha is a permanent legislative body and is not subject to dissolution under Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India. Option A: Two years is the interval at which one-third of the members retire, not the life of the House. Option B: Six years is the tenure of an individual member of the Rajya Sabha, not the life of the House itself. Option C: Seven years is not a tenure associated with the Rajya Sabha or its members in the Indian Constitution.

71. Q71Parliament and the state legislatures

    The maximum strength of the nominated members in both the Houses of Parliament can be :

    • a10
    • b12
    • c14Answer
    • d20
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the maximum statutory strength of nominated members across both Houses was 14, comprising 12 members nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha under Article 80 and up to 2 Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha under Article 331. Rajya Sabha nominated members: 12 Lok Sabha nominated members: 2 Total nominated members: 14 Option A: Ten is lower than the 12 nominated members in the Rajya Sabha alone. Option B: Twelve represents only the nominated quota of the Rajya Sabha, omitting the Lok Sabha provision. Option D: Twenty refers to the maximum representation from Union Territories in the Lok Sabha, not nominated members.

72. Q72Parliament and the state legislatures

    Who is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?

    • aPresident
    • bVice-PresidentAnswer
    • cLeader of Opposition
    • dMinister of Parliamentary Affairs
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Vice-President of India holds the constitutional post of ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Article 64: Vice-President to be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States Article 89(1): Council of States shall choose its members to fill offices, while Vice-President serves as ex-officio Chairman Option A: President is the constitutional head of state and is not an officer or chairman of either house of Parliament. Option C: Leader of Opposition is the leader of the largest minority party in the house, not its presiding officer. Option D: Minister of Parliamentary Affairs manages government legislative business and does not preside over parliamentary chambers.

73. Q73The judiciary

    To whom has the Indian Constitution entrusted the responsibility of its enforcement?

    • aTo all courts
    • bTo the President
    • cTo the Parliament
    • dTo the Supreme CourtAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Supreme Court of India is designated as the ultimate interpreter, protector, and guarantor of the Constitution and Fundamental Rights under Article 32. Option A: Subordinate courts do not have constitutional jurisdiction to enforce fundamental rights or adjudicate constitutional validity. Option B: The President is the executive head who takes an oath to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution, but judicial enforcement is entrusted to the judiciary. Option C: The Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, but it does not adjudicate or enforce constitutional compliance.

74. Q74The judiciary

    'Judicial Review' function of the Supreme Court means :

    • aundertake periodic review of the constitution
    • bexamine the constitutional validity of the lawsAnswer
    • creview the functioning of judiciary in the country
    • dreview its own judgement
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because judicial review is the power of the higher judiciary to examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders, invalidating those that contravene the Constitution. Option A: The Constitution does not provide for periodic review of its provisions by the Supreme Court. Option C: Administrative oversight of subordinate courts is supervisory jurisdiction, not judicial review. Option D: Reconsidering its own prior rulings is the review jurisdiction under Article 137, distinct from the judicial review of laws.

75. Q75The state government

    The first woman governor of a state in free India was :

    • aSarojini NaiduAnswer
    • bIndira Gandhi
    • cSucheta Kripalani
    • dVijaya Laxmi Pandit
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Sarojini Naidu was appointed as the Governor of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) on August 15, 1947, making her the first woman to hold the office of Governor in independent India. Option B: Indira Gandhi was the first woman Prime Minister of India, not the first woman Governor. Option C: Sucheta Kripalani was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian State (Uttar Pradesh in 1963), not the first Governor. Option D: Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was the first woman President of the UN General Assembly and served as Governor of Maharashtra later in 1962.

76. Q76The state government

    The member of the State Legislative Assembly are elected for what period?

    • a6 years
    • b2 years
    • c4 years
    • d5 yearsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because according to Article 172(1) of the Constitution of India, the normal duration of the Legislative Assembly of every state is five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. Option A: 6 years is the typical tenure of a member of the Legislative Council or Rajya Sabha, not the Assembly. Option B: 2 years is one-third rotation period for members of upper houses, not the assembly term. Option C: 4 years is not the standard term for state legislative assemblies in India.

77. Q77Federalism and centre-state relations

    The State List contains :

    • a97 subjects
    • b69 subjects
    • c66 subjectsAnswer
    • d103 subjects
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the State List (List II) originally contained 66 subjects when the Constitution of India was adopted in 1949. Original Union List subjects: 97 Original State List subjects: 66 Original Concurrent List subjects: 47 Option A: 97 was the original number of subjects in the Union List, not the State List. Option B: 69 is an incorrect figure not matching the original or present constitutional count. Option D: 103 does not correspond to the number of subjects in the State List.

78. Q78Federalism and centre-state relations

    Under the constitution, the residuary powers vest with the :

    • aPresident
    • bUnion GovernmentAnswer
    • cSupreme Court
    • dState Governments
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 248 of the Constitution vests the residuary powers of legislation exclusively in Parliament, which represents the legislative wing of the Union Government. Article 248: Residuary powers of legislation vest in Parliament Entry 97, List I (Union List): Any other matter not enumerated in List II or List III Option A: The President is the executive head of the Union and does not independently hold residuary legislative powers. Option C: The Supreme Court is an adjudicatory body tasked with judicial review and possesses no legislative authority. Option D: State Governments and legislatures are strictly restricted to subjects enumerated in the State List and Concurrent List.

79. Q79Federalism and centre-state relations

    Railways is a subject on the :

    • aUnion ListAnswer
    • bConcurrent List
    • cState List
    • dResidual List
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Railways is placed under the Union List (List I, Entry 22) of the Seventh Schedule, giving exclusive legislative power to the Parliament of India. Option B: Railways is not in the Concurrent List; it is managed exclusively by the Central Government. Option C: States do not have general legislative jurisdiction over railways, as it is an exclusively central subject. Option D: Residual powers apply only to matters not enumerated in any of the three lists, which is not the case for Railways.

80. Q80Local government and decentralisation

    Mandal Panchayats were recommended by:

    • aVengal Rao
    • bAshok Mehta CommitteeAnswer
    • cNarasimhan Committee
    • dBalwantrai Mehta Committee
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Ashok Mehta Committee (1978) recommended replacing the existing three-tier Panchayati Raj system with a two-tier model consisting of the Zilla Parishad at the district level and the Mandal Panchayat for a cluster of villages. Option A: The J. Vengal Rao Committee evaluated the Panchayati Raj setup in Andhra Pradesh but did not originate the Mandal Panchayat concept. Option C: The Narasimham Committee was established to recommend reforms in the financial and banking sector, not local self-government. Option D: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended a three-tier system comprising the Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zilla Parishad.