APPSC Group-I Prelims 2010

382 questions from the 2010 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

201. Q201World regional geography

     The largest bauxite field in Australia is located at:

     • aGove
     • bWeipaAnswer
     • cAurukun
     • dVictoria
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Weipa, situated along the western coast of the Cape York Peninsula in Queensland, is home to one of the largest and highest-grade bauxite mining deposits in Australia and the world. Option A: Gove has a major bauxite operation in the Northern Territory, but its overall reserve base and production scale are smaller than Weipa. Option C: Aurukun contains a massive bauxite deposit located south of Weipa, but it has not been developed into the largest active bauxite-producing field. Option D: Victoria is not a major bauxite-producing state in Australia, as the nation's primary reserves lie in Queensland, the Northern Territory, and Western Australia.

202. Q202World regional geography

     Nikopol deposits in Ireland contain which of the following?

     • aManganeseAnswer
     • bGraphite
     • cCopper
     • dNickel
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Nikopol basin is one of the world's largest sedimentary manganese ore reserves, holding billions of tons of high-grade manganese deposits. Option B: Graphite is found primarily in crystalline metamorphic belts such as those in Sri Lanka, Madagascar, and China. Option C: Copper is mined from major porphyry systems like those in the Andes, not sedimentary beds like Nikopol. Option D: Nickel is extracted primarily from laterite deposits or magmatic sulfide complexes, not the Nikopol formation.

203. Q203World regional geography

     The main center for melting and refining tin in Southeast Asia is located in

     • aJava
     • bSumatra
     • cMyanmar
     • dSingaporeAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Singapore historically developed as the foremost regional hub for smelting, refining, and exporting tin in Southeast Asia, notably centered around the Straits Trading Company smelter on Pulau Brani processing tin ores from Malaya and neighboring territories. Option A: Java is the political and population center of Indonesia rather than the regional processing hub for tin smelting. Option B: Sumatra has tin-rich offshore islands such as Bangka and Belitung that extract ore, but Singapore served as the central regional smelting and trading node. Option C: Myanmar has scattered tin reserves but lacks the premier commercial smelting and refining infrastructure of the region.

204. Q204World regional geography

     The country with the highest population density in Latin America:

     • aPuerto RicoAnswer
     • bBrazil
     • cPanama
     • dMexico
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Puerto Rico, an island territory in Latin America and the Caribbean, has a very high population density relative to its compact land area, far exceeding mainland Latin American nations. Puerto Rico: approximately 370 people per square kilometre Mexico: approximately 66 people per square kilometre Panama: approximately 58 people per square kilometre Brazil: approximately 25 people per square kilometre Option B: Brazil has a vast landmass across the Amazon and interior, giving it a very low average density. Option C: Panama has extensive forested and canal areas, keeping its overall population density moderate. Option D: Mexico has a substantial land area that results in a population density well below that of Puerto Rico.

205. Q205World regional geography

     In which state of Australia is there a high proportion of rural population?

     • aPerth
     • bNew South Wales
     • cQueensland
     • dTasmaniaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Tasmania has the highest proportion of regional and rural residents among all Australian states, with more than half of its population living outside the capital city of Hobart. Option A: Perth is the urban capital city of Western Australia rather than an Australian state. Option B: New South Wales is predominantly urban, with the majority of its residents residing in Greater Sydney. Option C: Queensland is highly urbanized along its southeastern coast, despite possessing notable regional centres.

206. Q206Mapping India: the Survey of India, remote sensing and applied geography

     The first experiment to induce artificial rainfall in Andhra Pradesh was conducted at:

     • aChevella, Ranga Reddy district
     • bMannanur, Mahabubnagar district
     • cAtmakur, Anantapur districtAnswer
     • dGadeki, Chittoor district

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

207. Q207India state by state: capitals, districts and where places are

     Given below is a map of a state in India. Identify it:

     • aHaryana
     • bBihar
     • cRajasthan
     • dGujaratAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

208. Q208India state by state: capitals, districts and where places are

     Given below is an outline map of a state in India. Identify it:

     • aOrissaAnswer
     • bUttar Pradesh
     • cTamil Nadu
     • dKarnataka

     Explanation coming soon.

209. Q209STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     Given below is a map of a district in Andhra Pradesh. Identify it:

     • aChittoor
     • bPrakasamAnswer
     • cAdilabad
     • dVisakhapatnam

     Explanation coming soon.

210. Q210STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     Given below is an outline map of a district in Andhra Pradesh. Identify it.

     • aKarimnagar
     • bKhammamAnswer
     • cGuntur
     • dApoor

     Explanation coming soon.

211. Q211STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     Jaymangali River is a tributary of which river?

     • aBhima
     • bTungabhadra
     • cManjira
     • dPennarAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Jayamangali River originates in the Devarayanadurga hills of Tumkur district in Karnataka and flows into the Pennar River as one of its prominent left-bank tributaries. Option A: Bhima is a major tributary of the Krishna River with its basin situated much further north. Option B: Tungabhadra receives streams such as the Vedavathi, Varada, and Tunga, not the Jayamangali. Option C: Manjira is a major right-bank tributary of the Godavari River.

212. Q212STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     In Andhra Pradesh, among the following, where are Anthracene reserves abundant?

     • aAdilabad district
     • bKadapa districtAnswer
     • cGuntur district
     • dAnantapur district

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

213. Q213STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     Among the following, lead deposits are found in Andhra Pradesh in:

     • aKurnool District
     • bNizamabad District
     • cVizianagaram DistrictAnswer
     • dChittoor District

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

214. Q214STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     The district where Kesoram Cements Factory is located in Andhra Pradesh is:

     • aKarimnagarAnswer
     • bVizianagaram
     • cRanga Reddy
     • dKadapa
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Kesoram Cement manufacturing plant was established at Basantnagar in the erstwhile Karimnagar district (now part of Peddapalli district) of undivided Andhra Pradesh. Option B: Vizianagaram is located in north coastal Andhra and does not contain the Kesoram Cement facility. Option C: Ranga Reddy district surrounds Hyderabad and is not the home of the Basantnagar cement works. Option D: Kadapa hosts various cement units like Dalmia and Bharati, but Kesoram Cements is situated in the northern Telangana region.

215. Q215Ecology and ecosystems

     What is an organism that can tolerate low temperature conditions called?

     • aPsychrophileAnswer
     • bPsychrophiles
     • cEurythermal
     • dStenothermal
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because a psychrophile is an extremophilic organism capable of growth and reproduction in low-temperature environments, typically between minus 20 degrees Celsius and 10 degrees Celsius. Option B: Psychrophiles represents the plural noun form rather than the singular organism asked for in the question. Option C: Eurythermal organisms can tolerate a wide range of temperatures, not specifically low temperatures. Option D: Stenothermal organisms can survive only within a narrow range of temperatures, which may be warm or cold.

216. Q216Ecology and ecosystems

     What is the study of animal behavior called?

     • aEtymology
     • bEthologyAnswer
     • cEcology
     • dEuphenics
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because ethology is the branch of biological science that systematically investigates the natural behavior of animals. Option A: Etymology is the historical and linguistic study of words and their origins. Option C: Ecology is the study of how living organisms interact with one another and with their physical surroundings. Option D: Euphenics is the study of altering phenotypic traits to alleviate genetic disorders.

217. Q217Ecology and ecosystems

     What are the plants that grow on seashores called?

     • aSaltwater plantsAnswer
     • bAquatic plants of water
     • cDesert plants
     • dSand plants
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because plants growing on seashores are exposed to high concentrations of sodium chloride and are physiologically adapted as halophytes or saltwater plants. Option B: Aquatic plants of water refers to freshwater hydrophytes that lack physiological adaptations to withstand coastal salinity. Option C: Desert plants, or xerophytes, are adapted primarily to drought and arid soils rather than saline marine seashore conditions. Option D: Sand plants, or psammophytes, specialize in loose sandy substrates but do not necessarily tolerate saline ocean environments.

218. Q218Wildlife and forest conservation

     The date on which the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 was approved in India:

     • a17 December, 2006
     • b18 December, 2006Answer
     • c19 December, 2006
     • d20 December, 2006
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Bill was approved and finally passed by the Parliament of India when the Rajya Sabha cleared it on 18 December, 2006. 15 December, 2006: Passed by the Lok Sabha. 18 December, 2006: Passed by the Rajya Sabha (approved by Parliament). 29 December, 2006: Received Presidential assent. Option A: 17 December, 2006 was a Sunday during the parliamentary session and not the date of legislative passage. Option C: 19 December, 2006 occurred after the bill had already successfully cleared both Houses of Parliament. Option D: 20 December, 2006 is incorrect because parliamentary approval was completed two days earlier.

219. Q219Climate change: policy and response

     The 'Greenhouse' effect deals with which of the following?

     • acooling the lower atmosphere
     • bheating the upper atmosphere
     • ccooling the upper atmosphere
     • dheating the lower atmosphereAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the greenhouse effect traps outgoing longwave terrestrial radiation near the surface, thereby warming Earth's surface and lower atmosphere (troposphere). Option A: The greenhouse effect warms rather than cools the lower atmosphere. Option B: Enhanced greenhouse effect warms the lower atmosphere while causing the stratosphere in the upper atmosphere to cool. Option C: Although upper atmospheric cooling is an observed consequence of greenhouse gas buildup, the greenhouse effect specifically describes the mechanism of heating the surface and lower atmosphere.

220. Q220Structure of Indian society

     What are the languages, centre granted classical language status ?

     • aMarathi, Assami
     • bTelugu, KannadaAnswer
     • cTamil, Malayalam
     • dPunjabi, Bihari
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because both Telugu and Kannada were simultaneously conferred Classical Language status by the Government of India in the year 2008. Option A: Assamese was granted classical status only in 2024 alongside Marathi, but at the time this question was set, neither had it. Option C: Tamil was granted classical language status in 2004 and Malayalam in 2013; this pair does not represent the famous paired notification of 2008 which specifically tested Telugu and Kannada together in Andhra/Telangana state exams. Option D: Neither Punjabi nor Bihari has been accorded classical language status in India.

221. Q221Welfare mechanism

     The Swayamsiddha scheme launched in the year 2002 is dedicated to what?

     • aWomen's literacy
     • bWomen's health
     • cWomen's empowermentAnswer
     • dWomen's welfare
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Swayamsiddha scheme was an integrated programme introduced to achieve women's empowerment through the formation of self-help groups, capacity building, and facilitating access to microcredit. Option A: Women's literacy is primarily addressed by schemes such as Saakshar Bharat, not the SHG-based Swayamsiddha. Option B: Women's health is targeted by maternal and health programmes such as Janani Suraksha Yojana rather than Swayamsiddha. Option D: Women's welfare is a broader concept, whereas Swayamsiddha was specifically framed and executed as an empowerment programme through self-help groups.

222. Q222Science, technology and society

     Hargovind Khurana is an international Authority in the field of :

     • aPhysics
     • bBiology
     • cGeneticsAnswer
     • dChemistry
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Har Gobind Khorana gained international recognition for deciphering the genetic code and synthesising the first functional artificial gene, establishing him as an authority in genetics and molecular biology. Option A: Physics examines matter and energy, which was outside his specialised domain of biological chemistry. Option B: Biology is an overly broad umbrella term that does not identify the specific subfield of genetic code synthesis for which he is renowned. Option D: Chemistry provided his technical methodology, but his global authority and Nobel recognition were specifically focused on genetic code research.

223. Q223Science, technology and society

     Name the second woman of the Indian origin who was taken into space by NASA:

     • aKalpana Chawla
     • bSunita Lyn WilliamsAnswer
     • cSonia Desouja
     • dMichella Robert
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Sunita Lyn Williams became the second woman of Indian ancestry to fly into space when she launched on Space Shuttle mission STS-116 in December 2006. Option A: Kalpana Chawla was the first woman of Indian origin in space, having flown aboard STS-87 in 1997. Option C: Sonia Desouja is not a NASA astronaut. Option D: Michella Robert is not an astronaut associated with NASA space missions.

224. Q224Policy, missions and institutions

     The supercomputer Tianhe was developed by:

     • aJapan
     • bMalaysia
     • cThailand
     • dChinaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Tianhe supercomputer series, including Tianhe-1 and Tianhe-2, was developed by China's National University of Defense Technology. Option A: Japan developed renowned supercomputers such as Fugaku and the K computer, not the Tianhe series. Option B: Malaysia operates high-performance computing clusters but did not design or build the Tianhe supercomputers. Option C: Thailand possesses research supercomputing facilities but has not developed the Tianhe supercomputer lineage.

225. Q225Space technology

     How many times the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) took flights to the space?

     • a5 times
     • b21 times
     • c16 times
     • d18 timesAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

226. Q226Space technology

     The peiod of revolution of geostationary satel-lite is:

     • a24 hoursAnswer
     • b48 hours
     • c36 hours
     • d60 hours
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because a geostationary satellite completes one revolution in approximately 24 hours, matching the rotational period of Earth. Option B: A period of 48 hours would cause the satellite to drift rapidly westward relative to Earth's surface. Option C: A period of 36 hours does not match Earth's rotation and would not remain fixed over one longitude. Option D: A period of 60 hours is far too slow for a geostationary orbit.

227. Q227Space technology

     Consider the following statements: The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in A. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere B. predicting the onset of monsoons C. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aA and B only
     • bB only
     • cA and C only
     • dA, B and CAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Oceansat-2 carried payloads including the Ocean Colour Monitor, Ku-band Scatterometer, and ROSA, which collectively measured atmospheric humidity, tracked ocean surface winds to predict monsoon dynamics, and detected coastal water quality and pollution. Option A: It omits coastal water pollution monitoring, which is actively performed by analyzing suspended sediments and chlorophyll using the Ocean Colour Monitor. Option B: It ignores atmospheric water vapour profiling and coastal monitoring, which are core data outputs from the ROSA and OCM payloads. Option C: It overlooks monsoon onset prediction, which relies directly on sea surface wind vectors retrieved by the onboard Ku-band scatterometer.

228. Q228Space technology

     In the context of space technology. What is "Bhuvan", recently in the news?

     • aA mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India
     • bThe name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan-II
     • cA geoportal of ISRO with 3 D imaging capabilities of IndiaAnswer
     • dA space telescope developed by India
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Bhuvan is an Indian Earth observation web portal developed by ISRO that enables 2D and 3D visualization of Indian satellite imagery and thematic geospatial datasets. Option A: EDUSAT was the dedicated satellite launched by ISRO to support distance education across India, not Bhuvan. Option B: The Moon Impact Probe was an instrument payload on Chandrayaan-1, not Bhuvan. Option D: AstroSat is the dedicated multi-wavelength space astronomy observatory developed by India, not Bhuvan.

229. Q229Space technology

     India jointly developed Chandrayaan-2 with?

     • aJapan
     • bGermany
     • cRussiaAnswer
     • dFrance
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because India originally signed an agreement with Russia (Roscosmos) in 2007 to jointly develop Chandrayaan-2, under which Roscosmos was responsible for building the lunar lander. Option A: Japan is incorrect because JAXA is collaborating with ISRO on the subsequent LUPEX mission, not Chandrayaan-2. Option B: Germany is incorrect because the German space agency was not a co-development partner for Chandrayaan-2. Option D: France is incorrect because CNES was not involved in building the Chandrayaan-2 lander or orbiter.

230. Q230Space technology

     Chandrayan II is designed jointly by India and:

     • aJapan
     • bGermany
     • cRussiaAnswer
     • dFrance
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Chandrayaan-2 was originally conceived and designed as a collaborative mission between ISRO and the Russian space agency Roscosmos, under an agreement signed in 2007. Option A: Incorrect because Japan's space agency JAXA is collaborating on the future LUPEX mission, not Chandrayaan-2. Option B: Incorrect because Germany had no joint development role in the Chandrayaan-2 mission architecture. Option D: Incorrect because France's CNES was not a partner for the Chandrayaan-2 spacecraft design.

231. Q231Space technology

     Cabinet, in the year 2008, closed Chandrayaan II moon mission costing:

     • aRs. 300 crores
     • bRs. 350 crores
     • cRs. 400 crores
     • dRs. 425 croresAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Union Cabinet approved the Chandrayaan-2 lunar exploration mission in September 2008 with an officially sanctioned cost of Rs. 425 crores. Cabinet approval date: September 2008 Sanctioned mission cost: Rs. 425 crores Option A: Rs. 300 crores is incorrect because this figure falls well short of the amount approved by the Cabinet. Option B: Rs. 350 crores is incorrect because the Cabinet cleared a higher budget of Rs. 425 crores. Option C: Rs. 400 crores is incorrect because it does not match the specific financial sanction granted in 2008.

232. Q232Defence technology

     Agni-lll, the missile which was test fired in February, 2010 has the longest range of:

     • a3300 km
     • b3500 kmAnswer
     • c3700 km
     • d3900 km
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Agni-III is an intermediate-range ballistic missile with an operational strike range of 3500 km. Option A: 3300 km is lower than the proven maximum strike range of Agni-III. Option C: 3700 km exceeds the officially designated strike range of the Agni-III system. Option D: 3900 km is inaccurate as Agni-III is rated up to 3500 km.

233. Q233Defence technology

     Agni-I ballistic missile which was test-fired in March, 2010 has a range of :

     • a300 km
     • b500 km
     • c700 kmAnswer
     • d900 km
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Agni-I short-to-medium-range ballistic missile has an established strike range of approximately 700 km. Option A: 300 km is typical of the Prithvi-II or tactical battlefield missiles rather than Agni-I. Option B: 500 km is lower than the proven operational reach of Agni-I. Option D: 900 km exceeds the baseline operational design range of the Agni-I system.

234. Q234Information and communication technology

     'Audio conferencing' is............

     • aone-sided non-verbal communication
     • btwo-sided non-verbal communication
     • cone-sided verbal communication
     • dtwo-sided verbal communicationAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because audio conferencing enables simultaneous, real-time spoken communication between multiple participants at different locations, making it both two-sided and verbal. Option A: It relies on spoken language, which makes it verbal rather than non-verbal, and allows participants to interact rather than being one-sided. Option B: Spoken conversation constitutes verbal communication, not non-verbal communication. Option C: It facilitates multi-directional conversation rather than one-way broadcast communication.

235. Q235Information and communication technology

     The element used in integrated circuits in computers:

     • aIron
     • bMagnesium
     • cAluminium
     • dSiliconAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because silicon is an abundant semiconductor whose electrical conductivity can be precisely modulated through doping, making it ideal for fabricating integrated circuits. Option A: Iron is a metallic conductor unsuitable for building semiconductor components like transistors. Option B: Magnesium is an alkaline earth metal lacking semiconducting properties required for integrated circuits. Option C: Aluminium is a metal traditionally used only for interconnects and wiring inside chips, not as the semiconductor substrate.

236. Q236Information and communication technology

     The language of the world wide web is :

     • aHMTL
     • bHTMLAnswer
     • cHLMT
     • dHLTM
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because HyperText Markup Language (HTML) is the standard language used to create, structure, and display web pages on the World Wide Web. Option A: HMTL is an incorrect spelling of the standard acronym HTML. Option C: HLMT is a misspelled acronym and does not correspond to any web protocol or format. Option D: HLTM is a typographical error for the markup language acronym.

237. Q237Information and communication technology

     The main program that runs the computer is :

     • aMS office
     • bOperating systemAnswer
     • cMS-DOS
     • dC-language
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the operating system is the core system software that manages hardware resources, controls program execution, and provides essential services to all other applications. Option A: MS Office is an application software suite meant for productivity tasks, not system execution. Option C: MS-DOS is a specific, obsolete operating system, making it merely an example rather than the overarching term for the main program running modern computers. Option D: C-language is a programming language used to develop software, not the program running the system.

238. Q238Information and communication technology

     Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies ?

     • aEDGE
     • bLTE
     • cDSLAnswer
     • dBoth EDGE and LTE
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a wired broadband transmission technology operated over copper telephone lines, so it is not part of the wireless GSM evolutionary family. Option A: EDGE is an enhanced 2G/2.5G wireless standard directly built on GSM infrastructure. Option B: LTE is a wireless 4G standard developed by the 3GPP as the direct evolutionary successor to GSM and UMTS. Option D: Both EDGE and LTE are mobile wireless technologies directly descending from the GSM framework.

239. Q239Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     The enzyme produced from plants and microorganisms at a commercial level in the field of biotechnology:

     • aPapain
     • bTrypsin
     • cProteaseAnswer
     • dAmylase

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

240. Q240Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     In the area of Biotechnology enzyme that is produced commercially both from plants and microbes is :

     • aPapain
     • bTrypsin
     • cProteaseAnswer
     • dAmylase

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.