APPSC Group-I Prelims 2010

382 questions from the 2010 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

161. Q161External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following transactions constitutes a current account transaction?

     • aExport of goods
     • bExport of services
     • cGiving a gift to foreignersAnswer
     • dReceiving a gift from foreigners

     Explanation coming soon.

162. Q162External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following transaction is a debt in the current account?

     • aThe export of merchandise
     • bThe export of services
     • cA gift to foreignersAnswer
     • dA gift from foreigners
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because providing a gift to foreigners involves an outflow of funds without receiving any quid pro quo, which is recorded as a debit entry under unilateral transfers in the current account. Option A: The export of merchandise generates foreign exchange receipts and is recorded as a credit. Option B: The export of services earns foreign currency and is entered as a credit. Option D: A gift received from foreigners brings foreign exchange into the country and constitutes a credit entry.

163. Q163External sector and the world economy

     A list of unexpected negative consequences due to MNCs is given. Which information has no place in the following list:

     • aSending out high dividend money
     • bCrowding out domestic savings and investment
     • cFulfilling export obligationsAnswer
     • dDominating a key sector
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because fulfilling export obligations improves the host country balance of payments and foreign exchange reserves, making it a positive economic contribution rather than an unexpected negative consequence. Option A: Sending out high dividend money is an adverse consequence because it leads to heavy capital outflows and strains the current account. Option B: Crowding out domestic savings and investment is an adverse consequence because multinational corporations preempt domestic credit and resources at the cost of local firms. Option D: Dominating a key sector is an adverse consequence because it suppresses local competitors and leads to monopolistic market power.

164. Q164External sector and the world economy

     The expected negative effects of MNCs are listed. Which item of the following list is out of place?

     • aLarge dividend remittance
     • bCrowding out domestic saving and investment
     • cFulfilling Export obligationsAnswer
     • dExercising influence in key sector
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because fulfilling export obligations is an intended beneficial outcome that enhances host-country export earnings, so it does not belong in a list of negative effects. Option A: Large dividend remittance is a recognized negative effect because it depletes the host nation foreign exchange reserves. Option B: Crowding out domestic saving and investment is a recognized negative effect because multinational access to local capital limits financing for domestic firms. Option D: Exercising influence in key sector is a recognized negative effect because foreign market control threatens domestic industrial autonomy.

165. Q165External sector and the world economy

     A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why ?

     • aIndia has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
     • bIndia has double taxation avoidance agreement with MauritiusAnswer
     • cMost citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
     • dImpending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because India and Mauritius entered into a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA), which historically exempted capital gains on the sale of shares in an Indian company by a Mauritius tax resident, leading to widespread treaty shopping and round-tripping of funds through Mauritius. Option A: India maintains uniform FDI policies across countries rather than giving country-specific preferences. Option C: Ethnic identity and sentiment are not the economic drivers behind institutional investment routing. Option D: Climate change threats have no direct relation to capital routing through tax-advantaged jurisdictions.

166. Q166Environment and sustainable development

     The correct meaning of sustainable development without falling:

     • aDeveloping conditions for the present generation without affecting the needs of future generationsAnswer
     • bDevelopment of sections at lower levels in society
     • cDevelopment with social justice
     • dDevelopment continuing over historical periods
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because sustainable development fundamentally hinges on intergenerational equity, ensuring that current human progress does not erode the natural capital required by future generations. Option B: Uplifting marginalized socio-economic strata refers to inclusive growth rather than the core principle of intergenerational resource sustainability. Option C: Pursuing growth alongside social justice refers to equitable development rather than the long-term ecological balance defined by sustainability. Option D: Continuing growth over long historical spans merely denotes chronological continuity without ensuring ecological preservation for the future.

167. Q167The Earth in the solar system

     Cosmology is the study of:

     • aCosmetics/skin beauty products
     • bUniverseAnswer
     • cCrime
     • dManuscript
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because cosmology is derived from the Greek words cosmos (universe) and logos (study), defining the branch of astronomy dedicated to the universe's origin and development. Option A: Cosmetics or skin beauty products relate to cosmetology, not cosmology. Option C: The study of crime and criminal behaviour is known as criminology. Option D: The study of ancient manuscripts and historical handwriting is known as palaeography.

168. Q168The Earth in the solar system

     The basic fuel for the thermo-nuclear reactions going on within the sun is

     • aHelium
     • bHydrogenAnswer
     • cCarbon
     • dOxygen
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the fundamental energy source of the Sun is nuclear fusion, wherein hydrogen nuclei fuse together via the proton-proton chain to produce helium. Option A: Helium is the primary product formed from the fusion of hydrogen, not the primary starting fuel driving the reaction. Option C: Carbon acts merely as a catalyst in higher-mass stars via the CNO cycle, but it is not the basic fuel inside the Sun. Option D: Oxygen is a heavier element present in trace amounts and does not serve as the basic fuel for the Sun's core thermonuclear reactions.

169. Q169The Earth in the solar system

     On March 21 and September 21, the sun's rays directly fall on which of the following?

     • aEquinox
     • bEquatorAnswer
     • cProtosphere
     • dTropic of Capricorn
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because on the equinoxes, March 21 and September 21, the Sun is directly overhead at the Equator, resulting in nearly equal day and night across the globe. Option A: Equinox is incorrect because it is the astronomical event itself, not the geographic parallel where the rays fall. Option C: Protosphere is incorrect because it is not a geographic latitude on Earth. Option D: Tropic of Capricorn is incorrect because the Sun is directly overhead there during the December solstice.

170. Q170The Earth in the solar system

     Latitudes, which are imaginary lines drawn parallel to the Equator, are drawn from which direction among the following?

     • aFrom North to South
     • bFrom East to WestAnswer
     • cFrom Arctic Circle to North Pole
     • dFrom South Pole to Tropic of Cancer
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because parallels of latitude are imaginary lines that circle the globe in an east-to-west direction parallel to the Equator, measuring angular distance north or south. Option A: Lines drawn from north to south connecting the geographic poles are meridians of longitude, not parallels of latitude. Option C: Moving from the Arctic Circle to the North Pole represents a north-south traverse along a meridian, not the path of a latitude circle. Option D: The South Pole to the Tropic of Cancer traces a longitudinal path crossing lines of latitude rather than following the alignment of a parallel.

171. Q171Interior of the Earth and its landforms

     What is the outermost layer of the Earth called?

     • aMantle
     • bCore
     • cPatala
     • dEarth's crustAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the crust is the thin, rigid, outermost compositional layer of the geosphere, overlying the mantle. Option A: Mantle is the intermediate layer situated beneath the crust and above the core. Option B: Core is the innermost central metallic sphere of the Earth. Option C: Patala is a mythological subterranean realm in Hindu cosmology, not a scientific layer of the Earth.

172. Q172Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     Kaziranga National Park is located in:

     • aBihar
     • bKarnataka
     • cAssamAnswer
     • dWest Bengal
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Kaziranga National Park, celebrated for hosting the world's largest population of the great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, is situated across Golaghat, Nagaon, and Sonitpur districts of Assam. Option A: Bihar is home to Valmiki National Park, not Kaziranga. Option B: Karnataka hosts national parks such as Bandipur, Nagarhole, and Kudremukh. Option D: West Bengal includes protected areas like Jaldapara and Gorumara, which also house rhinoceroses, but Kaziranga lies in Assam.

173. Q173Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     Bandipur National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary is located in

     • aAssam
     • bGujarat
     • cKarnatakaAnswer
     • dTamil Nadu
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Bandipur National Park is situated in the Chamarajanagar district of southern Karnataka, forming a core part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Option A: Assam is situated in northeastern India and hosts Kaziranga and Orang National Parks, not Bandipur. Option B: Gujarat contains Gir National Park and Blackbuck National Park, not Bandipur. Option D: Tamil Nadu borders Bandipur through Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, but Bandipur itself lies within Karnataka.

174. Q174India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Patkai Bum hills are located in:

     • aArunachal PradeshAnswer
     • bNagaland
     • cManipur
     • dMizoram
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Patkai Bum hills form the northernmost segment of the Purvachal range along India's northeastern border, situated mainly in Arunachal Pradesh. Option B: Nagaland is dominated by the Naga Hills rather than Patkai Bum. Option C: Manipur is characterised by the Manipur Hills. Option D: Mizoram contains the Mizo Hills, also called the Lushai Hills.

175. Q175India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Among the following, which state's coast is called Coromandel Coast and which state's coast is called?

     • aGujarat
     • bMaharashtra
     • cTamil NaduAnswer
     • dKerala

     Explanation coming soon.

176. Q176India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Where does the Jhelum river originate?

     • aMansarovar
     • bRohtang
     • cBaralacha
     • dVerinagAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Jhelum river originates from a spring at Verinag, located at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in Jammu and Kashmir. Option A: Mansarovar region in Tibet is the source area for the Indus, Satluj, and Brahmaputra rivers. Option B: Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh is the source of the Ravi and Beas rivers. Option C: Baralacha Pass is the source of the Chandra and Bhaga streams, which join to form the Chenab.

177. Q177India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Among the following river basins in India, which basin has high potential?

     • aNarmada
     • bKrishna
     • cGodavariAnswer
     • dKaveri
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Godavari basin has the highest surface water resource potential among all Peninsular river basins in India. Godavari basin average annual water potential: 110.5 billion cubic metres Krishna basin average annual water potential: 78.1 billion cubic metres Narmada basin average annual water potential: 45.6 billion cubic metres Kaveri basin average annual water potential: 21.4 billion cubic metres Option A: The Narmada basin has an annual yield of around 45.6 billion cubic metres, which is much lower than that of the Godavari. Option B: The Krishna basin is the second largest in Peninsular India but has lower water potential than the Godavari basin. Option D: The Kaveri basin has a significantly smaller catchment area and water potential compared to the Godavari.

178. Q178India: physiography, drainage and climate

     In India, the state with more than 60 percent variation in annual rainfall is

     • aGujaratAnswer
     • bArunachal Pradesh
     • cAssam
     • dManipur
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because regions receiving scanty and erratic rainfall, such as Gujarat and western Rajasthan, exhibit the highest variability of annual rainfall in India, frequently exceeding 60 percent. Option B: Arunachal Pradesh receives high and reliable annual precipitation exceeding 2000 mm, keeping its rainfall variability well below 20 percent. Option C: Assam has assured monsoon rainfall with a low coefficient of variation typically under 20 percent. Option D: Manipur is situated in the high-rainfall northeastern zone where annual rainfall variability is low.

179. Q179Natural resources and their distribution

     Among the following states in India, in which state is manganese produced in abundance?

     • aMaharashtra
     • bAndhra Pradesh
     • cOdishaAnswer
     • dKarnataka
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Odisha possesses the largest share of manganese ore reserves in India and is one of the most prolific producers from belts located in Sundargarh, Keonjhar, Rayagada, and Koraput districts. Option A: Maharashtra contains significant manganese mines around Nagpur and Bhandara, but possesses far lower total reserves than Odisha. Option B: Andhra Pradesh produces manganese on a relatively minor scale primarily from Vizianagaram and Srikakulam districts. Option D: Karnataka holds notable reserves in the Sandur and Shimoga belts, but its output is substantially lower than that of Odisha.

180. Q180Natural resources and their distribution

     Sahyadriya oil field is 32 km away from where?

     • aSouth of Digboi
     • bNorth of Digboi
     • cNortheast of Digboi
     • dSouthwest of DigboiAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Naharkatiya oil field, referred to in the question, is situated roughly 32 km southwest of Digboi on the left bank of the Burhi Dihing river in Assam. Option A: The field lies toward the southwest, not directly south of Digboi. Option B: It is situated in the southwestern direction from Digboi, not north. Option C: Northeast of Digboi leads away from the Burhi Dihing valley toward the state border, opposite to the field's actual bearing.

181. Q181Natural resources and their distribution

     In which state of India is the per capita forest area highest?

     • aAndaman and Nicobar IslandsAnswer
     • bAndhra Pradesh
     • cHimachal Pradesh
     • dMizoram
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the highest per capita forest area in India, exceeding 1.6 hectares per person due to an extensive forest canopy over eighty percent of its land coupled with a small human population. Option B: Andhra Pradesh has a much higher population and a relatively modest forest cover, resulting in a low per capita forest area. Option C: Himachal Pradesh has significant forest cover, but its larger human population yields a much lower per capita figure than that of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Option D: Mizoram has the highest percentage of forest cover among states, but its per capita forest cover remains below that of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

182. Q182Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Among the states given below, in which state in India is Jowar crop produced the most?

     • aKarnataka
     • bMaharashtraAnswer
     • cTamil Nadu
     • dAndhra Pradesh
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Maharashtra is the leading producer of jowar (sorghum) in India, commanding the largest share of both total acreage and annual production. Option A: Karnataka is the second-largest producer of jowar in India, trailing Maharashtra. Option C: Tamil Nadu cultivates jowar across dry tracts, but its total output is far lower than that of Maharashtra. Option D: Andhra Pradesh produces jowar in its semi-arid tracts, but produces much less than Maharashtra.

183. Q183Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     The river on which Mehan Dam is built is:

     • aBokaro
     • bBarakarAnswer
     • cDamodar
     • dKonar
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Maithon Dam, misspelled as Mehan Dam in the question, is an earth-cum-concrete dam constructed across the Barakar River as part of the Damodar Valley Corporation project in Jharkhand. Option A: The Bokaro River features the Tenughat Dam and Konar basin interventions rather than the Maithon Dam. Option C: The Damodar main stream features the Panchet Dam rather than the Maithon Dam. Option D: The Konar River has the Konar Dam constructed across it.

184. Q184World regional geography

     Observe the map below and state the name of the country:

     • aMongoliaAnswer
     • bSudan
     • cEthiopia
     • dThailand

     Explanation coming soon.

185. Q185World regional geography

     The location of Cleveland:

     • aBradford
     • bLeeds
     • cScotlandAnswer
     • dHuddersfield

     Explanation coming soon.

186. Q186World regional geography

     Given below is an outline map of a country. Identify it:

     • aBrazil
     • bMexicoAnswer
     • cIran
     • dCanada

     Explanation coming soon.

187. Q187World regional geography

     What is the name of the highland between the Brooks and Alaska Ranges in Alaska?

     • aGreat Basin
     • bSpike Columbia Plateau
     • cColumbia Plateau
     • dYukon PlateauAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Yukon Plateau is an extensive intermontane upland in central Alaska and western Canada, bounded by the Brooks Range to the north and the Alaska Range to the south. Option A: Great Basin is an arid basin-and-range province situated much further south in the western contiguous United States, chiefly in Nevada and Utah. Option B: Spike Columbia Plateau is an invented and geographically nonexistent name. Option C: Columbia Plateau is a basalt plateau located in the Pacific Northwest region of the lower forty-eight United States.

188. Q188World regional geography

     The Great Victoria Desert is located in:

     • aColombia
     • bMexico
     • cAustraliaAnswer
     • dArgentina
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Great Victoria Desert is the largest desert in Australia, sprawling across the states of Western Australia and South Australia. Option A: Colombia is dominated by tropical rainforests, savannas, and the Andes mountains, not the Great Victoria Desert. Option B: Mexico contains North American arid zones like the Sonoran and Chihuahuan deserts. Option D: Argentina contains the cold Patagonian Desert, not the Great Victoria Desert.

189. Q189World regional geography

     The mountains that act as a barrier and border between Spain and France are:

     • aCascadian
     • bAlps
     • cPyreneesAnswer
     • dVosges
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Pyrenees mountain range extends for nearly 500 kilometers between the Bay of Biscay and the Mediterranean Sea, creating a natural border between Spain and France. Option A: Cascades, or the Cascade Range, are a major mountain range located in western North America across the United States and Canada. Option B: Alps lie further east in Europe, separating France, Switzerland, Austria, and Germany from Italy. Option D: Vosges are a low mountain range located entirely in eastern France near the border with Germany.

190. Q190World regional geography

     The Jucar and Ebro rivers are part of which of the following:

     • aMediterranean drainage systemAnswer
     • bBaltic drainage system
     • cNorth Sea drainage system
     • dAtlantic Ocean drainage system
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because both the Jucar and Ebro are major Spanish rivers that flow eastward across the Iberian Peninsula and empty into the Mediterranean Sea. Option B: The Baltic drainage system receives northern and eastern European rivers such as the Vistula and Oder. Option C: The North Sea drainage system includes rivers like the Rhine, Elbe, and Thames. Option D: The Atlantic Ocean drainage system receives Iberian rivers like the Tagus, Douro, and Guadalquivir, but not the Ebro or Jucar.

191. Q191World regional geography

     In Southeast Asia, between which is the Shan Plateau located?

     • aBetween Salween and Mekong riversAnswer
     • bBetween Sittang and Menam rivers
     • cBetween Menam and Mekong rivers
     • dBetween Irrawaddy and Sittang rivers
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Shan Plateau, occupying a major part of eastern Myanmar, is dissected and bounded predominantly by the Salween River gorge to the east and the drainage of the Mekong system. Option B: The Sittang lies to the west of the plateau, while the Menam drains central Thailand further south and east. Option C: The Menam and Mekong rivers bound geographic regions of Thailand and Indochina, not the Shan Plateau. Option D: The region between the Irrawaddy and Sittang encompasses the Pegu Range and central lowlands, not the Shan Plateau.

192. Q192World regional geography

     What is the elevation of Mount Mayu peak?

     • a8172 m.
     • b8153 m.Answer
     • c8501 m.
     • d8598 m.

     Explanation coming soon.

193. Q193World regional geography

     The highest mountain peak in Australia:

     • aMount Bennevi
     • bMount Woodraks
     • cMount Tran
     • dMount KosciuszkoAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Mount Kosciuszko, situated in the Snowy Mountains of New South Wales within the Great Dividing Range, is the highest mountain on the Australian continent at an altitude of 2,228 meters. Option A: Mount Bennevi is a fictitious name not associated with Australia's summit elevations. Option B: Mount Woodraks is not a recognized prominent peak in Australia. Option C: Mount Tran is a nonexistent geographical feature in Australian topography.

194. Q194World regional geography

     What is the region between the Kunlun Mountains and Altyn-Tagh called?

     • aMongolian Plateau
     • bJunggar Basin
     • cQaidam BasinAnswer
     • dTarim Basin
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Qaidam Basin is a large intermontane structural depression in northwestern China, bounded by the Kunlun Mountains to the south and the Altyn-Tagh and Qilian ranges to the north and northwest. Option A: Mongolian Plateau is situated far to the northeast, encompassing Mongolia and parts of northern China. Option B: Junggar Basin lies in northern Xinjiang, positioned between the Altai Mountains and the Tian Shan. Option D: Tarim Basin is located north of the Kunlun and Altyn-Tagh ranges, trapped between them and the Tian Shan.

195. Q195World regional geography

     Annapurna, one of the highest mountains in the world, is located in?

     • aIndia
     • bTibet
     • cBhutan
     • dNepalAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Annapurna massif, which includes Annapurna I, the tenth highest peak in the world, is situated in the Gandaki province of north-central Nepal. Option A: India hosts high Himalayan peaks such as Kanchenjunga and Nanda Devi, but not Annapurna. Option B: Tibet contains summits such as Shishapangma and the northern face of Mount Everest, not Annapurna. Option C: Bhutan features peaks like Gangkhar Puensum, but not the Annapurna massif.

196. Q196World regional geography

     Among the following, which is the largest ocean in the world?

     • aIndian Ocean
     • bAtlantic Ocean
     • cPacific OceanAnswer
     • dArctic Ocean
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth, covering more than 165 million square kilometers and encompassing more than thirty percent of the planet's surface area. Option A: The Indian Ocean is the third-largest ocean, smaller than both the Pacific and the Atlantic. Option B: The Atlantic Ocean is the second-largest ocean on Earth. Option D: The Arctic Ocean is the smallest and shallowest of the world's five major oceans.

197. Q197World regional geography

     The Lake Superior region mainly contains which of the following?

     • aTin ore
     • bMica ore
     • cIron oreAnswer
     • dBauxite ore
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Lake Superior region of North America is globally famous for its massive iron ore deposits found in ranges such as the Mesabi, Marquette, and Vermilion ranges. Option A: Tin ore is not commercially extracted in significant quantities in the Lake Superior region. Option B: Mica deposits in North America are mined primarily in regions like North Carolina, not around Lake Superior. Option D: Bauxite requires deep tropical weathering to form and is not native to the glacial shield geology of Lake Superior.

198. Q198World regional geography

     The largest producer of copper in the world is:

     • aPeru
     • bChileAnswer
     • cMexico
     • dBolivia
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Chile is the world's largest producer of copper, accounting for nearly one-quarter of total global copper mine production from massive deposits like Escondida. Option A: Peru is the second-largest copper producer globally, trailing Chile. Option C: Mexico is a significant mineral producer, but its copper output is far behind that of Chile. Option D: Bolivia is primarily known for tin, silver, and lithium rather than leading global copper production.

199. Q199World regional geography

     In East Asia, Wolframite is the main ore of what?

     • aManganese
     • bAsbestos
     • cTungstenAnswer
     • dZinc
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because wolframite is an iron manganese tungstate mineral with the formula (Fe,Mn)WO4, serving as the primary commercial ore of tungsten. Option A: Manganese is a constituent element within wolframite, but the ore is mined specifically to extract tungsten, while pyrolusite is the main manganese ore. Option B: Asbestos refers to fibrous silicate minerals like chrysotile, which are chemically unrelated to wolframite. Option D: Zinc is primarily extracted from the sulfide mineral sphalerite rather than wolframite.

200. Q200World regional geography

     To the west of Lake Ontario, which primarily produces water and steel:

     • aHamiltonAnswer
     • bSydney
     • cTrenta
     • dRegina
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Hamilton, situated at the western tip of Lake Ontario, is traditionally known as the Steel Capital of Canada due to its heavy concentration of iron, steel, and related manufacturing industries. Option B: Sydney is located on Cape Breton Island in Nova Scotia, not west of Lake Ontario. Option C: Trenta is not a major manufacturing or steel-producing city located west of Lake Ontario. Option D: Regina is the provincial capital of Saskatchewan in western Canada, situated far from Lake Ontario.