APPSC Group-I Prelims 2019

238 questions from the 2019 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

   Indian archaeologists recently unearthed a rare life-sized stucco sculpture from a Buddhist site in

   • aAndhra Pradesh
   • bUttar Pradesh
   • cBihar
   • dTelanganaAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because a rare life-sized stucco Bodhisattva sculpture measuring about 1.73 meters in height was unearthed in 2019 at the Phanigiri Buddhist site in Suryapet district, Telangana. Option A: Andhra Pradesh has many renowned Buddhist sites, but this specific life-sized stucco discovery occurred at Phanigiri. Option B: Uttar Pradesh houses major sites like Sarnath and Kushinagar, not the site of this recent stucco discovery. Option C: Bihar is famous for Nalanda and Bodh Gaya, but the 2019 stucco find was made in Telangana.

2. Q2Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (Traveller) (Reigning Ruler)

   • aMegasthenes Chandragupta Maurya
   • bFa-Hsien Chandragupta II
   • cHsuan-Tsang Harsha
   • dI-Tsing (Yijing) AshokaAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because I-Tsing (Yijing) visited India during the late 7th century CE (671-695 CE), nearly nine centuries after the Maurya emperor Ashoka reigned in the 3rd century BCE. Megasthenes visited Chandragupta Maurya around 302 BCE Fa-Hsien visited during Chandragupta II around 399-412 CE Hsuan-Tsang visited Harsha around 630-645 CE I-Tsing visited India around 671-695 CE Option A: Megasthenes served as the Seleucid ambassador to the Pataliputra court of Chandragupta Maurya. Option B: Fa-Hsien traveled extensively through northern India during the reign of the Gupta monarch Chandragupta II. Option C: Hsuan-Tsang traveled across India and enjoyed the patronage of King Harshavardhana of Kannauj.

3. Q3Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Arrange the following rulers of Gupta dynasty in chronological order : (i) Chandragupta II (ii) Skandagupta (iii) Samudragupta (iv) Kumaragupta I Select the correct answer from the code given below : Code :

   • a(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)Answer
   • b(iv), (i), (i), (iii)
   • c(i), (ii), (i), (iv)
   • d(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because it arranges the Imperial Gupta monarchs in their correct chronological succession from the mid-fourth century to the mid-fifth century CE. Samudragupta: c. 335 to 375 CE Chandragupta II: c. 375 to 415 CE Kumaragupta I: c. 415 to 455 CE Skandagupta: c. 455 to 467 CE Option B: Kumaragupta I ruled after Samudragupta and Chandragupta II, so placing Kumaragupta I first is incorrect. Option C: Chandragupta II was the son and successor of Samudragupta, so listing Chandragupta II first is historically inaccurate. Option D: Chandragupta II cannot precede his father Samudragupta in the dynastic order.

4. Q4Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Which of the following pairs of temples and places is not correctly matched ? (Temple) (Place)

   • aVirupaksha temple ThiruvananthapuramAnswer
   • bKandariya Mahadeva temple Khajuraho
   • cLingaraja temple Bhubaneswar
   • dMahabodhi temple Bodh Gaya
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because the famous Virupaksha Temple is located at Hampi (or Pattadakal) in Karnataka, not in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. Option B: Kandariya Mahadeva Temple is correctly located at Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh. Option C: Lingaraja Temple is correctly located at Bhubaneswar in Odisha. Option D: Mahabodhi Temple is correctly located at Bodh Gaya in Bihar.

5. Q5Gupta and post-Gupta India

   The poet Bana was patronized by which of the following rulers ?

   • aChandragupta Maurya
   • bHarshaAnswer
   • cAshoka
   • dVikramaditya
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because the Sanskrit scholar and poet Banabhatta served as the asthana kavi in the imperial court of King Harshavardhana of Kannauj. Option A: Chandragupta Maurya was advised by Chanakya, long before Banabhatta lived in the seventh century CE. Option C: Ashoka patronised Buddhist monks and missionaries, ruling centuries prior to Banabhatta. Option D: Chandragupta II Vikramaditya patronised the Navaratnas, which included Kalidasa, not Banabhatta.

6. Q6Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Vijnanesvara wrote Mitakshara at the court of the Chalukya emperor Vikramaditya VI. It was?

   • aA commentary on the law book of Yajna valkyaAnswer
   • bTreatise on inheritance
   • cLaw of primogeniture
   • dFamily feuds
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Vijnaneshwara composed the Mitakshara as an extensive judicial commentary on the legal code laid out in the Yajnavalkya Smriti. Option B: Inheritance rules form only one major section of the work rather than defining its identity as a full Smriti commentary. Option C: The treatise established rights by birth in ancestral property rather than defining primogeniture. Option D: It is an authoritative legal jurisprudence text, not an exposition of familial discords.

7. Q7The Delhi Sultanate

   Who introduced the silver tanka and the copper jital – the two basic coins of the Sultanate period ?

   • aIltutmishAnswer
   • bRazia Sultan
   • cBalban
   • dAlauddin Khalji
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Shamsuddin Iltutmish was the first Delhi Sultan to establish a purely Arabic coinage system, introducing the silver tanka and the copper jital as standard currencies of the Delhi Sultanate. Option B: Razia Sultan maintained the currency system already established by her father Iltutmish and did not introduce these coins. Option C: Balban expanded central administrative control and court etiquette but did not introduce the tanka and jital. Option D: Alauddin Khalji introduced extensive market and price-control regulations rather than founding the basic tanka and jital denominations.

8. Q8The Delhi Sultanate

   Identify the Sultan of Delhi who prohibited drinking of alcohol, introduced market control policy and inflicted severe punishment to rapists.

   • aSultan Qutbuddin
   • bSultan Iltutmish
   • cSultan Alauddin KhaljiAnswer
   • dSultan Firuz Tughlaq
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because Sultan Alauddin Khalji banned the sale and consumption of alcohol in Delhi, established a strict market control and price regulation system, and enforced severe corporal punishments. Option A: Sultan Qutbuddin Aibak ruled briefly and was renowned for his acts of charity rather than market reforms or sumptuary bans. Option B: Sultan Iltutmish organized the Turkan-i-Chahalgani and the iqta system, but did not establish market control regulations. Option D: Sultan Firuz Tughlaq is remembered for public construction works and canal systems, not for market price-fixing policies.

9. Q9The Delhi Sultanate

   Muhammad Ghori's forces won the battle fought against Prithviraj Chauhan primarily because of

   • aThe better war slogans of the Turks
   • bSuperior war technology of the TurksAnswer
   • cUse of gunpowder
   • dUse of guerilla war tactics
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because the Ghurid forces held an overwhelming technical and tactical advantage through the use of mounted archers, iron stirrups, superior horses, and fast cavalry maneuvers against the slower traditional Indian armies. Option A: War slogans had psychological value but did not decide the outcome of medieval pitched battles. Option C: Gunpowder weapons were not introduced into battlefield warfare in North India until Babur in the sixteenth century. Option D: Muhammad Ghori fought using structured field deployments and mounted skirmishers, not guerrilla tactics.

10. Q10The Delhi Sultanate

    In medieval Deccan, Deshmukh was a village. official, who was responsible to

    • aCollect land revenue from the peasants. and to deposit it in the State treasuryAnswer
    • bCollect chauth from the local chiefs
    • cMaintain soldiers
    • dKeep watch over the merchants
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because in the medieval Deccan administrative structure, the Deshmukh held a hereditary position responsible for assessing and collecting land revenue from local parganas and remitting it to the treasury. Option B: Chauth was a military tribute collected specifically by the Marathas from neighbouring kingdoms, not the routine revenue collected by a Deshmukh. Option C: The maintenance of soldiers was the duty of military officers and jagirdars rather than the primary revenue duty of a Deshmukh. Option D: Surveillance and regulation of traders and markets fell under officials like the Kotwal or Shahna-i-Mandi.

11. Q11Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    In January 1565, the Battle of Talikota was fought between.

    • aThe Vijayanagara Empire and the deccani SultanatesAnswer
    • bThe Marathas and Mughals
    • cMalik Ambar and Mughals
    • dTipu Sultan and the Britishers
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Battle of Talikota (Rakshasi-Tangadi) was fought between the Vijayanagara Empire, led by Aliya Rama Raya, and the combined confederacy of the Deccan Sultanates comprising Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmadnagar, and Bidar. Option B: The conflict between the Marathas and the Mughals occurred in the seventeenth century under Shivaji and Aurangzeb. Option C: Malik Ambar opposed the Mughals in the early seventeenth century during the reigns of Akbar and Jahangir. Option D: The Anglo-Mysore Wars involving Tipu Sultan and the British occurred in the late eighteenth century.

12. Q12The Mughal Empire

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below : LIST I LIST II Monument Place a. Char Minar I. Delhi b. Akbar's Tomb II. Agra c. Humayuns Tomb III. Hyderabad d. Taj Mahal IV. Sikandara Codes: a b c d

    • aIII I IV II
    • bIV III I II
    • cIII IV I IIAnswer
    • dII I IV III
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because matching the monuments with their locations yields Char Minar in Hyderabad, Akbar's Tomb at Sikandra, Humayun's Tomb in Delhi, and the Taj Mahal in Agra. Char Minar: Hyderabad (III) Akbar's Tomb: Sikandra (IV) Humayun's Tomb: Delhi (I) Taj Mahal: Agra (II) Option A: Incorrectly places Akbar's Tomb in Delhi and Humayun's Tomb at Sikandra. Option B: Incorrectly places Char Minar at Sikandra and Akbar's Tomb in Hyderabad. Option D: Incorrectly places Char Minar in Agra and Humayun's Tomb at Sikandra.

13. Q13Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Who propagated pushtimarga, a religion of grace ?

    • aChaitanya
    • bVyasaraja
    • cRavidas
    • dVallabhacharyaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Vallabhacharya founded the Pushtimarga tradition within Vaishnavism, teaching that salvation is attained through pushti, meaning the absolute divine grace of Lord Krishna. Option A: Chaitanya Mahaprabhu founded Gaudiya Vaishnavism centered on congregational chanting and the philosophy of Achintya Bheda Abheda. Option B: Vyasaraja was an eminent philosopher-saint of the Dvaita tradition and a key figure in the Haridasa movement of Karnataka. Option C: Ravidas was a prominent Bhakti poet-saint of northern India associated with the Nirguna tradition.

14. Q14Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Point out from the following sufis, who is from the Chishti Sufi Silsilah ?

    • aShaikh Gesudaraz.Answer
    • bShaikh Nuruddin Rishi
    • cShaikh Bahauddin Zakariya
    • dShaikh Sadruddin Arif
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Shaikh Gesudaraz, also known as Banda Nawaz, was a prominent Sufi master belonging to the Chishti silsilah and a chief disciple of Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlavi. Option B: Shaikh Nuruddin Rishi was the founder of the indigenous Rishi order of Kashmir, not the Chishti silsilah. Option C: Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya was the pioneer of the Suhrawardi silsilah in the Indian subcontinent. Option D: Shaikh Sadruddin Arif was the son and successor of Bahauddin Zakariya within the Suhrawardi silsilah.

15. Q15Shivaji and the Marathas

    Third Battle of Panipat was fought between

    • aAkbar and Hemu
    • bHumayun and Shershah
    • cMaharaja Ranjit Singh and Madho Rao Scindia
    • dAhmad Shah Abdali and the MarathastAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Third Battle of Panipat was fought on 14 January 1761 between the Afghan army under Ahmad Shah Abdali and the Maratha forces led by Sadashivrao Bhau. Option A: Akbar and Hemu fought the Second Battle of Panipat in 1556. Option B: Humayun and Sher Shah Suri fought the battles of Chausa in 1539 and Kannauj in 1540, not Panipat. Option C: Maharaja Ranjit Singh consolidated Punjab decades later and never fought Scindia at Panipat.

16. Q16Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    When did Portuguese admiral Vasco da Gama come to Calicut ?

    • a1478
    • b1488
    • c1498Answer
    • d1500
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Vasco da Gama anchored his fleet off Kappad near Calicut in May 1498 after sailing around the Cape of Good Hope. 1488: Bartolomeu Dias rounded the Cape of Good Hope 1497: Vasco da Gama sailed from Lisbon 1498: Vasco da Gama reached Calicut 1500: Pedro Alvares Cabral arrived in India Option A: In 1478, maritime exploration by Portugal had not yet navigated past southern Africa. Option B: In 1488, Bartolomeu Dias rounded the southern tip of Africa, but did not proceed to India. Option D: In 1500, it was Pedro Alvares Cabral who led the second Portuguese armada to India, not Vasco da Gama's first voyage.

17. Q17Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    When did the French gain control over Pondicherry ?

    • a1685
    • b1697Answer
    • c1705
    • d1733
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under the Treaty of Ryswick concluded in September 1697, the Dutch agreed to restore control of Pondicherry back to the French. 1674: Francois Martin founded the French settlement at Pondicherry 1693: The Dutch captured Pondicherry from the French 1697: Treaty of Ryswick stipulated the restoration of Pondicherry to the French 1699: The French formally reoccupied Pondicherry following the treaty Option A: In 1685, Pondicherry was already under French management prior to the Dutch capture, with no change of control occurring that year. Option C: In 1705, Pondicherry was already functioning smoothly under Francois Martin without any change in European sovereignty. Option D: In 1733, the French had long maintained uninterrupted possession of Pondicherry.

18. Q18Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Which of the following rulers of Mysore sent ambassadors to France to bring in European technology, and went on to build a navy ?

    • aHyder Ali
    • bTipu SultanAnswer
    • cChikkadeva Raja Wodeyar
    • dNanraj
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Tipu Sultan sent diplomatic missions to France to obtain advanced military technology and established a specialized naval board with dockyards at Mangalore, Wajidabad, and Molyabad. Option A: Hyder Ali hired French mercenaries to modernize his infantry and artillery, but did not send diplomatic embassies to France or build an organized naval fleet. Option C: Chikkadeva Raja Wodeyar ruled Mysore from 1673 to 1704, long before the era of modern European diplomatic contact and dockyard building. Option D: Nanraj was the Dalwai of Mysore who was ousted from power by Hyder Ali in 1761.

19. Q19Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Chronologically arrange the following Governor-Generals of India. Select the correct answer from the code given below : (i) Lord Wellesley (ii) Lord William Bentinck (iii) Warren Hastings (iv) Lord Cornwallis Code :

    • aiii, iv, i, iiAnswer
    • bii, i, iv, iii
    • ci, iii, ii, iv
    • div, ii, iii, i
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because arranging the four administrators in chronological order of their governance terms yields the sequence iii, iv, i, ii. Warren Hastings: 1773 to 1785 Lord Cornwallis: 1786 to 1793 Lord Wellesley: 1798 to 1805 Lord William Bentinck: 1828 to 1835 Option B: It erroneously places Lord William Bentinck at the start of the list despite him serving last among the four. Option C: It places Lord Wellesley ahead of Warren Hastings and Lord Cornwallis, inverting the chronological timeline. Option D: It places Lord Cornwallis before Warren Hastings, who actually preceded him.

20. Q20British rule: administration, economy and society

    In the Indian context, 'Drain of Wealth' means foreign power in India squeezed the Indian economy through various means and transferred it to their native country. This 'surplus' capital caused an 'industrial revolution' in their country. Which of the following foreign ruling powers is associated with the above theory of "Drain of Wealth" ?

    • aAryans
    • bTurks
    • cMughals
    • dBritish.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Indian nationalist thinkers formulated the Drain of Wealth theory specifically to describe how the British extracted financial surplus and raw materials from India without receiving equivalent economic returns. Option A: The Aryans settled permanently in India and became part of its domestic economy rather than transferring surplus to an external land. Option B: The Turks established their rule and residency in India, reinvesting state wealth within the country. Option C: The Mughals made India their permanent home and spent revenues domestically rather than draining wealth abroad.

21. Q21The Revolt of 1857

    After 1857 revolt, Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last Mughal ruler of India, was exiled to

    • aBangkok
    • bRangoonAnswer
    • cColombo
    • dKathmandu
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the British captured Bahadur Shah Zafar following the recapture of Delhi, put him on trial, and exiled him to Rangoon, Burma, where he died in 1862. Option A: Bangkok was the capital of Siam (Thailand), which remained an independent state and was never a British penal territory. Option C: Colombo was located in British Ceylon, but the Mughal emperor was never sent there. Option D: Kathmandu was the capital of the sovereign Kingdom of Nepal, where several rebels like Nana Saheb fled, not a British penal colony.

22. Q22Socio-religious reform movements

    In the early decades of the twentieth century, caste movements began to proliferate in the Indian society. Which of the following movements are related to caste-consciousness, leading to caste-movements in particular regions ? (a) Satyashodhak Samaj in Maharashtra (b) Self-respect agitation in Tamilnadu (c) Ghadar movement in Punjab (d) Bijolia movement in Rajasthan Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes :

    • a(a) and (b) onlyAnswer
    • b(a), (b), (c), (d)
    • c(b), (c) and (d) only
    • d(c) and (d) only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because both the Satyashodhak Samaj in Maharashtra and the Self-Respect Movement led by E. V. Ramasamy in Tamil Nadu were explicitly non-Brahmin, anti-caste social movements aimed at destroying caste hierarchy and promoting backward-class empowerment. Option B: includes the Ghadar and Bijolia movements, neither of which was organized around caste consciousness. Option C: omits the Satyashodhak Samaj while incorrectly including anti-imperialist and peasant agitations. Option D: cites the Ghadar movement, an anti-colonial revolutionary movement abroad, and the Bijolia movement, an agrarian peasant struggle against excessive land revenue, rather than caste movements.

23. Q23The Indian National Movement

    Whose book 'Unto this Last' left a deep impact on Mahatma Gandhi and he even translated it into Gujarati ?

    • aJohn RuskinAnswer
    • bLeo Tolstoy
    • cMichael Madhusudan Dutt
    • dMaxim Gorky
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because John Ruskin's 1860 treatise Unto This Last profoundly influenced Mahatma Gandhi's social and economic philosophy, which he translated into Gujarati under the title Sarvodaya. Option B: Leo Tolstoy influenced Gandhi with his work The Kingdom of God Is Within You, but he did not write Unto This Last. Option C: Michael Madhusudan Dutt was a 19th-century Bengali poet and dramatist who had no connection to this work. Option D: Maxim Gorky was a Russian socialist writer who was not the author of this treatise.

24. Q24The Indian National Movement

    Who from the following were associated with Subhash Chandra Bose's Indian National Army and faced the trial in Delhi in 1945 ? (a) P.K. Sahgal (b) G.S. Dhillon (c) Shah Nawaz Khan (d) Bhulabhai Desai Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes :

    • a(a), (c) and (d) only
    • b(a), (b) and (c) onlyAnswer
    • c(b) and (d) only
    • d(a), (b), (c), (d)
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal, Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon, and Major General Shah Nawaz Khan were the three INA officers prosecuted together at the first Red Fort court-martial trial in November 1945. Option A: Includes Bhulabhai Desai, who was the chief defense counsel rather than an accused officer, and excludes G.S. Dhillon. Option C: Omits P.K. Sahgal and Shah Nawaz Khan while wrongly categorizing the defense lawyer Bhulabhai Desai as an accused. Option D: Incorrectly includes defense counsel Bhulabhai Desai among the accused officers.

25. Q25The Indian National Movement

    Who wrote ‘Why I am an Atheist’, defending total rejection of all religion on grounds of human dignity and rationalist logic ?

    • aBhagat SinghAnswer
    • bChandra Shekhar Azad
    • cBatukeshwar Dutt
    • dAjoy Ghosh
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Bhagat Singh authored the philosophical tract Why I am an Atheist in 1930 while incarcerated in Lahore Central Jail, asserting that reason, scientific inquiry, and human dignity leave no space for belief in God or religion. Option B: Chandra Shekhar Azad served as the military head of the HSRA, but he did not write this philosophical work. Option C: Batukeshwar Dutt took part alongside Bhagat Singh in the Central Legislative Assembly action, but was not the author of the essay. Option D: Ajoy Ghosh was a fellow member of the HSRA and later general secretary of the Communist Party of India, not the author of this text.

26. Q26Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Which of the following was the first digital wallet company in India ?

    • aPaytm
    • bMobiKwikAnswer
    • cFreeCharge
    • dPayZip
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because MobiKwik, founded in 2009 by Bipin Preet Singh and Upasana Taku, was established as the earliest dedicated digital mobile wallet platform in India. MobiKwik founded: 2009 FreeCharge founded: 2010 Paytm launched wallet services: 2014 Option A: Paytm was founded in 2010 as a prepaid mobile recharge website and introduced its digital wallet ecosystem later in 2014. Option C: FreeCharge was founded in 2010, after MobiKwik. Option D: PayZip was an application launched by HDFC Bank much later, not the first digital wallet company.

27. Q27Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    In which year was the Rail network started from Bombay to Thane ?

    • a1847
    • b1853Answer
    • c1858
    • d1875
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because India's first passenger train ran on 16 April 1853, covering a distance of 34 kilometres between Bori Bunder (Bombay) and Thane. Option A: In 1847, the railway network between Bombay and Thane had not yet been constructed. Option C: By 1858, British crown rule had begun and the railway system was already operational and expanding. Option D: By 1875, thousands of miles of railways were already operating across India.

28. Q28Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Why was Doddi Komaraiah of Jangaon Taluka, Nalgonda District, killed in July 1948?

    • aBecause he was a Razakar who fought against the Deshmukhs
    • bBecause he tried to protect the land of a poor Chakali womanAnswer
    • cBecause he defeated the goons appointed by the Deshmukhs
    • dBecause he resisted wartime restrictions, levies, excessive attacks, and vetti (forced labor)
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Doddi Komaraiah was shot and martyred while leading a protest of the Andhra Mahasabha to protect the agricultural land and harvested grain of Chakali Ilamma from being seized by the Visnoor Deshmukh, Rapaka Ramachandra Reddy. Option A: Doddi Komaraiah was a communist peasant activist belonging to the Andhra Mahasabha, not a Razakar militant. Option C: He was fatally shot by the armed mercenaries of the Deshmukh at Kadavendi village, rather than having defeated them. Option D: General resistance to forced labor and illegal levies framed the broader struggle, but the immediate event that triggered his murder was the defense of Chakali Ilamma's land.

29. Q29Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Why was Doddi Komaraiah, a village militant, murdered on 4 July, 1946, in Janagam taluka of Nalgonda ?

    • aHe was Razakar who fought against Deshmukh, hence was murdered.
    • bFor trying to defend a poor washer-woman's mite of land.Answer
    • cFor defending thugs employed by the deshmukh.
    • dFor opposing wartime exactions,rationing abuses, excessive rents and Vethi (forced labour).
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Doddi Komaraiah was martyred on 4 July 1946 at Kadavendi village when the armed retainers of the Visnoor Deshmukh fired upon an Andhra Mahasabha rally organized to protect the land and crop of Chakali Ilamma. Option A: Doddi Komaraiah was an Andhra Mahasabha leader fighting against feudal exploitation, not a Razakar. Option C: He mobilized villagers against the oppression unleashed by the Deshmukh's thugs rather than defending those thugs. Option D: Forced labor and excessive taxation were overarching causes of the Telangana Armed Struggle, but his murder occurred specifically over defending Ilamma's land.

30. Q30Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (Event) (Year)

    • aPitt's India Act . 1784
    • bMorley-Minto Reforms 1909
    • cPartition of Bengal annulled 1911
    • dMontagu-Chelmsford Reforms 1929Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were introduced in 1919 and embodied in the Government of India Act, 1919, making the year 1929 an incorrect match. Pitt's India Act: 1784 Morley-Minto Reforms: 1909 Annulment of the Partition of Bengal: 1911 Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms: 1919 Option A: Pitt's India Act was enacted in 1784 and is correctly matched. Option B: The Morley-Minto Reforms were enacted under the Indian Councils Act of 1909 and are correctly matched. Option C: The Partition of Bengal was annulled at the Delhi Durbar in 1911 and is correctly matched.

31. Q31Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The First Round Table Conference was held at London in 1930 to discuss

    • aFuture Constitution in IndiaAnswer
    • bDominion status of India
    • cTrial of the Indian National Army prisoners
    • dTo hand over power
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the First Round Table Conference was convened in London to discuss constitutional reforms and deliberate on the framework of a future constitution for India following the submission of the Simon Commission report. Option B: Dominion status was a demand raised by Indian leaders during negotiations, but the formal agenda of the conference was the comprehensive constitutional scheme for India. Option C: The trials of the Indian National Army soldiers took place in 1945 to 1946, long after this conference was held. Option D: The British government convened the conference to consult on constitutional reforms, not to hand over sovereign power to India in 1930.

32. Q32The Preamble

    Most important components of secularism are mentioned below, except

    • aEquality incorporated in Article 14.
    • bProhibition against discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, etc.
    • cSentiments of the majority of people towards cow and against its slaughter
    • dnot applicable to irreligious persons/ citizens.Answer

    Explanation coming soon.

33. Q33The Preamble

    Which of the following Liberties is sought to be secured to the citizens of India in the Preamble ?

    • aThought, expression, belief, faith and worshipAnswer
    • bThought, expression, belief and faith
    • cExpression, belief, faith and worship
    • dThought, expression, faith and worship
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Preamble explicitly promises to secure to all its citizens Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. Option B: It omits worship, which is explicitly guaranteed under the liberty clause of the Preamble. Option C: It omits thought, failing to include all five liberties listed together. Option D: It omits belief from the text of the Preamble.

34. Q34The Preamble

    The Preamble may be invoked to determine the ambit of

    • aPolitical welfare
    • bPeople's demand
    • cStates demand
    • dFundamental Rights and Directive PrinciplesAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Supreme Court uses the Preamble as an interpretative aid to resolve ambiguities and delineate the constitutional scope of Fundamental Rights under Part III and Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV. Option A: Political welfare is a general political concept, not a constitutional framework whose legal boundaries are determined by invoking the Preamble. Option B: People's demand refers to political desires or public opinion, which courts do not interpret or define using the Preamble. Option C: States demand refers to federal disputes or state interests, not substantive constitutional rights and directives mapped out by the Preamble.

35. Q35Fundamental Rights

    A person whose freedom of movement has been taken away by imprisonment Or detention does not thereby lose his freedom of.

    • aExpressionAnswer
    • bProfession
    • cEmployment
    • dEarning
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because even inside a prison, a convict or undertrial retains fundamental rights like the freedom of expression, which cannot be extinguished merely by loss of physical liberty. Option B: Freedom to practice a profession is physically curtailed and suspended during incarceration. Option C: Employment in the general sense outside prison cannot be exercised while detained. Option D: Earning through regular commercial trade or public employment is disabled by lawful detention.

36. Q36Fundamental Rights

    Regarding the Habeas Corpus, choose the wrong answer.

    • aHabeas Corpus safeguards the liberty not only of the citizens but also of the persons within the territory.
    • bWrit of Habeas Corpus is not to be entertained when a person is committed to judicial custody or public custedy by the competent court.
    • cA petition of Habeas Corpus lies against the executive authority, not available against the private individuals.Answer
    • dThe Habeas Corpus petition cannot be dismissed on the ground of imperfect pleadings.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the statement is false; unlike certain other writs, Habeas Corpus is enforceable against both public authorities and private individuals who carry out unlawful confinement. Option A: represents a true statement because the protection under Habeas Corpus covers both citizens and aliens within the territory of India. Option B: represents a true statement because custody ordered by a competent court under judicial remand cannot be challenged through this writ. Option D: represents a true statement because courts overlook technical drafting defects in Habeas Corpus petitions to protect personal liberty.

37. Q37Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Regarding the Directive Principle of State Policy, choose the wrong answer.

    • aDirective Principles have been held to supplement Fundamental Rights in achieving a Welfare State.
    • bParliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles.Answer
    • cIt shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
    • dDirective Principles do not confer any enforceable Rights and their alleged breach does not invalidate laws.
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Parliament can indeed amend Fundamental Rights under Article 368 to implement Directive Principles, provided such amendments do not violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Option A: Incorrect statement to select because the Supreme Court has consistently held that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles supplement each other. Option C: Incorrect statement to select because Article 37 explicitly declares that it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Option D: Incorrect statement to select because Directive Principles are non-justiciable under Article 37 and a breach of them alone cannot invalidate an otherwise valid statute.

38. Q38Amendment and the basic structure

    What option does the government exercise and legislators have when they do not like a decision made by the Supreme Court ?

    • aPass a law challenging the decision
    • bPass a constitutional amendment that circumvents the decision
    • cBoth are options, pass a constitutional amen dment that circumvents the decision or pass a law challenging the decisionAnswer
    • dNo options are there before the legislators and executives
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because when legislators disagree with a judicial ruling, they can either enact a fresh law addressing the defect pointed out by the court or pass a constitutional amendment to overcome the judicial interpretation. Option A: It is incomplete because Parliament also possesses the constituent power to pass a constitutional amendment in response to judicial decisions. Option B: It is incomplete because lawmakers can also pass ordinary clarifying or validating legislation rather than exclusively relying on a constitutional amendment. Option D: It is incorrect because the legislature and executive possess legitimate constitutional mechanisms to alter laws or amend the Constitution following judicial rulings.

39. Q39Amendment and the basic structure

    To provide reservations to economically weaker sections, the Lok Sabha has passed the following amendment bill.

    • a136th Constitutional Amendment Bill
    • b124th Constitutional Amendment BillAnswer
    • c128th Constitutional Amendment Bill
    • d130th Constitutional Amendment Bill
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Constitution (124th Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in and passed by Parliament, later receiving Presidential assent to become the Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019. Bill introduced: 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2019 Act enacted: 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 Purpose: provides up to 10 percent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections Option A: represents a non-existent constitutional amendment bill number. Option C: was the bill introduced for women's reservation in legislatures, which became the 106th Amendment Act. Option D: does not correspond to the legislation for EWS reservation.

40. Q40Amendment and the basic structure

    The objectives specified in the Preamble contain the basic structure of our Constitution. In this regard choose the correct answer :

    • aThe idea of basic structure is explained in the Constitution passed on 26th Jan 1950
    • bBasic structure means that which cannot be amended in exercise of the power under Article 368 of the ConstitutionAnswer
    • cParliament is the supreme authority on the basic structure of our Constitution
    • dCourts have no jurisdiction on basic structure of Indian Constitution
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the basic structure of the Constitution signifies those core features and foundational values that lie completely beyond the amending power of Parliament under Article 368. Option A: The doctrine was not part of the original text of 26 January 1950, but was formulated by the Supreme Court in 1973. Option C: Parliament does not possess supreme authority over the basic structure; its amending power is limited by it. Option D: The higher judiciary possesses constitutional jurisdiction to review amendments and strike down violations of the basic structure.