APPSC Group-I Prelims 2019

238 questions from the 2019 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81Population, poverty and work

    Smart Cities Mission is a holists city rejuvenation programme for

    • a500 cities in India
    • b100 cities in IndiaAnswer
    • c65 cities in India
    • d277 cities in India
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Smart Cities Mission was launched by the Government of India in June 2015 to develop 100 cities across the country through core infrastructure, clean environments, and smart solutions. Option A: It confuses the Smart Cities Mission with the AMRUT scheme, which targeted 500 cities. Option C: It approximates the number of mission cities under JNNURM, not the Smart Cities Mission. Option D: It is an arbitrary figure with no relevance to this urban flagship programme.

82. Q82Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Which is the program that has the theme “One Nation – One Scheme” ?

    • aNational Rural Literary Mission
    • bPradhan Mantri Swasthya Bima Yojana
    • cSabala
    • dPradhan Mantri Fasal Bima YojanaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), launched in 2016, integrated multiple existing agricultural insurance schemes into a single unified framework under the theme 'One Nation - One Scheme'. Option A: National Rural Literacy Mission addresses adult literacy and is unrelated to this theme. Option B: Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Bima Yojana does not exist under that name; Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana or Ayushman Bharat target healthcare. Option C: Sabala is the Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls and does not carry the theme One Nation One Scheme.

83. Q83Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

    • aAbout 60% of agricultural lands have irrigational facilitiesAnswer
    • bAbout 55% of net cropped area is rainfed in India
    • cHYVP was mainly constrained for 5 crops
    • dGreen revolution led to intensive cultivation
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the statement is incorrect; India's net irrigated area constitutes approximately 48 to 50 percent of the total cultivated area, rather than 60 percent. Option B: It is a correct statement as nearly 50 to 55 percent of India's net cropped area remains dependent on rainfall. Option C: It is a correct statement because the High Yielding Varieties Programme initially focused on five crops: wheat, rice, maize, jowar, and bajra. Option D: It is a correct statement because the Green Revolution package promoted multiple cropping and intensive agricultural methods.

84. Q84Agriculture in the Indian economy

    To enhance food security and to make Indian Agriculture more resilent to climate change, which programme was started in 2011-12 ?

    • aRashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
    • bNational Food Security Mission
    • cNational Mission for Sustainable AgricultureAnswer
    • dRashtriya Krishi Bima Yojana
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture was initiated to promote climate-resilient agricultural practices and natural resource management, operationalized under the National Action Plan on Climate Change during 2011-12. Option A: Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched in 2007 to incentivize states to increase public investment in agriculture. Option B: National Food Security Mission was launched in 2007 to raise the production of rice, wheat, and pulses. Option D: Rashtriya Krishi Bima Yojana is an older crop insurance scheme initiated in 1999-2000.

85. Q85Money, banking and financial markets

    Which organization launched Rupay card ?

    • aRBI
    • bNPCIAnswer
    • cSBI
    • dGovernment of India
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the RuPay card scheme was conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2012 to provide an indigenous, multilateral domestic payment system. Option A: Reserve Bank of India authorized and supported NPCI to create the network but did not launch the card itself. Option C: State Bank of India is an issuer of RuPay cards, not the organization that created or launched the scheme. Option D: Government of India promoted domestic card adoption through initiatives like Jan Dhan Yojana, but the card network was established and operated by NPCI.

86. Q86Money, banking and financial markets

    Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Basel III implementation in India ?

    • aMinimum Tier 1 capital ratio should be 8%Answer
    • bTier 2 capital should be maximum 2%
    • cMinimum total capital ratio should be 9%
    • dMinimum total capital ratio plus capital conservation buffer should be 11-5%
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because it is an incorrect statement regarding RBI rules, as the minimum Tier 1 capital ratio mandated by the Reserve Bank of India under Basel III is 7%, not 8%. Minimum Common Equity Tier 1 ratio: 5.5% Minimum Tier 1 capital ratio: 7.0% Maximum Tier 2 capital ratio: 2.0% Minimum total capital ratio: 9.0% Capital conservation buffer: 2.5% Minimum total capital plus capital conservation buffer: 11.5% Option B: This statement is correct under RBI guidelines, which set the upper limit for Tier 2 capital at 2% of risk-weighted assets. Option C: This statement is correct under RBI guidelines, which prescribe a minimum total capital ratio of 9% for Indian banks. Option D: This statement is correct under RBI guidelines, combining the 9% minimum capital requirement with a 2.5% capital conservation buffer.

87. Q87Public finance and the budget

    Goods and Services Tax is a

    • aRaw Material Supply Based Tax
    • bProduction Based Tax
    • cDestination Based TaxAnswer
    • dInformation Based Tax
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because GST is structured as a destination-based consumption tax, meaning the revenue from the tax accrues to the state where the goods or services are ultimately consumed, rather than where they are produced. Option A: GST is charged across all value-addition stages of supply rather than being limited to the supply of raw materials. Option B: Production-based taxes, such as traditional excise duty, tax the origin of manufacturing rather than the point of consumption. Option D: Information-based tax is not a recognized economic or legal category of taxation.

88. Q88Public finance and the budget

    In the Union Budget 2016-17, tax on coal was renamed as

    • aSugamya Bharat Abhiyan Cess
    • bClean Environment CessAnswer
    • cGreen India Mission
    • dAccessible India Cess
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Union Budget 2016-17 renamed the Clean Energy Cess on coal, lignite, and peat as the Clean Environment Cess, while doubling its rate from 200 rupees to 400 rupees per tonne. Option A: Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan is a campaign for creating universal accessibility for persons with disabilities, not a cess on coal. Option C: Green India Mission is one of the national missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change, not a tax on fossil fuels. Option D: Accessible India Cess is not an existing or proposed tax under the Union Budget.

89. Q89Public finance and the budget

    In the Union Budget 2018-29, the Central Government proposed to launch which one of the following programmes?

    • a'Operation Yellow'
    • b'Operation Flood'
    • c'Operation Blues'
    • d'Operation Greens'Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Union Budget 2018-19 announced the launch of 'Operation Greens' with an initial allocation of ₹500 crore to promote farmer producer organisations, agri-logistics, and value addition for tomato, onion, and potato crops. Union Budget 2018-19 proposed: Operation Greens. Initial focus: Tomato, Onion, and Potato (TOP) crops. Initial budgetary outlay: ₹500 crore. Option A: 'Operation Yellow' is not a programme launched under the Union Budget 2018-19. Option B: 'Operation Flood' was launched in 1970 for the dairy sector and white revolution. Option C: 'Operation Blues' is fictitious in the context of agricultural budgetary schemes.

90. Q90Public finance and the budget

    What is the maturity period of treasury bills issued by Government of India ?

    • a14 and 91 days
    • b91 and 182 days
    • c91, 182 and 364 daysAnswer
    • d14 and 182 days
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Government of India currently issues three distinct tenors of regular Treasury Bills (T-Bills) through the Reserve Bank of India: 91-day, 182-day, and 364-day maturity periods. Option A: 14-day intermediate treasury bills are special non-market instruments for state governments, not standard auctioned treasury bills. Option B: It omits the 364-day treasury bills, which form an essential part of the standard regular issuances. Option D: It incorrectly includes 14-day bills and omits the standard 91-day and 364-day regular auction maturities.

91. Q91Environment and sustainable development

    “Sustainable Development is the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising on the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.” Who has given this definition ?

    • aBrundtland Report (1987) by World CommissionAnswer
    • bResearch paper by David Pearce, Giles Atkinson in 1993 [Center for Social and Economic Research on Global Environment]
    • c"Beyond Growth: The Economics of Sustainable Development", book written by Herman Daly in 1996
    • dResearch paper by John Hartwick in 1977
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because this definition of sustainable development was formulated in the 1987 report titled Our Common Future, published by the United Nations World Commission on Environment and Development chaired by Gro Harlem Brundtland. Option B: It refers to a later academic research paper that explored indicators and valuation of sustainability rather than originating this definition. Option C: It refers to Herman Daly's 1996 book on steady-state economics and ecological boundaries, published nearly a decade later. Option D: It refers to John Hartwick's paper establishing the economic rule on reinvesting resource rents, not the definition of sustainable development.

92. Q92Environment and sustainable development

    Out of the options given below, what should be the basic goal of “Sustainable Development” ?

    • aEconomic efficiency
    • bEquality, inclusive growthAnswer
    • cEconomic efficiency, inclusive growth
    • dEconomic efficiency, equality
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the fundamental social premise of sustainable development is achieving intra-generational and inter-generational equality alongside inclusive growth that ensures progress benefits every section of society. Option A: It emphasizes market efficiency and output optimization rather than social fairness, environmental limits, and human welfare. Option C: It elevates economic efficiency into a primary goal rather than treating it as an instrument to achieve broader social and environmental goals. Option D: It combines equality with economic efficiency while omitting inclusive growth, which is necessary to lift marginalized populations.

93. Q93STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    After bifurcation, according to the suggestions of NITI Aayog who has to take the construction responsibility of Polavaram Project ?

    • aCentral Government
    • bState GovernmentAnswer
    • cDivided between State and Central Governments equally
    • dState Government with the help of Central Government
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because in 2016, following the advice and framework formulated with NITI Aayog, the Central Government entrusted the execution and construction responsibility of the Polavaram Project to the State Government of Andhra Pradesh. Option A: The Central Government remained the funding entity rather than taking direct charge of execution on the ground. Option C: Construction responsibility was not divided equally, as the execution role was handed over entirely to the state administration. Option D: The state executed the work on behalf of the Centre rather than merely receiving technical assistance from it.

94. Q94STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

    Recently announced South Coastal Railway zone comprises of

    • aGuntakal, Guntur and Vijayawada divisionsAnswer
    • bGuntur, Vijayawada and Waltair divisions
    • cGuntakal, Vijayawada and Rayagada divisions
    • dGuntur, Guntakal and Rayagada Divisions
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the South Coast Railway zone, announced in 2019 with headquarters at Visakhapatnam, was created to comprise the Vijayawada, Guntur, and Guntakal railway divisions. Option B: Guntur, Vijayawada and Waltair divisions is incorrect because Waltair division was split, with its operational network reorganised rather than retained as a full division under the new zone. Option C: Guntakal, Vijayawada and Rayagada divisions is incorrect because Rayagada was slated as a new division under East Coast Railway, not SCoR. Option D: Guntur, Guntakal and Rayagada Divisions is incorrect because Rayagada belongs to the East Coast Railway.

95. Q95The Earth in the solar system

    Match the following List I with List II (Northern hemisphere) and choose the correct answer. List I List II a. Winter solstice I. December, 22 b. summer solstice II. June, 21 c. Vernal equinox III. March, 21 d. Autumnal equinox IV. September, 23 Codes : a b c d

    • aIV III II I
    • bI II III IVAnswer
    • cI II IV III
    • dIV II III I
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the matched pairs accurately align each astronomical event in the Northern Hemisphere with its standard calendar date. Winter solstice: December 22 Summer solstice: June 21 Vernal equinox: March 21 Autumnal equinox: September 23 Option A: It incorrectly matches the winter solstice with September and the autumnal equinox with December. Option C: It transposes the dates of the vernal equinox and the autumnal equinox. Option D: It assigns September 23 to the winter solstice and December 22 to the autumnal equinox.

96. Q96Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    The boundary between crust and mantle is ______ discontinuity.

    • aGutenberg
    • bMohoAnswer
    • cConrad
    • dSues
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Mohorovicic discontinuity, commonly known as the Moho, marks the boundary separating the Earth crust from the underlying mantle. Option A: Gutenberg discontinuity lies at a much deeper level, marking the boundary between the lower mantle and the outer core. Option C: Conrad discontinuity separates the upper continental crust from the lower continental crust, not the crust from the mantle. Option D: Sues is not a recognized seismic discontinuity, though Eduard Suess was a geologist who proposed crustal composition terms like Sial and Sima.

97. Q97Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Which one among the following is a Volcanic Mountain ?

    • aMt. Blane
    • bMt. Everest
    • cMt. Louis
    • dMt. EtnaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Mount Etna, located on the eastern coast of the island of Sicily in Italy, is an active stratovolcano formed by the subduction of the African plate under the Eurasian plate. Option A: Mont Blanc is a glaciated granitic peak in the Alps formed by tectonic folding, not volcanic processes. Option B: Mount Everest is a fold mountain composed of sedimentary and metamorphic rocks elevated by the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates. Option C: Mount Louis in the Canadian Rockies is composed of uplifted sedimentary limestone formed by tectonic folding and thrust faulting.

98. Q98Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Consider the following two statements and choose the appropriate answer : A. Gorges and Canyons represent V- shaped valleys. B. Gorges are the extended forms of Canyons.

    • aOnly A is correctAnswer
    • bOnly B is Correct
    • cBoth A and B are correct
    • dNeither A nor B are correct

    Explanation coming soon.

99. Q99Atmosphere, weather and climate

    Arrange the following constituents (in terms of their quantity) in the atmosphere in descending order :

    • aNitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, CO2Answer
    • bNitrogen, CO2, Argon, Oxygen
    • cNitrogen, Oxygen, CO2, Argon
    • dArgon, CO2, Nitrogen, Oxygen
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the composition of dry air by volume places nitrogen first, followed by oxygen, argon, and carbon dioxide. Nitrogen: approximately 78.08% Oxygen: approximately 20.95% Argon: approximately 0.93% Carbon dioxide: approximately 0.04% Option B: Carbon dioxide is far less abundant than oxygen and argon. Option C: Carbon dioxide is listed before argon, whereas argon is more than twenty times more abundant than carbon dioxide. Option D: Argon and carbon dioxide are minor gases and cannot precede the major gases nitrogen and oxygen.

100. Q100Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Which of the following statement/s rightly E explain/s about tropopause? (i) Seasonal variation occurs in the height of tropopause. (ii) It is the transition zone between troposphere and stratosphere. (iii) It lies below the stratosphere

     • a(ii) and (iii)Answer
     • b(i) and (ii)
     • c(i), (ii) and (iii)
     • d(i) and (iii)
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the tropopause varies in height between seasons due to thermal expansion, forms the boundary separating the troposphere from the stratosphere, and physically lies directly underneath the stratosphere. Option A: It incorrectly excludes statement (i), ignoring that the tropopause is higher in summer than in winter due to surface heating. Option B: It incorrectly excludes statement (iii), ignoring that the tropopause forms the ceiling of the troposphere and lies directly beneath the stratosphere. Option D: It incorrectly excludes statement (ii), ignoring that the tropopause is universally defined as the transition zone between the troposphere and stratosphere.

101. Q101Atmosphere, weather and climate

     The Earth's atmosphere is divided into layers based on the vertical profile of

     • aAir pressure
     • bAir temperatureAnswer
     • cAir density
     • dWind speed
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the atmosphere is demarcated into distinct thermal layers (troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere) primarily based on whether air temperature decreases or increases with increasing altitude. Option A: Air pressure decreases continuously and monotonically with altitude, providing no natural boundaries for layering. Option C: Air density steadily falls with height without exhibiting the reversal patterns needed to define distinct layers. Option D: Wind speed varies highly with local geography, seasons, and weather systems, making it unsuitable for standard atmospheric classification.

102. Q102Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Which among the following has the highest albedo ?

     • aSnowAnswer
     • bWater
     • cSand
     • dGrass
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because freshly fallen snow possesses the highest reflectivity among common natural surfaces, reflecting the vast majority of incident solar radiation. Fresh snow albedo: 70 to 90 percent Sand albedo: 20 to 40 percent Grass albedo: 15 to 25 percent Water albedo: 5 to 10 percent at high solar angles Option B: Water surfaces absorb most incoming solar radiation when the sun is overhead, exhibiting an albedo below 10 percent. Option C: Sand reflects roughly 20 to 40 percent of incoming radiation, which is far lower than snow. Option D: Grass reflects only about 15 to 25 percent of solar radiation, absorbing the rest for photosynthesis and heat.

103. Q103Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Wind in the northern hemisphere is deflected towards right due to

     • aRotation of the EarthAnswer
     • bTemperature variations
     • cPresence of higher land surface
     • dShape of the continents
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the rotation of the Earth generates the Coriolis force, an apparent force that deflects moving air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. Option B: Temperature variations produce horizontal pressure gradients that initiate wind motion rather than cause its rotational deflection. Option C: Surface features and land friction reduce wind velocity and alter the inflow angle, but do not produce the planetary deflection to the right. Option D: The shape and outline of continents guide local air currents, not the hemisphere-wide deflection.

104. Q104Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Doldrums extend on both sides of

     • aTropic of Cancer
     • bTropic of Capricorn
     • cArctic Circle
     • dEquatorAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the doldrums, also known as the equatorial calms, form a belt of light, variable winds and low pressure extending about 5 degrees north and south of the equator. Option A: The Tropic of Cancer lies near 23.5 degrees North, which coincides with the horse latitudes rather than the doldrums. Option B: The Tropic of Capricorn lies near 23.5 degrees South, characterized by subtropical anticyclones and calm descending air. Option C: The Arctic Circle is a high-latitude boundary at 66.5 degrees North, characterized by subpolar lows and polar easterlies.

105. Q105Oceans

     The bottom topography of an Ocean can be shown by

     • aHydrostatic curve
     • bAltimetric curve
     • cHypsometric curveAnswer
     • dHolometric curve
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because a hypsometric curve, also known as a hypsographic curve, is used to represent the relative distribution of land elevations and ocean depths on Earth. Option A: Hydrostatic curve relates to fluid pressures at rest and is not used to map topography or bathymetry. Option B: Altimetric curve refers to elevation measurements above a reference datum, usually restricted to subaerial topography rather than ocean bathymetry. Option D: Holometric curve is a non-existent geographical term in cartography and oceanography.

106. Q106Oceans

     Which of the following is not a warm ocean current ?

     • aAgulhas Current
     • bHumboldt CurrentAnswer
     • cBrazil Current
     • dKuroshio Current
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Humboldt Current, also known as the Peru Current, is a cold eastern boundary current flowing northward along the west coast of South America. Option A: Agulhas Current is incorrect because it is a warm western boundary current flowing southward along the southeast coast of Africa. Option C: Brazil Current is incorrect because it is a warm western boundary current flowing southwards along the east coast of South America. Option D: Kuroshio Current is incorrect because it is a warm western boundary current flowing northward in the western North Pacific Ocean.

107. Q107India: physiography, drainage and climate

     El-Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years. Consider the following statements in this regard : A. The appearance of warm currents off the Coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific. B. The word El-Nino means ‘Christ Child’ because the current appears around Christmas in December. C. El-Nino was one of the reasons for the deficit rainfall in India (2014). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aA and B only
     • bB and C only
     • cA, B and CAnswer
     • dOnly C
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because all three statements are true: El Nino is marked by warm surface waters off Peru, is named after the Christ Child because it usually peaks around Christmas, and contributed directly to the significant rainfall deficit experienced in India during 2014. Option A: A and B only is incorrect because statement C is also an accurate historical fact regarding the 2014 Indian drought. Option B: B and C only is incorrect because statement A accurately describes the eastern Pacific warming phenomenon. Option D: Only C is incorrect because statements A and B are fundamental geographical aspects of the definition of El Nino.

108. Q108Natural resources and their distribution

     Which of the following is not a coal field ?

     • aRaniganj
     • bUmaria
     • cMosabaniAnswer
     • dKorba
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Mosabani, located in the East Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, is famous for its historic underground copper mines, not coal mining. Option A: Raniganj is the oldest coalfield in India, located in West Bengal. Option B: Umaria is a well-known coalfield situated in Madhya Pradesh. Option D: Korba is a major coal basin and mining centre located in Chhattisgarh.

109. Q109Natural resources and their distribution

     Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Dam/Lake River

     • aGobind Sagar - Sutlej
     • bKolleru Lake - KrishnaAnswer
     • cUkai Reservoir - Tapi
     • dWular Lake - Jhelum

     Explanation coming soon.

110. Q110Natural resources and their distribution

     Karuvutham means......

     • aA torpedoAnswer
     • bA rainwater harvesting technique
     • cAn air-to-surface missile
     • dA method to induce artificial rain
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Karuvutham is a traditional indigenous rainwater harvesting technique utilized for collecting and conserving surface runoff. Option A: A torpedo is a self-propelled underwater naval weapon and has no connection to traditional water management. Option C: An air-to-surface missile is an airborne weapon system, not a civil water conservation practice. Option D: A method to induce artificial rain refers to cloud seeding techniques, whereas Karuvutham is a surface water collection structure.

111. Q111Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Which is the correct descending order of rice producing States in India ?

     • aWest Bengal, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
     • bAndhra Pradesh, Punjab, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh
     • cPunjab, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
     • dWest Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Andhra PradeshAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because West Bengal is the leading rice producer in India, followed by Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Andhra Pradesh in descending order of total output. West Bengal: roughly 15 to 16 million tonnes Uttar Pradesh: roughly 15 million tonnes Punjab: roughly 12 to 13 million tonnes Andhra Pradesh: roughly 8 to 9 million tonnes Option A: Uttar Pradesh yields more total rice than Punjab, making this order incorrect. Option B: Andhra Pradesh produces less rice than the other three states listed. Option C: Punjab produces less total rice than both West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.

112. Q112Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Which of the following statements is not correct ?

     • aIndia is the second largest producer of fruits in the world.
     • bIndia is the biggest producer of vegetables in the world.Answer
     • cProduction of fruits, vegetables and spices is called horticulture.
     • dUttar Pradesh is the largest producer of
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the statement is factually incorrect; China is the world's largest producer of vegetables, while India ranks second globally. Largest global vegetable producer: China Second largest global vegetable producer: India Second largest global fruit producer: India Option A: India is indeed the second largest fruit producer in the world behind China, making this statement correct. Option C: The production of fruits, vegetables, spices, and plantation crops is accurately termed horticulture, making this statement correct. Option D: Uttar Pradesh is indeed the leading producer of multiple primary agricultural commodities in India, making this assertion valid.

113. Q113Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Match the following : List I List II (Crops) (Chief Producer) a. Barley I. Karnataka b. Groundnut II. Uttar Pradesh c. Ragi III. Gujarat d. Rice IV. West Bengal Codes : a b c d II III I IV

     • aI II III IV
     • bII III I IVAnswer
     • cIV III II I
     • dIII IV II I
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because matching each crop with its leading producing state yields the exact sequence II, III, I, and IV. Barley: Uttar Pradesh Groundnut: Gujarat Ragi: Karnataka Rice: West Bengal Option A: It mistakenly pairs Barley with Karnataka and Groundnut with Uttar Pradesh. Option C: It incorrectly identifies West Bengal as the chief producer of Barley. Option D: It falsely attributes Barley to Gujarat and Groundnut to West Bengal.

114. Q114World regional geography

     Israel has common border with

     • aLebanon, Syria, Jordan and EgyptAnswer
     • bLebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
     • cCyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
     • dTurkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Israel shares land boundaries with Lebanon to the north, Syria to the northeast, Jordan to the east, and Egypt to the southwest. Option B: Turkey lies further north across the Mediterranean and does not border Israel. Option C: Cyprus is an island in the Mediterranean Sea and Turkey does not share a land border with Israel. Option D: Turkey, Iraq, and Yemen do not share a land border with Israel.

115. Q115World regional geography

     Which of the following groups of countries is arranged in descending order of area ?

     • aRussia, Canada, China, U.S.A.
     • bRussia, U.S.A., Canada, China
     • cRussia, Canada, U.S.A., ChinaAnswer
     • dRussia, China, U.S.A., Canada
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Russia is the largest country by total surface area, followed in descending order by Canada, the United States, and China when total area including territorial waters is accounted for. Russia: approximately 17.1 million square kilometers Canada: approximately 9.98 million square kilometers United States: approximately 9.83 million square kilometers China: approximately 9.60 million square kilometers Option A: China is placed ahead of the U.S.A., which overlooks standard international total area measurements that place the United States ahead of China. Option B: U.S.A. is placed before Canada, but Canada is larger in total area than the U.S.A. Option D: China is placed ahead of Canada and the U.S.A., which is incorrect.

116. Q116World regional geography

     Danube river flows into

     • aBaltic Sea
     • bBlack SeaAnswer
     • cNorth Sea
     • dMediterranean Sea

     Explanation coming soon.

117. Q117World regional geography

     The Suez Canal connects

     • aBaltic Sea and Pacific Ocean
     • bMediterranean Sea and Atlantic Ocean
     • cBaltic Sea and Mediterranean Sea
     • dMediterranean Sea and Red SeaAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

118. Q118World regional geography

     Which is the mountain between the Black Sea and Caspian Sea ?

     • aUral
     • bCaucasusAnswer
     • cAlps
     • dBalkan
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Caucasus Mountains form an east-west mountain system positioned directly between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. Option A: Ural Mountains run in a north-south direction through western Russia, dividing Europe from Asia. Option C: Alps are located in south-central Europe and do not border either the Black Sea or the Caspian Sea. Option D: Balkan Mountains extend across eastern Bulgaria in the Balkan Peninsula.

119. Q119World regional geography

     Sierra Nevada is the name of

     • aAn animal of America
     • bA disease found in America
     • cA fruit found in America
     • dA mountain in AmericaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Sierra Nevada is a major fault-block mountain range in the western United States, located mainly in California. Option A: An animal of America is incorrect as Sierra Nevada refers to a physical geographic landform, not fauna. Option B: A disease found in America is an incorrect classification of a mountain range. Option C: A fruit found in America is incorrect as it has no association with agricultural produce.

120. Q120World regional geography

     Yellowstone National Park which is famous for geysers/hot springs is located in

     • aCanada
     • bUSAAnswer
     • cNew Zealand
     • dAustralia
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Yellowstone National Park, established in 1872 as the world's first national park, is located primarily in the state of Wyoming, extending into Montana and Idaho in the United States. Option A: Canada possesses famous national parks like Banff and Jasper in the Canadian Rockies, but not Yellowstone. Option C: New Zealand is renowned for geothermal activity in the Taupo Volcanic Zone and Rotorua, not Yellowstone. Option D: Australia has ancient landscapes and national parks such as Kakadu, but no active volcanic geyser basins like Yellowstone.