APPSC Group-I Prelims 2019

238 questions from the 2019 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41The Union executive

    Match the following : a. Reprieve I. Reduce the amount of sentence without changing its character b. Respite II. Substitute one form of punishment for other of a lighter character c. Remission III. Awarding lesser sentence d. Commutation IV. A stay of execution of sentence Codes : a b c d a b c d

    • aIV III I IIAnswer
    • bI II III IV
    • cIV II III I
    • dIII I II IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because each term regarding judicial clemency under Article 72 matches its legal meaning: a reprieve stays execution temporarily, a respite awards a lesser penalty due to special facts, a remission reduces the duration without altering the character, and a commutation substitutes a lighter punishment. Reprieve: A stay of execution of sentence Respite: Awarding a lesser sentence due to a special fact Remission: Reducing the amount of sentence without changing its character Commutation: Substituting one form of punishment for another of a lighter character Option B: It incorrectly pairs reprieve with reducing the amount of sentence and commutation with a stay of execution. Option C: It inverts the proper definitions of respite and commutation. Option D: It misidentifies reprieve as awarding a lesser sentence and remission as a stay.

42. Q42The Union executive

    Regarding the powers of the President, which of the following is correct ?

    • aNo previous sanction is required or recommendation of the President for introducing any legislation on any matter.
    • bCourts are debarred from invalidating any legislation on the ground that the President's previous sanction was not obtained.Answer
    • cA money bill can be returned for re-consideration.
    • dThe President does not have the power of disallowance of a bill of the State) legislature, which may have been reserved for his consideration by the Governor of the State.
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 255 of the Constitution provides that no Act of Parliament or a State Legislature shall be invalid merely on the ground that a required recommendation or previous sanction of the President or Governor was not given, treating it purely as a matter of procedure. Option A: Several legislations, such as bills altering state boundaries under Article 3 and Money Bills under Article 117, strictly require the President's prior recommendation. Option C: Under Article 111, the President cannot return a Money Bill to Parliament for reconsideration. Option D: Under Article 201, the President has the power to either assent to or withhold assent from a state bill reserved by the Governor.

43. Q43The Union executive

    Regarding the pardoning powers, choose the correct answer.

    • aUnder the Indian Constitution, the pardoning power of the President and Governor are one and the same.
    • bFor offences made under Concurrent lists, without the State role, the President alone has the pardoning power.
    • cThe only authority for pardoning a sentence of death is the President.Answer
    • dAs regards suspension, remission, the Governor does not have concurrent jurisdiction with the President.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because under Article 72, the President is the sole constitutional authority empowered to completely pardon a sentence of death, whereas a Governor can only suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence under Article 161. Article 72: President alone has the power to grant full pardon for a death sentence. Article 161: Governor can suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, but cannot fully pardon it. Option A: The powers are not identical because the Governor cannot pardon death sentences or handle court-martial sentences. Option B: Both the Union and States possess executive authority across Concurrent subjects, so the President does not hold exclusive pardoning power over them. Option D: The Governor shares concurrent jurisdiction with the President regarding the suspension, remission, and commutation of death sentences.

44. Q44The Union executive

    Regarding the Union Council of Council of Ministers, choose the wrong answer.

    • aA Council of Ministers must always exist to advise the President
    • bEven after the dissolution of Lok Sabha, Council of Ministers exists to advise the President
    • cEven after the resignation of the Prime Minister, Council of Ministers exists to advise the President
    • dDuring the period of National Emergency, the President acquires discretionary powers, and can take independent decisionsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Constitution does not grant the President discretionary powers to act independently during a National Emergency, as executive power must still be exercised strictly on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. Article 74(1): mandates a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President at all times Article 352: requires the President to act on the written recommendation of the Cabinet Option A: It is an accurate statement because Article 74 mandates that the President can never function without a Council of Ministers. Option B: It is an accurate statement because the Supreme Court ruled in U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi that a caretaker ministry must exist even after dissolution. Option C: It is an accurate statement because an outgoing ministry continues in a caretaker capacity until a successor assumes office.

45. Q45Parliament and the state legislatures

    A sitting of the Parliament can be terminated by adjournment, prorogation or dissolution. In this regard choose the correct answer.

    • aAdjournment terminates sitting as well as session of the House.
    • bAll pending notices including introducing bills lapse on prorogation.
    • cDissolution ends all business including bills and motions before the Lok Sabha.
    • dAdjournment Sine die means terminating a sitting for an indefinite period.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because adjournment sine die terminates the sitting of a House of Parliament without assigning any future day or time for reassembly. Option A: Adjournment terminates only a sitting of the House, whereas prorogation terminates the entire session. Option B: While general notices lapse on prorogation, notices of intention to move for leave to introduce a bill do not lapse. Option C: Dissolution does not end all business, as certain pending bills, such as bills pending in the Rajya Sabha and not passed by the Lok Sabha, do not lapse.

46. Q46Parliament and the state legislatures

    Estimates Committee related to which reform to ensure the efficiency of the following ?

    • aAdministration reforms X
    • bFinancial Control reformsAnswer
    • cNew Legislation reforms
    • dEstimates for different program reforms
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Estimates Committee examines budgetary estimates to suggest economies and financial control reforms that improve efficiency in government expenditure. Option A: General administrative reforms fall outside the specific scope of this financial committee. Option C: Scrutiny of new legislation is carried out by departmentally related standing committees or select committees, not the Estimates Committee. Option D: The committee does not design new program reforms but suggests economies in expenditures within the framework of existing government policies.

47. Q47The judiciary

    Choose the correct answer relating to the Supreme Court of India:

    • aA Supreme Court Judge addresses his resignation to the Chief Justice of India
    • bThe Supreme Court does not have the power to review its own judgments
    • cAll Civil and Judicial authorities in India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court
    • dThe Supreme Court has the autonomy to make rules for the practice and procedure of courtAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

48. Q48The judiciary

    Social justice enables the Courts to uphold legislation, except

    • aTo remove economic inequalities.
    • bTo provide a decent standard of living to the working people.
    • cTo protect the interest of the weaker sections of the society.
    • dTo enact unquestionable laws to protect certain people of the society.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the doctrine of constitutional supremacy ensures that no legislature can pass unquestionable laws immune from judicial review, even under the guise of social justice. Option A: Eliminating economic inequalities is a direct objective of social justice supported under Article 38. Option B: Securing a decent standard of life for workers is a constitutionally recognized social justice goal under Article 43. Option C: Protecting the educational and economic interests of weaker sections is explicitly mandated under Article 46.

49. Q49The state government

    The President may appoint a Governor of a State as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory. Such Governor in the adm inistration of Union Territory shall exercise his functions

    • aOn the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers.
    • bAs such administrator independently of his Council of Ministers.Answer
    • cThe Governor can form his choice of Council of Ministers for aid and advice.
    • dA Governor of a State cannot be appointed as an Administrator of a Union Territory.
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 239(2) of the Constitution, when a Governor of a State is appointed as an administrator of an adjoining Union Territory, he exercises his functions as such administrator independently of his Council of Ministers. Article 239(2): Authorises the President to appoint a Governor as an administrator of an adjoining Union Territory, acting independently of his State Council of Ministers. Option A: The State Council of Ministers has no jurisdiction over the administration of a neighbouring Union Territory. Option C: A Governor cannot constitute an arbitrary or separate Council of Ministers contrary to constitutional provisions. Option D: Article 239(2) explicitly permits the President to appoint a State Governor as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory.

50. Q50The state government

    Regarding the Governor, all following statements are correct, except

    • aGovernor is not answerable to either House of the State.
    • bThe Governor is not answerable to either House of the Parliament.
    • cThe Governor is not answerable to the Council of Ministers.
    • dGovernor shall quit his office immediately after expiry of his term.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under Article 156(3) of the Constitution, a Governor continues to hold office, notwithstanding the expiration of their term, until their successor enters upon the office. Article 156(3) proviso: A Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. Article 361(1): The Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office. Option A: This statement is correct because the Governor is not answerable to the State Legislature. Option B: This statement is correct because the Governor is not answerable to Parliament. Option C: This statement is correct because the Governor is not answerable to the Council of Ministers, as ministers hold office during the Governor's pleasure.

51. Q51The state government

    The orders passed by the Governor of a State (Article 163) of a State fall in four categories. Find out the category which is not subject to Judicial Review.

    • aThe exercise of executive power in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution by or under the order of the Governor
    • bOrders passed by the Governor on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister
    • cOrders like grant of pardon
    • dWhere the Governor acts without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers and acts in his own discretionAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under Article 163(2), the Governor's decision taken in his discretion is final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor in his discretion cannot be questioned. Option A: Executive actions taken in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution are open to judicial scrutiny. Option B: Actions taken on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers are ordinary governmental acts subject to judicial review. Option C: The clemency power under Article 161 has been held by the Supreme Court to be subject to judicial review on specific grounds such as non-application of mind.

52. Q52The state government

    Regarding the composition of the Legislative Council, all following statements are correct, except

    • a1/3rd of the total number of Council shall be elected from local bodies.
    • b1/12th of the total number of Council shall be elected by graduates.
    • c1/12th of the total number of Council shall be elected by Teachers.
    • d1/3th of the total number of Council shall be elected by the Legislative Assembly.Answer

    Explanation coming soon.

53. Q53The state government

    Regarding the disagreement between the two Houses of the State Legislature, which of the following is correct ?

    • aThe bill ends and becomes dead
    • bTo resolve the issue a joint sitting will be called for
    • cThe only power of the Council is to inter pose some delay in the passage of the billAnswer
    • dLegislative Council is a resolving body like Rajya Sabha
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the constitutional mechanism gives the Legislative Council only a suspensive delay power over ordinary bills passed by the Legislative Assembly, up to a maximum period of four months. First instance delay by Legislative Council: up to 3 months Second instance delay after Assembly passes again: up to 1 month Total delay permissible: 4 months Joint sitting provision under Article 108: exists only for Parliament, not for State Legislatures Option A: A bill does not die automatically on disagreement; the Assembly can pass it a second time to override the Council. Option B: There is no constitutional provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of a State Legislature to resolve deadlock. Option D: Unlike the Rajya Sabha, which has equal legislative powers with the Lok Sabha on ordinary bills, the Legislative Council is subordinate and cannot veto ordinary bills.

54. Q54Federalism and centre-state relations

    Parliament has the power to enact laws with respect to a matter in the State list in the national interest. In this regard choose the wrong answer.

    • aOn the request of two or more States.
    • bLegislation for giving effect to International agreements.
    • cBoth Union and State governments have absolute freedom to make laws related to Concurrent list.Answer
    • dInconsistency between laws made by

    Explanation coming soon.

55. Q55Federalism and centre-state relations

    State Government can pass a law imposing restrictions on goods imported from other States. Such law shall be moved in the Legislature of a State without the previous sanction of the

    • aGovernor
    • bPresidentAnswer
    • cUnion Government
    • dInter-State Council
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under the proviso to Article 304(b) of the Constitution of India, no Bill or amendment imposing reasonable restrictions on trade, commerce, or intercourse with other States can be introduced in a State Legislature without the previous sanction of the President. Article 301: Freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout India Article 304(b): Power of a State Legislature to impose reasonable restrictions in the public interest Proviso to Article 304(b): Mandatory requirement of previous sanction of the President to introduce such legislation Option A: The Governor grants post-passage assent, but the previous sanction required prior to introduction is given by the President. Option C: The constitutional text designates the President, not the Union Government directly, as the sanctioning authority. Option D: The Inter-State Council is an advisory body under Article 263 and possesses no legislative sanctioning power.

56. Q56Federalism and centre-state relations

    Choose the correct answer from the following:

    • aA member of an All India Service can be dismissed or removed only by the Union government.Answer
    • bA member of an All India Service can be dismissed or removed only by the State government also if he is serving under the State.
    • cIn India, State Government employees administer State laws only.
    • dThe Union Government through its departments administers Union laws.

    Explanation coming soon.

57. Q57Federalism and centre-state relations

    Which of the following are not the federal features of the Indian Constitution ?

    • aRigid Constitution
    • bBicameral Legislature
    • cIndependent Judiciary
    • dOffice of the GovernorAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Governor is appointed by the President and acts as a representative of the Union, serving as a unitary or centralizing element within the Indian polity. Option A: A rigid constitution is a federal feature as it prevents unilateral amendments to the constitutional division of powers. Option B: A bicameral legislature is a federal feature providing institutional representation for the states in the Rajya Sabha. Option C: An independent judiciary is a federal feature that safeguards the federal distribution of powers against executive and legislative encroachment.

58. Q58Federalism and centre-state relations

    M.M. Punchhi Committee was appointed to study Centre-State relations. Regarding Punchhi recommendations all the following statements are correct except

    • aLocalising the Emergency Provisions under Articles 355 and 356 either to district or part of district.
    • bDeployment of Central forces without State's consent for a short period.
    • cIn appointing the Chief Minister, pre-poll alliance should be treated as one political party.
    • dNational Integration Commission shall meet once in two years.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Punchhi Commission actually recommended that the National Integration Council should meet at least once a year, not once every two years. Option A: The commission recommended localising emergency provisions under Articles 355 and 356 to specific districts or pockets instead of bringing the entire state under central rule. Option B: The commission recommended that central forces could be deployed without state consent for a brief period of not more than a week in serious communal flare-ups. Option C: The commission laid down guidelines for selecting the Chief Minister, stating that a pre-poll coalition should be treated as a single political party.

59. Q59Federalism and centre-state relations

    Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations arre Constitutional ?

    • aRiver Water Tribunal
    • bInter-State CouncilAnswer
    • cZonal Council
    • dZonal Tribunals
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Inter-State Council is established directly under Article 263 of the Constitution of India, making it a constitutional body. Article 263: Provisions with respect to an inter-State Council Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956: Statutory origin of River Water Tribunals States Reorganisation Act, 1956: Statutory origin of Zonal Councils Option A: It is a statutory body constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. Option C: It is a statutory body created under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Option D: It is not a recognized constitutional body in the Indian Constitution.

60. Q60Federalism and centre-state relations

    Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India : A. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expira-tion of two months, unless before the expira-tion of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. B. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but the exclud-ing the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

    • aA onlyAnswer
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a proclamation under Article 360 ceases to operate after two months without parliamentary approval, whereas directions for salary reductions explicitly include Supreme Court and High Court judges. Article 360(2): Requires approval by both Houses of Parliament within two months Article 360(4)(b): Empowers reduction of salaries of persons serving the Union, including Supreme Court and High Court judges Option B: It validates statement B, which mistakenly states that judges of the higher judiciary are excluded from pay cuts. Option C: It accepts statement B as true, directly contradicting the explicit inclusion in Article 360(4)(b). Option D: It rejects statement A, which correctly reflects the two-month approval rule.

61. Q61Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Recommendations for the 14th Finance Commission are valid from

    • a1st April 2015 to 31 March 2020Answer
    • b1st January 2015 to 31" December 2020
    • c1 April 2016 to 31 March 2021
    • d1 January 2016 to 31 December 2021
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Fourteenth Finance Commission covered the five-year period starting from 1st April 2015 to 31st March 2020. Fourteenth Finance Commission chairman: Y. V. Reddy Award period: 1 April 2015 to 31 March 2020 Option B: Indian fiscal cycles run from April to March, making a calendar year span incorrect. Option C: The 2016 to 2021 window misdates the start year of the award period by one financial year. Option D: This mistakenly uses calendar year bounds and an inaccurate commencement date.

62. Q62Rights issues and social justice

    The Union Cabinet has approved amendment to the POCSO Act recently. What is the full form of the POCSO ?

    • aProtection of Cows from Social Offences
    • bProtection of Children Sexual OffencesAnswer
    • cProtection of Childre from Social Offences
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because POCSO refers to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, enacted to safeguard minors from sexual abuse, sexual harassment, and pornography. Option A: Protection of cows is entirely unrelated to the child welfare legislation. Option C: The legislation deals specifically with sexual offences rather than general social offences. Option D: Option B designates the specific legislative subject matter intended by the examiner.

63. Q63Polity in the news: new committees, commissions of inquiry and cases in the courts

    The Supreme Court of India has removed C.B.I. Director Ranjit Sinha from

    • a3G Case investigation
    • b2G Case investigationAnswer
    • cRafale investigation
    • d4G investigation
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because in November 2014, the Supreme Court of India directed the then CBI Director Ranjit Sinha to recuse himself completely from the 2G spectrum allocation case investigation following allegations of meeting the accused persons at his residence. Option A: 3G Case investigation is incorrect because the controversy and Supreme Court direction specifically concerned the 2G spectrum allocation scam. Option C: Rafale investigation is incorrect because Ranjit Sinha had retired years before the Rafale deal inquiries arose. Option D: 4G investigation is incorrect because no such case or investigation led to his removal by the court.

64. Q64STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Which State Government has reduced the tenure of Lokayukta from eight years to five years ?

    • aTelangana
    • bBihar
    • cRajasthanAnswer
    • dAndhra Pradesh
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly passed an amendment act in 2019 reducing the Lokayukta tenure from eight years back to five years. Tenure increased to eight years: Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas (Amendment) Act, 2018 Tenure reduced to five years: Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas (Amendment) Act, 2019 Option A: Operates under the Telangana Lokayukta Act with a standard statutory tenure of six years. Option B: Maintains a fixed five-year term under the Bihar Lokayukta Act without an eight-to-five-year reduction. Option D: Has maintained a five-year tenure under the Andhra Pradesh Lokayukta Act.

65. Q65STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    How many Municipal Corporations are there in Andhra Pradesh ?

    • a14
    • b15
    • c16Answer
    • d17

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

66. Q66What an economy is measured by

    Among the following National Income Concepts, find out the correct one :

    • aGross Domestic Product at Market Price = Gross National Product - Depreciation
    • bGross Domestic Product at Market Price = Gross National Product at Market Price Net Income from AbroadAnswer
    • cGross Domestic Product at Market Price = Gross National Product at Market Price - Net Indirect Taxes
    • dNet Domestic Product at Market Prices = Net Domestic Product - Net Indirect Taxes
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Gross Domestic Product measures output within domestic boundaries, which equals Gross National Product minus Net Factor Income from Abroad. GDP at Market Price = GNP at Market Price - Net Factor Income from Abroad NNP at Market Price = GNP at Market Price - Depreciation GDP at Factor Cost = GDP at Market Price - Net Indirect Taxes NDP at Factor Cost = NDP at Market Price - Net Indirect Taxes Option A: Subtracting depreciation from Gross National Product gives Net National Product, not Gross Domestic Product. Option C: Subtracting net indirect taxes from market price yields factor cost, not domestic product. Option D: Subtracting net indirect taxes from market prices converts the aggregate to factor cost, not another market price measure.

67. Q67What an economy is measured by

    According to 2010 Human Development Index calculated (Compiled and Computed from UNDP Human Development Report) for 169 countries, what is the rank of India ?

    • a125
    • b119Answer
    • c108
    • d101
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because in the 2010 Human Development Report, which ranked 169 countries under a revamped methodology, India secured the 119th position with an HDI value of 0.519. Total countries ranked in HDR 2010: 169 India HDI score in 2010: 0.519 India rank in 2010: 119 Option A: 125 was not the rank assigned to India in the 2010 report. Option C: 108 is too high a rank for India's 2010 assessment. Option D: 101 was not India's position in the 2010 rankings.

68. Q68What an economy is measured by

    Which sector comprises water supply ?

    • aPrimary Sector
    • bSecondary SectorAnswer
    • cTertiary Sector
    • dPublic Sector
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under standard national income accounting in India, water supply is grouped alongside electricity and gas under utilities, which form part of the secondary sector. Option A: Primary sector consists of direct extraction of natural resources such as agriculture, forestry, fishing, and mining. Option C: Tertiary sector covers commercial, professional, financial, transport, and personal services rather than industrial utility provision. Option D: Public sector refers to an ownership classification rather than an economic activity sector.

69. Q69Economic thought: the thinkers, the schools and the Nobel prize

    Which is the curve that explains the relation ship in between economic growth and environ mental degradation?

    • aLaffer Curve
    • bLorenz Curve
    • cKuznets CurveAnswer
    • dPhillips Curve
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Environmental Kuznets Curve hypothesizes an inverted U-shaped relationship between economic growth and environmental quality, showing that environmental degradation initially worsens as per capita income rises, but improves past a certain income threshold. Option A: Laffer Curve illustrates the relationship between tax rates and total tax revenues collected. Option B: Lorenz Curve graphically displays the cumulative distribution of income or wealth to indicate economic inequality. Option D: Phillips Curve depicts the inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment in the short run.

70. Q70Economic data, indices and state rankings

    The Asian Competitiveness Institute (ACI) has released the Ease of Doing Business Rankings for Indian States. Identify the States in descending order :

    • aMaharastra, Delhi and Andhra Pradesh
    • bAndhra Pradesh, Delhi and Maharastra
    • cAndhra Pradesh, Maharastra and DelhiAnswer
    • dDelhi, Andhra Pradesh and Maharastra
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Asian Competitiveness Institute at the National University of Singapore ranked Andhra Pradesh first, Maharashtra second, and Delhi third in its 2018 Ease of Doing Business Index for Indian sub-national economies. First rank: Andhra Pradesh Second rank: Maharashtra Third rank: Delhi Option A: Maharashtra was second, not first, in this index. Option B: Delhi placed third, behind Maharashtra, not second. Option D: Delhi was placed third overall rather than occupying the top rank.

71. Q71Economic data, indices and state rankings

    Andhra Pradesh has topped Ease of Living Index Rankings under AMRUT in 2018. It was followed by

    • aTelangana and Maharashtra
    • bOdisha and Madhya PradeshAnswer
    • cTamil Nadu and Telangana
    • dMaharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because in the 2018 Ease of Living Index rankings under the AMRUT mission released by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Andhra Pradesh stood first, followed by Odisha in second place and Madhya Pradesh in third place. Rank 1: Andhra Pradesh Rank 2: Odisha Rank 3: Madhya Pradesh Option A: It incorrectly lists Telangana and Maharashtra, neither of which secured the second or third position behind Andhra Pradesh. Option C: It mistakenly names Tamil Nadu and Telangana instead of Odisha and Madhya Pradesh. Option D: It lists Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, whereas Maharashtra did not secure the second spot.

72. Q72Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Though removal of unemployment is mentioned as one of the objectives of economic planning in all Five Year Plans, from which plan onward is serious concern shown for solving the unemployment problem ?

    • aThird Five Year Plan
    • bFourth Five Year Plan
    • cFifth Five Year PlanAnswer
    • dSixth Five Year Plan
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-1979) made employment generation and poverty removal (Garibi Hatao) the focal point of planning strategy, departing from earlier assumptions that economic growth alone would absorb surplus labour. Option A: Third Five Year Plan concentrated primarily on agricultural self-sufficiency and heavy industrial growth. Option B: Fourth Five Year Plan aimed at growth with stability and self-reliance rather than establishing direct employment generation programmes. Option D: Sixth Five Year Plan intensified anti-poverty programmes, but the structural shift in serious policy focus began in the Fifth Plan.

73. Q73Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    What is the main objective of 12th Five Year Plan ?

    • aFaster and more inclusive growth
    • bFaster sustainable inclusive growthAnswer
    • cEquality and social justice
    • dFaster more inclusive growth
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the central theme and official title of the Twelfth Five Year Plan document approved by the National Development Council was 'Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth'. Official title of 11th Five Year Plan: Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth Official title of 12th Five Year Plan: Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth Option A: Faster and more inclusive growth was the core objective of the Eleventh Five Year Plan. Option C: Equality and social justice reflects the theme of the Ninth Five Year Plan (Growth with Social Justice and Equity). Option D: Faster more inclusive growth omits the sustainability component, which was the distinguishing addition of the Twelfth Plan.

74. Q74Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    What is the approach followed by National Institution For Transforming India Aayog in the economic policy making ?

    • aTop-Down model
    • bTrickle-up benefit model
    • cOne size fits all
    • dCo-operative FederalismAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because NITI Aayog was established to foster cooperative federalism by ensuring structured, continuous involvement of states in national economic policymaking and replacing the earlier centralised approach. Option A: It replaces the old top-down planning approach with a bottom-up model. Option B: It does not subscribe to or adopt a trickle-up model as its core governance framework. Option C: It explicitly rejects the one-size-fits-all approach to cater to diverse regional needs.

75. Q75Population, poverty and work

    A country with a crude birth rate of 44 and a crude death rate of 11 would have an annual rate of natural increase of

    • a33
    • b33%
    • c3.3%Answer
    • d5-5%
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the rate of natural increase is calculated by subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate and converting the result into a percentage. Crude Birth Rate: 44 per 1000 Crude Death Rate: 11 per 1000 Natural increase per 1000: 44 - 11 = 33 Annual rate of natural increase: (33 / 1000) * 100 = 3.3% Option A: 33 represents the rate per thousand, not the annual percentage rate. Option B: 33% fails to divide by ten when converting per thousand figures to a percentage. Option D: 5-5% does not follow from the given demographic values.

76. Q76Population, poverty and work

    According to United Nations' Millennium Development Goals Programme (2011-2012), what is the percentage of population below the poverty line in India ?

    • a21.9%Answer
    • b20%
    • c22%
    • d29-8%
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the official poverty headcount ratio in India for 2011-12, as reported under the Millennium Development Goals monitoring framework, was 21.9 percent based on the Tendulkar methodology. Rural poverty ratio (2011-12): 25.7 percent Urban poverty ratio (2011-12): 13.7 percent Total poverty ratio (2011-12): 21.9 percent Option B: 20 percent is an inaccurate approximation that does not match the official government reporting. Option C: 22 percent is an unverified rounded estimate rather than the officially published figure. Option D: 29.8 percent corresponds to the national poverty estimate for the earlier survey year 2009-10.

77. Q77Population, poverty and work

    What is the method used to calculate chronic unemployment ?

    • aUsual status unemploymentAnswer
    • bCurrent weekly status unemployment
    • cCurrent daily status unemployment
    • dAll of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because usual status unemployment evaluates an individual's activity status over a long reference period of 365 days, making it the standard method to capture chronic, long-term unemployment. Option B: Current weekly status unemployment evaluates employment status over a reference period of seven days, measuring intermittent or short-term unemployment. Option C: Current daily status unemployment evaluates activity on each day of the reference week, capturing day-to-day open underemployment rather than chronic long-term unemployment. Option D: All of the above is incorrect because only the usual status measurement focuses specifically on chronic, year-round unemployment.

78. Q78Population, poverty and work

    At present with which name is Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (1999) implemented ?

    • aNational Rural Livelihood Mission
    • bJawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
    • cNational Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
    • dAajeevikaAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

79. Q79Population, poverty and work

    Which of the following in general is eligible as a borrower under National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) ?

    • aSC/ST women and non-SC/ST women
    • bWomen self-help groupsAnswer
    • cSC/ST and non-SC/ST men
    • dAny of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), the primary unit of organization and eligible borrower group for bank linkage, revolving funds, and community investment funds is the Women Self-Help Group (SHG). Option A: NRLM lends primarily to groups of women rather than individual women categorized by caste. Option C: Men are generally excluded from standard NRLM self-help group lending except in special designated groups like persons with disabilities or the elderly. Option D: Borrowing eligibility is strictly institutionalized through groups, meaning any individual borrower is not directly eligible.

80. Q80Population, poverty and work

    What is the objective of National Credit Fund for Women, launched by Government of India in the year 1993 ?

    • aEmpowering women by providing micro finance
    • bRural poverty eradication
    • cMaking women self-reliant to take part in the decision making process
    • dTo meet the asset needs of poor and assetless women in the informal sectorAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.