APPSC Group-I Prelims 2024

378 questions from the 2024 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Prehistory, the Harappan Civilisation and archaeological finds

   Consider the following statements on the late Harappan cultures : I. The late Harappan cultures are primarily Chalcolithic in which tools of stone and copper are used. II. They do not show metal objects requiring complicated casting. III. The Chalcolithic people in the later Harappan phase lived in villages. IV. In the late Harappan phase at Bhagwanpura in Haryana, burnt bricks were not found. Which of the above statements are correct ?

   • aI, II and IV
   • bI, II and IIIAnswer
   • cII, III and IV
   • dI, II, III and IV

   Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

2. Q2Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   Consider the following types of pottery : I. Black and Red Ware II. Black Slipped Ware III. Painted Grey Ware IV. Red Ware V. Northern Black Polished Ware Which of the above types of pottery were associated with the Later Vedic people ?

   • aII, III and IV only
   • bII, III and V only
   • cI, II, III and IVAnswer
   • dI, II, III, IV and V
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because the Later Vedic people were acquainted with four distinct types of pottery: Black-and-Red Ware, Black-slipped Ware, Painted Grey Ware, and Red Ware, with Painted Grey Ware being the most distinctive. Northern Black Polished Ware emerged in the subsequent second urbanisation phase (circa 6th century BCE). Option A: Excludes Black and Red Ware, which was widely produced and used during the Later Vedic period. Option B: Excludes Painted Grey Ware, which is the hallmark pottery of the Later Vedic culture, and erroneously includes Northern Black Polished Ware. Option D: Erroneously includes Northern Black Polished Ware, which belongs to the Mahajanapada or post-Vedic era rather than the Later Vedic period.

3. Q3Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   Match the following : List-I (Mahajanapada) A. Avanti B. Koshala C. Vatsa D. Anga List-II (Capital) I. Ujjain II. Shravasti III. Kaushambi IV. Champa Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : A B C D

   • aI II III IVAnswer
   • bII I IV III
   • cIV III II I
   • dIII IV I II
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because the capitals are directly paired in order: Avanti's capital was Ujjain, Koshala's capital was Shravasti, Vatsa's capital was Kaushambi, and Anga's capital was Champa. Avanti paired with Ujjain (I) Koshala paired with Shravasti (II) Vatsa paired with Kaushambi (III) Anga paired with Champa (IV) Option B: It incorrectly matches Avanti to Shravasti and Koshala to Ujjain. Option C: It reverses the sequence entirely, wrongly attributing Champa to Avanti. Option D: It assigns Kaushambi to Avanti and Champa to Koshala, which is historically incorrect.

4. Q4Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   Identify the incorrect statement on the contributions of Jainism :

   • aThe early Jainas adopted Prakrit to preach their doctrines.
   • bTheir religious literature was written in Ardhamagadhi.
   • cThe early Jainas discarded Sanskrit language.
   • dThey never used Apabhramsa for the earliest important works of Jainism.Answer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because it is an incorrect statement; Jain scholars extensively used Apabhramsa, composing early important grammatical works, poetry, and stories in it. Option A: This is a correct statement because early Jain teachers used Prakrit dialects so ordinary people could understand them. Option B: This is a correct statement because the primary canonical texts of the Svetambara tradition were compiled in Ardhamagadhi Prakrit. Option C: This is a correct statement because early Jainas discarded Sanskrit in favor of vernacular tongues for common accessibility.

5. Q5The Mauryan Empire

   Consider the following art and architectural forms : I. Rock-cut elephant at Dhauli in Orissa II. Yakshi figure from Didarganj near Patna III. Great Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh IV. 80-pillared hall at Kumrahar near Patna Which of the above art and architectural forms belong to the Mauryan period ?

   • aII, III and IV
   • bII and III only
   • cI, II, III and IVAnswer
   • dI, II and III
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because all four artistic and architectural achievements belong to the Mauryan period, representing prominent stone sculpture, monumental palace architecture, and early stupa construction. Dhauli elephant: Carved out of live rock under Ashoka in Odisha Didarganj Yakshi: Famous polished sandstone sculpture of the Mauryan era Great Stupa at Sanchi: Originally commissioned by Ashoka Kumrahar hall: Remains of the 80-pillared Mauryan wooden-and-stone palace at Pataliputra Option A: It is incorrect because it omits the rock-cut elephant at Dhauli. Option B: It is incorrect because it omits both the Dhauli elephant and the Kumrahar pillared hall. Option D: It is incorrect because it omits the Kumrahar pillared hall.

6. Q6Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   Consider the following items : I. Turban II. Trousers III. Heavy long coat IV. Helmet V. Boots Which of the items listed above were introduced by the Shakas and Kushans from Central Asia ?

   • aI, II, III and IV
   • bI, II, III and V
   • cII, III, IV and V
   • dI, II, III, IV and VAnswer

   Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

7. Q7Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   In the Satavahana's inscriptions, the terms 'Katakas' and 'Skandhavaras' mean

   • aThe tax free villages of Buddhist monks
   • bMilitary camps and settlements which served as administrative centresAnswer
   • cThe areas of rock-cut architecture
   • dThe areas of large scale paddy transplantations
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because in Satavahana epigraphy, katakas denoted permanent military camps while skandhavaras represented temporary or mobile military camps that functioned as administrative headquarters for the issuing of royal charters. Option A: Tax-free villages granted to religious beneficiaries were termed brahmadeyas or agraharas, not katakas or skandhavaras. Option C: Rock-cut architectural sites were referred to as viharas and chaityas rather than military cantonments. Option D: Agricultural lands and transplantation areas were designated by land-tenure terms such as kshetra or nivartana.

8. Q8Post-Mauryan India and the foreign invasions

   In the Sangam literature, Vellalars were :

   • aBrahmanas who functioned as poets
   • brich peasants who formed the fourth casteAnswer
   • cagricultural labourers who also worked with animal skins
   • dforest tribes who suffered from extreme poverty
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because in Sangam society, the Vellalars constituted the dominant agrarian community of affluent landowners and cultivators who held significant economic and political influence. Option A: Brahmanas who functioned as poets and priests were known as Anthanars, an intellectual group distinct from the agrarian Vellalars. Option C: Agricultural labourers were called Kadaisiyar, while workers handling leather and animal hides were known as Pulaiyans. Option D: Forest-dwelling tribes engaged in hunting and foraging included groups such as the Kuravars and Vedars, not the settled Vellalars.

9. Q9Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Consider the following statements : I. During the reign of Chandragupta-I, the Sakas were defeated. II. Samudragupta's South Indian conquest did not lead to any permanent annexation. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

   • aStatement I only
   • bStatement II onlyAnswer
   • cBoth of them
   • dNone of them
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Samudragupta adopted the policy of Grahana-Moksha-Anugraha in Dakshinapatha, where he defeated southern rulers, released them, and reinstated them as tribute-paying vassals without annexing their territories. Option A: Chandragupta I did not vanquish the Sakas; their extermination in western India was accomplished much later by Chandragupta II Vikramaditya. Option C: Statement I is factually erroneous regarding Chandragupta I. Option D: Statement II is historically valid regarding the lack of permanent annexation of South Indian territories.

10. Q10Early medieval South Indian dynasties

    Which of the following is wrongly matched with respect to Rashtrakutas ?

    • aAmoghavarsha : the first Kannada book writer
    • bDantidurga : the founder of Rashtrakuta kingdom
    • cVallabharaja : the contemporary of Al-Masudi
    • dKrishna-III : the famous rock-cut temple of Shiva at ElloraAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the famous rock-cut Kailasa temple dedicated to Shiva at Ellora was built by Krishna I, not Krishna III, making this the wrongly matched pair. Option A: Amoghavarsha I is traditionally associated with Kavirajamarga, celebrated as the earliest available literary work in Kannada. Option B: Dantidurga was the historical founder of the imperial Rashtrakuta power who overthrew Chalukya ruler Kirtivarman II. Option C: Vallabharaja was an imperial title commonly applied to Rashtrakuta kings, particularly noted by contemporary Arab travellers like Al-Masudi who visited during the tenth century.

11. Q11Early medieval South Indian dynasties

    Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Cholas :

    • aThe Chola Empire was founded by Parantaka-I.Answer
    • bParantaka-I took the title "Maduraikondavan".
    • cRajaraja-I conquered the Maldive islands.
    • dRajendra-I built Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because it makes an incorrect historical claim; the Imperial Chola dynasty was founded by Vijayalaya around 850 CE, not by his grandson Parantaka I. Option B: Parantaka-I took the title Maduraikondavan is a factually correct statement describing his capture of Madurai from the Pandyas. Option C: Rajaraja-I conquered the Maldive islands is a factually correct statement celebrated in his historical meykkirttis. Option D: Rajendra-I built Gangaikonda Cholapuram is a factually correct statement marking his military expedition to the Ganges.

12. Q12Early medieval South Indian dynasties

    Match the following : List-I (Kakatiya ruler) A. Rudradeva B. Ganapatideva C. Rudramadevi D. Prataparudradeva List-II (Event / Contribution) I. Shifting the capital from Anamakonda to Orugallu (Warangal) II. Thousand Pillar Temple was built III. Malik Kafur's expedition IV. Marco Polo's visit to Coastal Andhra Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : A B C D

    • aI II III IV
    • bII I IV IIIAnswer
    • cIV III II I
    • dIII IV I II
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the pairing correctly connects each Kakatiya monarch to their defining historical event. Rudradeva - Built the Thousand Pillar Temple at Hanumakonda Ganapatideva - Shifted the capital from Hanumakonda to Warangal Rudramadevi - Reigned during the visit of Venetian traveler Marco Polo Prataparudradeva - Defended against the Delhi Sultanate invasion led by Malik Kafur Option A: It incorrectly attributes the capital shift to Rudradeva and the Thousand Pillar Temple to Ganapatideva. Option C: It inverts the chronology by linking Rudradeva to Marco Polo and Prataparudradeva to the shift of the capital. Option D: It erroneously assigns Malik Kafur expedition to Rudradeva and Marco Polo visit to Ganapatideva.

13. Q13Early medieval South Indian dynasties

    Match the following : List-I (Pallavan Ruler) A. Sivaskandavarman B. Vishnugopa C. Narasimhavarman-I D. Nandivarman-II List-II (Political event) I. Samudragupta's invasion II. Kanchi came under the Pallavas III. Defeated by Vikramaditya-II and city of Kanchi was captured IV. Defeat of Pulakesin-II and destruction of Vatapi city Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aA-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
    • bA-II; B-I; C-IV; D-IIIAnswer
    • cA-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
    • dA-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II

    Explanation coming soon.

14. Q14The Delhi Sultanate

    Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi was built by :

    • aIltutmish
    • bQutb-ud-din AibakAnswer
    • cAla-ud-din Khalji
    • dGhiyasuddin Tughlaq
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Qutb-ud-din Aibak, the founder of the Mamluk dynasty, ordered the construction of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi around 1192 CE. Option A: Iltutmish expanded the prayer hall and courtyard of the mosque, but he did not build the original structure. Option C: Ala-ud-din Khalji constructed the Alai Darwaza and attempted to enlarge the complex, but he did not construct the mosque itself. Option D: Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq established Tughlaqabad and had no role in building this early Sultanate mosque.

15. Q15The Delhi Sultanate

    Consider the following statements on Sher Shah's land revenue administration : I. Land was classified into three categories on the basis of produce from the land. II. Land was measured according to a uniform system. III. 1/4 of the produce was collected as tax. Which of the above statements are correct ?

    • aI and IIAnswer
    • bI and III
    • cII and III
    • dI, II and III
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Sher Shah classified land into good, middling, and bad based on fertility, and measured it using a uniform standard of Sikandari gaz, whereas his tax rate was one-third, making statement III incorrect. Option B: It accepts statement III, but Sher Shah levied one-third of the produce, not one-fourth. Option C: It omits statement I, which accurately describes his three-tier soil classification, and accepts the erroneous tax rate in statement III. Option D: It treats all three statements as true, overlooking the incorrect revenue fraction stated in III.

16. Q16Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    The Persian traveller Abdur Razzaq visited Vijayanagara during the reign of:

    • aHarihara-I
    • bDevaraya-I
    • cDevaraya-IIAnswer
    • dKrishnadevaraya
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Persian scholar and diplomat Kamaluddin Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi visited Vijayanagara in 1443 during the reign of Devaraya II. Option A: Harihara I ruled in the mid-fourteenth century, long before Abdur Razzaq's diplomatic journey. Option B: Devaraya I hosted the Italian traveller Nicolo de Conti, not Abdur Razzaq. Option D: Krishnadevaraya's court was visited by Portuguese travellers such as Domingo Paes and Duarte Barbosa.

17. Q17The Mughal Empire

    Consider the following Mughal structures : I. Tomb of Salim Chishti II. Buland Darwaza III. Tomb of Humayun IV. Jami Masjid Which of the above buildings were constructed during the reign of Akbar ?

    • aII and III only
    • bII, III and IV
    • cI, II and III
    • dI, II, III and IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four structures were built during the reign of the Mughal emperor Akbar. Tomb of Humayun was commissioned in 1565 and completed in 1572 during Akbar's reign. Jami Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri was completed around 1571 to 1572 under Akbar. Tomb of Salim Chishti was constructed between 1580 and 1581 at Fatehpur Sikri by Akbar. Buland Darwaza was erected in 1601 to commemorate Akbar's victory over Gujarat. Option A: It mistakenly excludes the Tomb of Salim Chishti and the Jami Masjid of Fatehpur Sikri, both of which were built by Akbar. Option B: It mistakenly excludes the Tomb of Salim Chishti, which was erected by Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri. Option C: It mistakenly omits the Jami Masjid of Fatehpur Sikri, which was built under Akbar.

18. Q18The Mughal Empire

    Match the following : List-I (Name of the Ruler) A. Husain Ali Khan B. Murshid Quli Khan C. Chin Qilich Khan D. Safdar Jung List-II (Position of the Ruler) I. One of the Saiyid brothers II. The ruler of Bengal III. The Nizam of Hyderabad IV. The Nawab of Awadh Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : A B C D

    • aI II III IVAnswer
    • bII I IV III
    • cII I III IV
    • dIV III II I
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because all four historical figures of eighteenth-century India are correctly matched to their respective political roles and titles. Husain Ali Khan was one of the two influential Saiyid brothers who acted as kingmakers in Mughal politics. Murshid Quli Khan served as the first independent Nawab and ruler of Bengal. Chin Qilich Khan, also known as Nizam-ul-Mulk, founded the independent state of Hyderabad. Safdar Jung succeeded Saadat Khan as the second Nawab of Awadh. Option B: It incorrectly matches Husain Ali Khan to Bengal and Murshid Quli Khan to the Saiyid brothers. Option C: It wrongly assigns Murshid Quli Khan to the Saiyid brothers and Chin Qilich Khan to Bengal. Option D: It reverses the sequence entirely, misidentifying Safdar Jung as a Saiyid brother and Husain Ali Khan as the Nawab of Awadh.

19. Q19The Mughal Empire

    Identify the correct chronology of Later Mughals :

    • aBahadur Shah > Farrukh Siyar > Jahandar Shah > Muhammad Shah > Shah Alam-II
    • bBahadur Shah > Jahandar Shah > Muhammad Shah > Farrukh Siyar > Shah Alam-II
    • cBahadur Shah > Jahandar Shah > Farrukh Siyar > Muhammad Shah > Shah Alam-IIAnswer
    • dFarrukh Siyar > Jahandar Shah > Muhammad Shah > Shah Alam-II > Bahadur Shah
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because it correctly orders the reigns of the Later Mughal emperors from the death of Aurangzeb onwards. Bahadur Shah I: 1707 to 1712 Jahandar Shah: 1712 to 1713 Farrukh Siyar: 1713 to 1719 Muhammad Shah: 1719 to 1748 Shah Alam II: 1759 to 1806 Option A: Places Farrukh Siyar before Jahandar Shah, who ruled earlier. Option B: Places Muhammad Shah before Farrukh Siyar, reversing their actual order. Option D: Places Farrukh Siyar at the very beginning and Bahadur Shah at the end.

20. Q20Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Match the following: List-I (Bhakti Saints) List-II (Areas of Movement) A. Vallabhacharya I. Uttar Pradesh B. Tulsidas II. Gujarat C. Sri Chaitanya III. Bengal D. Tukaram IV. Maharashtra Codes: A B C D (1) I II III IV (2) II I IV III (3) II I III IV (4) III IV I II

    • aI II III IV
    • bII I IV III
    • cII I III IVAnswer
    • dIII IV I II
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because it correctly matches each Bhakti saint with the primary region of their movement and influence. Vallabhacharya: Gujarat and Rajasthan (Pushtimarg tradition) Tulsidas: Uttar Pradesh (Awadh and Varanasi regions) Sri Chaitanya: Bengal (Gaudiya Vaishnavism) Tukaram: Maharashtra (Varkari movement) Option A: Incorrect because it incorrectly pairs Vallabhacharya with Uttar Pradesh and Tulsidas with Gujarat. Option B: Incorrect because it wrongly places Sri Chaitanya in Maharashtra and Tukaram in Bengal. Option D: Incorrect because it completely jumbles the regional associations of all four saints.

21. Q21Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Identify the wrong matching of poets and their languages in the 18th century :

    • aTayumanavar : Tamil
    • bWarris Shah : Punjabi
    • cKunchan Nambiar : Malayalam
    • dDayaram : MarathiAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Dayaram was a prominent 18th to 19th-century poet of Gujarati literature known for his Garbi compositions, not Marathi. Option A: Tayumanavar is correctly matched as an esteemed 18th-century Tamil spiritual poet. Option B: Warris Shah is correctly matched as the famous 18th-century Punjabi Sufi poet who authored Heer Ranjha. Option C: Kunchan Nambiar is correctly matched as the notable 18th-century Malayalam satirist and poet who developed the Thullal art form.

22. Q22Shivaji and the Marathas

    In Shivaji's administration, Dabir was :

    • aAn officer responsible for intelligence, posts and household affairs
    • bThe in-charge of justice and charitable grants
    • cThe Correspondent to the king
    • dThe Master of Ceremonies and helped the king in foreign affairsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because in Shivaji's council of eight ministers known as the Ashta Pradhan, the Dabir, also termed Sumant, managed external relations and officiated as the master of royal ceremonies. Option A: Intelligence, postal affairs, and royal household administration were handled by the Waqia-Navis or Mantri. Option B: Administration of justice was headed by the Nyayadhish, while religious matters and charitable grants fell under the Panditrao. Option C: Royal correspondence, edicts, and state letters were managed by the Sachiv or Shuru-Navis.

23. Q23Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Identify the correct chronology of establishment of French settlements :

    • aSurat > Pondicherry > Yanam > Mahe > KaraikalAnswer
    • bPondicherry > Yanam > Mahe > Karaikal > Surat
    • cSurat > Pondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal > Yanam
    • dPondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal > Surat > Yanam
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the French East India Company founded its trade factories and settlements in India in this exact chronological progression starting from Surat and concluding with Karaikal. Surat factory established: 1668 Pondicherry founded: 1673 Yanam occupied: 1723 Mahe captured: 1725 Karaikal acquired: 1739 Option B: Places Pondicherry before Surat, but Surat was the first French factory in India. Option C: Places Mahe and Karaikal before Yanam, which reverses the factual chronological order. Option D: Incorrectly places Pondicherry ahead of Surat and scrambles the order of the later trading posts.

24. Q24Advent of the Europeans and the struggle for supremacy

    Consider the following events : I. Visit of Simon Commission to India II. Purna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session III. Launch of Dandi March Which of the above main events took place during the tenure of Lord Irwin ?

    • aI and II
    • bI and III
    • cII and III
    • dI, II and IIIAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all three landmark events occurred during the viceroyalty of Lord Irwin, who held office from 1926 to 1931. Simon Commission arrival in India: February 1928 Purna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session: December 1929 Dandi March launch: March 1930 Lord Irwin's viceregal tenure: April 1926 to April 1931 Option A: It omits the Dandi March, which was launched in March 1930 during Lord Irwin's administration. Option B: It omits the Lahore Congress resolution of December 1929, which fell squarely within Lord Irwin's term. Option C: It omits the visit of the Simon Commission in 1928, which was also overseen by Lord Irwin.

25. Q25British rule: administration, economy and society

    Consider the following Indian states : I. Awadh II. Jhansi III. Satara IV. Nagpur V. Sindh Which of the above states were annexed by the British due to the policy of Doctrine of Lapse ?

    • aI, II, III and V
    • bI, III and IV
    • cII, III and IVAnswer
    • dII, III, IV and V
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Lord Dalhousie annexed Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur under the Doctrine of Lapse after their rulers passed away without biological male heirs. Satara annexed under Doctrine of Lapse: 1848 Jhansi annexed under Doctrine of Lapse: 1853 Nagpur annexed under Doctrine of Lapse: 1854 Sindh annexed through conquest by Charles Napier: 1843 Awadh annexed on the pretext of misgovernance: 1856 Option A: Includes Awadh and Sindh, which were annexed due to alleged misgovernance and direct military conquest respectively. Option B: Includes Awadh, which was not annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse. Option D: Includes Sindh, which was annexed in 1843 before the Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Dalhousie.

26. Q26British rule: administration, economy and society

    Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding William Bentinck’s reforms?

    • aIntroduction of a new land revenue system in the North-Western Province
    • bAbolition of 'Sati'
    • cEradication of female infanticide
    • dEstablishment of universities for the first timeAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the establishment of the first modern universities in India took place in 1857 under Lord Canning following Charles Wood's Education Despatch of 1854, long after Bentinck had left India. Option A: Bentinck introduced this reform by enacting Regulation IX of 1833, creating a new land settlement system under Robert Merttins Bird. Option B: Bentinck outlawed Sati through Bengal Regulation XVII of 1829. Option C: Bentinck actively promoted administrative measures to eliminate female infanticide and human sacrifice.

27. Q27Socio-religious reform movements

    Consider the following statements on the contributions of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar : I. His great contribution was for the upliftment of women in India. II. He organized a powerful movement for the enactment of Widow Remarriage Act. III. To propagate his social ideas, he published Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali weekly newspaper. Which of the above statements are correct ?

    • aI and IIAnswer
    • bI and III
    • cII and III
    • dI, II and III
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar played a pioneering role in women's education and single-handedly led the crusade that resulted in the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act of 1856, while Sambad Kaumudi was not his publication. Option B: It includes statement III, which is incorrect because Sambad Kaumudi was founded and edited by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1821. Option C: It omits statement I and includes statement III, which wrongly attributes Raja Ram Mohan Roy's weekly to Vidyasagar. Option D: It erroneously accepts statement III as a contribution of Vidyasagar.

28. Q28The Indian National Movement

    Consider the following events : I. Swadeshi Movement II. Surat Split III. Lucknow Pact IV. Home Rule Movement Which of the above main events took place during the extremist phase ?

    • aI, II and III
    • bI and II only
    • cII, III and IV
    • dI, II, III and IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the extremist phase of the Indian national movement lasted from roughly 1905 to 1919, and all four listed events occurred within this timeframe. Swadeshi Movement: 1905 to 1908 Surat Split: 1907 Lucknow Pact: 1916 Home Rule Movement: 1916 to 1918 Option A: This option wrongly excludes the Home Rule Movement, which was spearheaded by extremist leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak along with Annie Besant in 1916. Option B: This option omits both the Lucknow Pact and the Home Rule Movement, which are key milestones of the extremist era. Option C: This option mistakenly excludes the Swadeshi Movement, which marked the very beginning of the extremist phase in 1905.

29. Q29The Indian National Movement

    Which of the following is wrongly matched regarding 'Praja Mandals' ?

    • aVijay Singh Pathik : Rajasthan
    • bBalwant Rai Mehta : Madhya PradeshAnswer
    • cSewa Singh Thikriwala : Punjab
    • dSarangadhar Das : Orissa
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Balwant Rai Mehta was associated with the Bhavnagar and Kathiawar states Praja Mandals in Gujarat and the All India States Peoples Conference, not with Madhya Pradesh. Option A: Vijay Singh Pathik is correctly matched with Rajasthan, where he spearheaded the Bijolia peasant agitation and Praja Mandal movements. Option C: Sewa Singh Thikriwala is correctly matched with Punjab, as he founded and led the Punjab Riyasati Praja Mandal. Option D: Sarangadhar Das is correctly matched with Orissa, having organized and led the Orissa States Praja Mandal.

30. Q30The Indian National Movement

    Consider the following Revolutionaries : I. Bhagat Singh II. Sachindra Nath Sanyal III. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee IV. Ram Prasad Bismil V. Chandra Shekhar Azad Who among the above founded 'Hindustan Republican Association' in 1924 ?

    • aI, II and III
    • bII, III and IVAnswer
    • cII, III, IV and V
    • dI, II, III and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Hindustan Republican Association was formally established in October 1924 at a meeting in Kanpur by Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, and Ram Prasad Bismil. Option A: It excludes Ram Prasad Bismil, who was a founding leader, and includes Bhagat Singh, who joined after the founding. Option C: It includes Chandra Shekhar Azad, who was recruited into the association after its initial formation rather than being one of the founding conveners. Option D: It includes Bhagat Singh, who was not among the founders at the October 1924 Kanpur convention.

31. Q31Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Who among the following is the first Indian woman to receive a Ph.D. in Science?

    • aKamala SohonieAnswer
    • bAnandibai Joshi
    • cJanaki Ammal
    • dMaharani Chakravorty
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Kamala Sohonie became the first Indian woman to earn a Ph.D. in a scientific discipline, awarded by Cambridge University in 1939 for her research on cellular enzymes. Option B: Anandibai Joshi was one of the first Indian female physicians with a medical degree, but she did not earn a Ph.D. in science. Option C: E.K. Janaki Ammal earned a D.Sc. in botany from the University of Michigan in 1931, but Kamala Sohonie is conventionally recognized in official PSC syllabi as the first Indian woman to receive a Ph.D. in science. Option D: Maharani Chakravorty was a prominent biochemist and molecular biologist who earned her Ph.D. much later, in the 1960s.

32. Q32History of science, mathematics and medicine in India

    Who among the following is the first Indian woman to get a Ph.D. in a science discipline ?

    • aKamala SohonieAnswer
    • bAnandibai Joshee
    • cJanaki Ammal
    • dMaharani Chakravorty

    Explanation coming soon.

33. Q33Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements : I. It was intended to protect Central and State laws that are included in it from judicial review on the ground of violation of Fundamental rights. II. The entries included in it are not restricted to the subject of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system alone. III. Article 31B carries a retrospective effect but it has ceased to be operative after the 'I.R. Coelho Case' (2007). IV. The entries incorporated in it are only done so, by the power of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

    • aII and IV
    • bI, II and IV
    • cII, III and IV
    • dI and IIAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements I and II are correct, while statement III is false because Article 31B remains operative under the basic structure doctrine, and statement IV is false because adding entries requires a constitutional amendment passed by Parliament. First Amendment Act 1951: added Article 31B and the Ninth Schedule to immunize specified laws from fundamental rights review I.R. Coelho Case 2007: ruled that laws inserted after April 24, 1973 are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure, but left Article 31B operative Article 368: requires a constitutional amendment enacted by Parliament to insert an entry into the Ninth Schedule, not an executive action of the Central Government Option A: omits the valid statement I and includes the incorrect statement IV. Option B: includes statement IV, which wrongly attributes the power of incorporating entries to the Central Government executive rather than Parliament via constitutional amendment. Option C: includes statement III, which erroneously claims Article 31B ceased to be operative, and statement IV, which misidentifies the amending authority.

34. Q34Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The 'Territory of India' and the 'Union of India' are two distinct and different expressions due to which of the following reason/reasons ? I. The 'Union of India' includes just States and Union Territories while the 'Territory of India' includes in addition to States and Union Territories, those territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time as well. II. The expression 'Union of India' is mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the expression 'Territory of India' is not found in the Constitution of India. III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of India is with reference to just the 'Union of India' but not the 'Territory of India'. IV. The Union Territories are covered by the expression 'Territory of India' and not by the expression 'Union of India'. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly I
    • bOnly IVAnswer
    • cI and IV
    • dI, II and III
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Union of India consists exclusively of the constituent States, meaning Union Territories are part of the wider expression Territory of India and not the Union of India. Article 1(1): Union of India comprises only the full-fledged States Article 1(3): Territory of India comprises States, Union Territories, and acquired territories Option A: Only I is incorrect because statement I wrongly asserts that the Union of India includes Union Territories. Option C: I and IV is incorrect because statement I misdefines the components of the Union of India. Option D: I, II and III is incorrect because statement II falsely claims the term Territory of India is absent from the text, and statement III falsely claims the First Schedule excludes the Territory of India.

35. Q35The Preamble

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution ? I. The term 'democratic' as used in the Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism. II. The term 'Republic' in the Preamble indicates that India has an elected head, called the Prime Minister. III. The 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble is neither absolute nor qualified. IV. The term 'Fraternity' as used by the Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the individual only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly I
    • bII and III
    • cOnly IV
    • dNoneAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because none of the four statements are valid descriptions of the terms used in the Preamble. Option A: Statement I is incorrect because democratic in the Preamble refers to popular sovereignty and political, social, and economic democracy, not American populism. Option B: Statements II and III are incorrect because republic indicates an elected head of state, the President, not the Prime Minister, and liberty under the Constitution is qualified, not absolute. Option C: Statement IV is incorrect because the original Preamble included both the dignity of the individual and the unity of the nation before integrity was added later.

36. Q36Fundamental Rights

    With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements would you accept as appropriate ideas referring to 'Equality' ? I. The primacy of equality is safeguarded, defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than by the Constitution as conceptualized by A.V. Dicey. II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India constitutes only the concept of 'Equality before the law' but does not mention the concept of 'Equal Protection of Laws'. III. Article 194 and Article 361A of the Constitution of India are indicative of the fact that equality in India is not absolute. IV. The theory of equality includes distinction of merit but not distinction on account of hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995). Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aIII and IVAnswer
    • bI and III
    • cII and III
    • dI and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements III and IV accurately identify the constitutional limitations on absolute equality through legislative privileges under Articles 194 and 361A, as well as the distinction between hereditary titles and merit-based national awards affirmed in the Balaji Raghavan case. Option B: Option B is incorrect because statement I wrongly attributes the source of equality in India to ordinary court rulings under Dicey's English model rather than to the supreme written Constitution. Option C: Option C is incorrect because statement II falsely asserts that Article 14 omits the concept of equal protection of the laws, which is explicitly guaranteed. Option D: Option D is incorrect because statement I mischaracterizes the primacy of fundamental rights in the Indian constitutional system.

37. Q37Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    With regards to Directive Principles of State Policy, what is the correct chronological order in which the following additions/changes were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments ? I. The adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38. II. The changing of the subject-matter of Article 45. III. The adding of Article 43B. IV. The adding of Article 48A. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI, III, IV, II
    • bIV, I, II, IIIAnswer
    • cIV, II, I, III
    • dI, IV, II, III
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the constitutional amendments occurred in the order of the 42nd Amendment (1976), 44th Amendment (1978), 86th Amendment (2002), and 97th Amendment (2011). IV. Article 48A was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. I. Article 38(2) was added by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. II. Subject matter of Article 45 was modified by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. III. Article 43B was inserted by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011. Option A: It incorrectly places the 44th Amendment of 1978 before the 42nd Amendment of 1976. Option C: It places the 86th Amendment of 2002 before the 44th Amendment of 1978. Option D: It places the 44th Amendment of 1978 before the 42nd Amendment of 1976.

38. Q38Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties ? I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just the citizens of India with the exception of Article 51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners that are resident in India. II. The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended the implementation of the Fundamental Duties irrespective of the existence of legal provisions. III. In 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the constitutionality of laws that are otherwise ambiguous to interpret. IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had recommended for penalties to be considered in the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the Fundamental Duties. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aIII and IV
    • bI and II
    • cOnly IVAnswer
    • dII and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended that Parliament be empowered to impose penalties or punishment for non-compliance with any of the Fundamental Duties, though this recommendation was ultimately not incorporated into the 42nd Amendment. Option A: Statement III is incorrect because the Kesavananda Bharati case was decided in 1973, three years before Fundamental Duties were introduced into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Option B: Statement I is incorrect because Fundamental Duties apply strictly to Indian citizens without exception, and Statement II is incorrect because the Verma Committee identified existing legal provisions that enforce duties rather than recommending implementation without laws. Option D: Statement II is incorrect because the Verma Committee surveyed legal provisions already enforcing certain duties rather than urging enforcement without laws.

39. Q39Amendment and the basic structure

    With reference to the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements : I. A private member of the House of the Parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the Constitution only after the prior permission of the President. II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India provides for three types of amendments - simple majority, special majority and ratification of half of the States by a simple majority. III. For amendments that require ratification of half the States by a simple majority, it is not necessary that all the State Legislatures must take action on the Bill. IV. The State Legislatures can pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368 in the same manner, as it could be done for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct ?

    • aII and IV
    • bI, III and IV
    • cI and III
    • dOnly IIIAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because once a constitutional amendment bill is ratified by the required half of the state legislatures, the constitutional condition under Article 368 is satisfied and the remaining states need not take action on it. Option A: Statement II is incorrect because Article 368 itself specifies only two types of amendment procedures, and Statement IV is incorrect because state legislatures cannot initiate amendments to Article 368. Option B: Statements I and IV are both incorrect because prior presidential recommendation is not needed to introduce an amendment bill, and state legislatures have no power to initiate constitutional amendments. Option C: Statement I is incorrect because an amendment bill can be introduced by any member of Parliament without the prior sanction of the President.

40. Q40Amendment and the basic structure

    Consider the following statements about the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution : I. The doctrine of the 'Basic Structure' has been incorporated into the Constitution of India by an Act of Parliament. II. Presently, the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution. III. Parliament's limited power to amend the Constitution is also an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution. IV. The Supreme Court in the 'Kumar Padma Prasad Case' (1992) has declared that the mandate to build a 'welfare state' is an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

    • aI, II and III
    • bII, III and IV
    • cII and IIIAnswer
    • dII and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements II and III accurately describe the doctrine, while statements I and IV are factually incorrect. Option A: Statement I is incorrect because the basic structure doctrine is a judicial creation by the Supreme Court and was never enacted by Parliament. Option B: Statement IV is incorrect because the welfare state mandate was recognized as an essential element in Kesavananda Bharati, not the Kumar Padma Prasad case. Option D: Statement II is correct, but the pairing includes false statement IV while omitting correct statement III.