APPSC Group-I Prelims 2024

378 questions from the 2024 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41The Union executive

    In connection with the veto power of the Indian President, which one of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The Indian President possesses 'Suspensive Veto' in the case of Money Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills. II. The Indian President can exercise 'Absolute Veto' with respect to the Government Bills at all times. III. The Indian President enjoys 'Pocket Veto' indefinitely whereas the American President possesses 'Qualified Veto'. IV. The objective of the veto power in being conferred upon the Indian President is to ensure a system of checks and balances between the office of the President and that of the power of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly IIIAnswer
    • bI, II and IV
    • cIII and IV
    • dOnly II

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

42. Q42Parliament and the state legislatures

    The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha can be described by which of the following statement/statements ? I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills. II. Consideration of the CAG's report. III. Initiating the removal of the Vice-President. IV. Approval of proclamation of all the three types of emergencies by the President. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI, III and IV
    • bII and IVAnswer
    • cAll
    • dOnly II
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because both houses of Parliament enjoy equal powers regarding the consideration of reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General and the approval of all three types of emergency proclamations. Option A: It incorrectly includes statement I, where the Lok Sabha has superior powers over Money Bills, and statement III, which is an exclusive power of the Rajya Sabha rather than an equal power. Option C: It treats all statements as equal powers, overlooking that Money Bills and the initiation of the Vice-President removal are unequal powers. Option D: It omits statement IV, which is also an area where both houses possess identical constitutional authority.

43. Q43Parliament and the state legislatures

    Part B – Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International Relations Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the office of the ‘Whip’? I. Although not mentioned in the Constitution of India, the office of the ‘Whip’ has however been incorporated in the Rules of the House by the Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognized Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998. II. The role of the Chief Whip of the government party in the Lok Sabha is served by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs. III. All political parties – whether ruling or opposition, will have their own Whip in the Parliament. IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the leader of the House but is responsible only to the leader of the party that has appointed him/her to the office of Chief Whip. Select the correct answer:

    • aI and IV
    • bOnly IIIAnswer
    • cII and III
    • dII and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because every political party, whether ruling or in opposition, appoints its own whip in Parliament to issue directives and manage member attendance. Statement I: The office of whip is based on convention and is not mentioned in the Constitution or the Rules of the House. Statement II: The Cabinet Minister for Parliamentary Affairs acts as the Chief Whip of the Government, assisted by Ministers of State. Statement III: Every political party has its own whip in Parliament. Statement IV: The government Chief Whip directly assists and reports to the Leader of the House. Option A: Statements I and IV are both incorrect regarding the statutory source of the office and the reporting responsibility of the government whip. Option C: Statement II is incorrect because the Cabinet Minister, not the Minister of State, acts as the Chief Whip. Option D: Statements II and IV both carry factual inaccuracies regarding ministerial hierarchy and operational accountability.

44. Q44Parliament and the state legislatures

    In the context of distinctions existing between a Public Bill and a Private Bill, select the statement/statements that is/are valid : I. A Private Bill which has been introduced by a Member of Parliament sitting in the opposition and which has been approved by the House will have to be referred to the law department for consultation. II. A Public Bill is always introduced in the Parliament by the Minister or a member of the government party. III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy of the government but upon its approval by the House, a Private Bill would have reflected the policy of the government. IV. Public Bills and Private Bills, regardless of the differences between them, are governed by the same general procedure, and are required to be passed through the same stages in the House. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aII and III
    • bI, III and IV
    • cOnly I
    • dOnly IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because both Public Bills and Private Bills are governed by the same general parliamentary procedure and must pass through the identical three reading stages in the House. Option A: Statement II is incorrect because a Public Bill can only be introduced by a Minister, not by any ordinary member of the ruling party. Option B: Statement I is incorrect because there is no requirement to refer an approved private bill to the law department, and statement III is incorrect because private bills reflect individual member views rather than government policy. Option C: Statement I is factually incorrect whereas statement IV is valid.

45. Q45Parliament and the state legislatures

    In the context of the enactment of Budget, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The Appropriation Bill carries an automatic repeal clause. II. The provision 'Vote on Account' has become ineffectual after the re-scheduling of the budget cycle from the last day of February to the first day of February. III. Amendments to either reject or reduce a tax can not be moved in case of the Finance Bill. IV. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can only be discussed. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI and IVAnswer
    • bI and III
    • cOnly II
    • dOnly IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Appropriation Act contains an automatic repeal clause rendering it spent once the financial year ends, and under Article 113(1), expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote of Parliament and can only be discussed. Option B: Statement III is false because amendments to reject or reduce a tax can be moved; only amendments to increase or impose a tax require the President's recommendation. Option C: Statement II is incorrect as Vote on Account can still be used when needed, for example during election years or exceptional circumstances. Option D: It overlooks statement I, which is also a valid statement regarding Appropriation Acts.

46. Q46Parliament and the state legislatures

    In connection with the lapsing of Bills, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. If the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but if the Bill has still not been discussed in the Rajya Sabha, then such a Bill does not lapse. II. A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration of the Houses will not lapse. However, the Lok Sabha should not have been dissolved by the time the Bill is returned. III. A Bill that is passed by both the Houses but pending for President's assent will not lapse. IV. A Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha but which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha will also lapse. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly IIIAnswer
    • bI, III and IV
    • cII and IV
    • dNone
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because a bill passed by both Houses but pending the President's assent does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Option B: Statement I is incorrect because a bill passed by Lok Sabha and pending in Rajya Sabha lapses upon dissolution of Lok Sabha; statement IV is incorrect because a bill pending only in Rajya Sabha and not passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse. Option C: Statement II is incorrect because even if Lok Sabha is dissolved, a bill returned by the President for reconsideration remains alive for the newly constituted Lok Sabha; statement IV is incorrect because such bills do not lapse. Option D: It is incorrect because statement III is completely valid under the constitutional rules governing the lapsing of bills.

47. Q47Parliament and the state legislatures

    Which of the following statement is correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges ?

    • aParliamentary Privileges are the privileges that are enjoyed collectively by each House of the Parliament, and not by the Members individually.
    • bOnly Members can be punished for contempt by reprimand and admonition but not outsiders.
    • cThe phrase 'Breach of Privilege' has wider implications than the 'Contempt of the House'.
    • dThe Members cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament but this privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because parliamentary immunity from arrest applies strictly to civil cases and does not extend to criminal proceedings, preventive detention, or contempt of court. Civil cases allow immunity forty days before, during, and forty days after a parliamentary session Criminal offences and preventive detention allow no immunity from arrest Option A: Privileges are enjoyed both collectively by each House and individually by each member. Option B: Both members and non-members or outsiders can be punished by the House for contempt. Option C: Contempt of the House is a broader concept that includes any act obstructing the House, whereas breach of privilege refers specifically to violation of defined privileges.

48. Q48The judiciary

    Consider the following statements : I. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first provision was declared as invalid by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973). II. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) considered the extension of the scope of the second provision of Article 31C as invalid as well. III. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) has considered the importance of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. IV. The present interpretation with respect to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the same reiteration of the principle that was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Champakan Dorairajan case (1951). Which of the statement/statements given above is/are incorrect ?

    • aIII and IV
    • bII, III and IV
    • cI, II and IVAnswer
    • dOnly III
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements I, II, and IV are incorrect while statement III is correct, making I, II, and IV the right combination of incorrect statements. Kesavananda Bharati (1973) upheld the first provision of Article 31C and struck down only the second provision that barred judicial review. Minerva Mills (1980) invalidated the 42nd Amendment's extension of Article 31C to all Directive Principles, not the second provision. Champakam Dorairajan (1951) held that Directive Principles must strictly conform to Fundamental Rights, whereas the modern position balances them as two wheels of a chariot. Option A: It claims statement III is incorrect, but Minerva Mills firmly established the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as basic structure. Option B: It mistakenly includes statement III as incorrect, whereas statement III accurately describes the Minerva Mills ruling. Option D: It identifies only statement III as incorrect, ignoring the clear legal inaccuracies present in statements I, II, and IV.

49. Q49The state government

    Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have to be mandatorily reserved for the President's consideration? I. A Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy. II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction but which was however not. obtained under Article 304. III. A Bill that attracts the provisions of Article 288. IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision that belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries, but which is however repugnant to any Union law. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    • aI and IV
    • bI, II and IV
    • cOnly IIIAnswer
    • dI and III
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 288(2) explicitly mandates that any state law imposing a tax in respect of water or electricity stored, generated, consumed, distributed or sold by an authority established by Union law requires reservation for the consideration of the President and assent. Article 288(2): Mandatorily requires reservation of such tax bills for the consideration and assent of the President. Article 200: Gives discretionary power to the Governor to reserve bills, but mandates reservation only where the High Court's constitutional powers are endangered. Article 254(2): Reservation for repugnancy with a Central law on Concurrent List is optional to secure validity, not structurally mandatory for bill passage. Option A: Statement I refers to bills under Article 31C which can be reserved to seek protection, but reservation is not mandatory; Statement IV under Article 254(2) is optional to override Union law, not mandatory for enactment. Option B: Statements I, II, and IV do not describe bills that carry a mandatory requirement of reservation under the Constitution. Option D: Statement I does not involve mandatory reservation under the Constitution.

50. Q50Federalism and centre-state relations

    Consider the following statements in connection with the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States : I. The proceeds of the surcharges that are levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of India, would be shared between the Centre and the States. II. Article 268A and Article 272 of the Constitution of India were both repealed by same Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied by the Centre but collected by the States. IV. The net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

    • aII and IV
    • bOnly IVAnswer
    • cOnly III
    • dI and III
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 269(1) of the Indian Constitution, the net proceeds of taxes levied and collected by the Union on inter-State sales and commerce are assigned to the States and expressly do not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India, making statement IV the only valid statement. Option A: Statement II is invalid because Article 272 was omitted by the 80th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000, whereas Article 268A was omitted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. Option C: Statement III is invalid because sale of petroleum crude is governed by Entry 54 of List II (State List), meaning it is both levied and collected by the States. Option D: Statement I is invalid because surcharges levied under Article 271 are retained solely by the Union and are not shared with the States, and Statement III is invalid because sales tax on petroleum crude is levied by the States.

51. Q51Federalism and centre-state relations

    In connection with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The GST Council was established as a Statutory body, but it was later turned into a Constitutional federal body by an amendment of the Constitution. II. The proceedings of the GST Council will be invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council. III. In the event of any dispute between more than two states over GST issues, the GST Council has to refer the matter to be adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. IV. The GST Council is required to make recommendations to the Centre and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aII and III
    • bI and IV
    • cOnly IVAnswer
    • dOnly II
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because under Article 279A(4)(c), the GST Council is specifically tasked with making recommendations regarding the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST, making statement IV the only valid statement. Option A: Statement II is invalid because Article 279A(5) clearly states that Council proceedings are not invalidated by defects in appointment, and statement III is invalid because disputes are addressed through an internal mechanism devised by the Council, not the Public Accounts Committee. Option B: Statement I is invalid because the GST Council was established directly as a constitutional body under Article 279A by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, never having been a statutory body. Option D: Statement II is invalid because defects in the appointment of a member do not invalidate the proceedings of the GST Council.

52. Q52Federalism and centre-state relations

    In the context of Centre - State Relations, which of the following statement/statements are valid ? I. Punchhi Commission had recommended that the procedure that is followed for the removal of President should also be applicable for the impeachment of Governors as well. II. The law that is made by the Parliament with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to the State in which President's rule is imposed, cannot be re-enacted by the State Legislature after the President's rule is ended. III. The Sarkaria Commission was not the first to recommend the establishment of an Inter-State Council. IV. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a resolution declaring that it is necessary in the national interest that the Parliament should make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly IIIAnswer
    • bI and III
    • cII, III and IV
    • dI, III and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statement I correctly reflects the Punchhi Commission recommendation for Governor impeachment, and statement III is true as the First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) recommended an Inter-State Council long before the Sarkaria Commission. Article 249: Requires a resolution of the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha, to legislate on State List or GST matters in the national interest. Article 357(2): Allows laws enacted during President's rule to remain in force until altered, repealed, or re-enacted by the State Legislature. Option A: Omits statement I, which is a verified recommendation of the Punchhi Commission. Option C: Incorrectly includes statements II and IV, both of which misstate constitutional provisions under Articles 357(2) and 249. Option D: Incorrectly includes statement IV, attributing the resolution power under Article 249 to the Lok Sabha instead of the Rajya Sabha.

53. Q53Local government and decentralisation

    Which of the following source/sources of revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the Panchayats ? I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to the States from the Centre may be again re-distributed to the Panchayats, as recommended by the Central Finance Commission. II. Loans from the State Government. III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the State Government is empowered to devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in the absence of the State Finance Commission's recommendations. IV. Internal Resource Generation is facilitated only in the case of Panchayats situated in Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI, II and III
    • bII and IV
    • cOnly IIAnswer
    • dNone
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because State Governments provide loans and advances to Panchayats under state enactments and fiscal rules, making statement II the only valid source among the choices. Option A: Includes statement I, which is incorrect because the Central Finance Commission recommends grants-in-aid to supplement state consolidated funds rather than re-distributing assigned state taxes, and statement III, which misrepresents Article 243-I. Option B: Includes statement IV, which is incorrect because internal resource generation applies to all Panchayats across India, not solely those in Fifth Schedule areas. Option D: Incorrectly claims none of the statements is valid, whereas statement II is a recognized mode of state financing to local bodies.

54. Q54Local government and decentralisation

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : In connection with their own resource collection, the Panchayats at the village level are better placed than the Panchayats at the Intermediate and the District levels. Reason (R) : The Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to depend only on tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for internal resource generation. Code :

    • aBoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).Answer
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • d(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Gram Panchayats have exclusive statutory powers to levy specific direct taxes such as property or house tax and profession tax, whereas Intermediate and District Panchayats possess virtually no direct tax domain and rely primarily on fees, tolls, and transfers, directly validating the assertion. Option B: Incorrectly asserts that the reason does not explain the assertion, when the difference in tax domain directly accounts for the disparity in own-resource generation. Option C: Incorrectly claims the reason is false, whereas Intermediate and District Panchayats indeed lack an independent tax base in almost all states. Option D: Incorrectly claims the assertion is false, whereas village panchayats consistently generate more own-source revenue than the upper two tiers.

55. Q55Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India : I. The Constitution of India has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government. II. In 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023), the Supreme Court has directed the Government to treat the the Regional Commissioners on par with the Election Commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner), as far as removal from office is concerned. III. Since its inception, the Election Commission had functioned as a multi-member body. IV. The power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of Vice-President of India is vested in the Election Commission. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid?

    • aII and III
    • bOnly IVAnswer
    • cOnly II
    • dI, II and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statement IV is the only valid statement; Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. Option A: Statement II is incorrect as the Supreme Court did not equalize removal procedures for Regional Commissioners in Anoop Baranwal, and statement III is incorrect because the Commission operated as a single-member body from 1950 to 1989. Option C: Statement II is incorrect because Regional Commissioners are removed on the recommendation of the CEC under Article 324(5), and the Anoop Baranwal ruling focused primarily on the appointment mechanism of CEC and ECs. Option D: Statement I is incorrect because the Constitution does not debar retiring Election Commissioners from further government appointments, making this combination incorrect.

56. Q56Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Consider the following statements in connection with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) : I. CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution but this does not mean that the CAG can be impeached from office in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court. II. Some public corporations are audited exclusively by private professional auditors, and the CAG may have no involvement at all. III. The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory and propriety audit but not performance audit. IV. The Constitution of India has not specified any criterion for the appointment of CAG. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

    • aI and III
    • bOnly IV
    • cII and III
    • dII and IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements II and IV accurately describe the constitutional and statutory framework of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Option A: Statement I is incorrect because the CAG is removed in the manner and on the grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, and statement III is incorrect because the CAG does conduct performance audits. Option B: Statement II is also valid alongside statement IV, making only IV an incomplete choice. Option C: Statement III is incorrect because performance audit (efficiency, economy, and effectiveness audit) is very much within the purview of the CAG.

57. Q57Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct in relation to the Human Rights Commissions in India ? I. The role to undertake functions relating to human rights in the Union Territory of Ladakh may be conferred upon a State Human Rights Commission by the Central Government. II. Only 2 persons can be appointed as members of the National Human Rights Commission under the category of possessing knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights. III. The President can remove the Chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviour. However, the President has to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in this matter. IV. The National Human Rights Commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of two years from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aNoneAnswer
    • bIII and IV
    • cOnly IV
    • dI, II and III
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because none of the four statements is correct under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Statement I: Ladakh human rights matters are directly handled by the National Human Rights Commission Statement II: The 2019 amendment raised the number of experienced members to 3, including at least one woman Statement III: Removal under Section 23 requires a formal Supreme Court inquiry and report, not mere advice or opinion Statement IV: Section 36(2) sets a limitation period of 1 year, not 2 years Option B: Option B is incorrect because both statements III and IV misstate statutory provisions of the Act. Option C: Option C is incorrect because statement IV incorrectly doubles the statutory time bar from one year to two years. Option D: Option D is incorrect because statements I, II, and III all contain clear factual and legal errors.

58. Q58Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Law Commission of India ? I. It is a non-constitutional quasi judicial body. II. One of its functions is to communicate its opinion to the President on subjects relating to legal administration. III. Its reports are not submitted to the Parliament. IV. It has no suo motu decision power to undertake research by itself. Select the answer using the codes given below :

    • aII and III
    • bOnly III
    • cAllAnswer
    • dI, II and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because all four given statements are factually incorrect regarding the Law Commission of India. Option A: II and III omits statements I and IV, both of which are also incorrect because the commission is an advisory executive body rather than quasi-judicial, and it possesses suo motu research powers. Option B: Only III overlooks the factual errors present in statements I, II, and IV. Option D: I, II and IV omits statement III, which is incorrect because the central government routinely places Law Commission reports before Parliament.

59. Q59Parties, elections and representation

    Which of the following statement/statements can be attributed correctly to the exercise of Delimitation ? I. The principle of 'one man, one vote' reiterates the need for the exercise of Delimitation. II. The Government of India can set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in a select few States or UTs. III. The Delimitation Commission can only recommend the re-delimitation of territorial Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies but cannot recommend on the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of India is the Ministry of Law and Justice. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI, II and IVAnswer
    • bII and III
    • cOnly IV
    • dI, III and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements I, II, and IV are accurate descriptions of the purpose, operational scope, and administrative oversight of delimitation in India, whereas statement III is incorrect. Option B: It omits statements I and IV, both of which are legally and constitutionally correct, and includes statement III which is false. Option C: It incorrectly identifies statement IV as the only true statement, ignoring valid statements I and II. Option D: It mistakenly includes statement III, which is false because the Delimitation Commission is explicitly empowered to determine and allocate reserved seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes based on population proportions.

60. Q60India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following statement/statements can best describe the nature of security concerns/developments for India ? I. The development of the Hambantota Development Zone can be seen or viewed as a policy of containment funded by Pakistan. II. India's support in building the Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a strategic act to balance the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in Yemen. III. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an extension of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) and serves as a platform for maritime security. IV. The Malabar Exercise is connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD). Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    • aOnly IVAnswer
    • bII and III
    • cNone
    • dAll
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statement IV accurately reflects that the Malabar naval exercise is conducted among the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue partners (India, the US, Japan, and Australia), while the other statements contain fundamental factual errors. Option B: incorrectly accepts statement II, which places Gwadar in Yemen instead of Pakistan, and statement III, which misidentifies IORA as an extension of ESCAP. Option C: ignores the fact that statement IV correctly describes the Malabar Exercise. Option D: includes statements I, II, and III, which misidentify Hambantota funding, Gwadar location, and IORA origins respectively.

61. Q61India's foreign policy and international relations

    Consider the following statements with regard to India's Foreign Policy: I. India's Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative but had later extended extended into political, strategic and cultural dimensions. II. The 'Connect Central Asia Policy' has been taken forward with the institutionalization of the 'India-Central Asia Summit' mechanism. III. Under the 'Security and Growth for All in the Region' (SAGAR) Policy, the DRDO initiated the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of establishing long-term collaboration with countries in the East Asian region. IV. India's Think West Policy is an outreach to the Western Industrialized nations for strengthening of relations in areas of education and defence. Which of the above statements are valid?

    • aI and IIAnswer
    • bI, III and IV
    • cII and III
    • dIII and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements I and II accurately capture the evolution of the Act East Policy from an economic focus to a multifaceted strategy and the institutionalization of the India-Central Asia Summit, whereas statements III and IV contain conceptual and factual errors. Option B: It incorrectly includes statement III, which misattributes MAITRI to DRDO, and statement IV, which incorrectly defines the Think West Policy as an outreach to Western industrialized nations instead of the Middle East and Gulf region. Option C: It incorrectly includes statement III, which is factually erroneous. Option D: It incorrectly relies entirely on statements III and IV, both of which are false.

62. Q62India's foreign policy and international relations

    In the context of Central Government programmes, which one of following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? I. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing poverty of the ST communities by generating additional employment opportunities. II. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary, the State Government and the Central Government. III. Under the 'FutureSkills Prime' Programme, Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the key implementing agency. IV. Mission Karmayogi comprises of eight key pillars that are intended to create functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants. Select the answer using the codes given below:

    • aI and IV
    • bI, II and III
    • cAllAnswer
    • dOnly II
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because every single statement provided is factually incorrect. PM-AJAY focuses on Scheduled Castes (SC) rather than ST communities. PM-SYM contributions are shared equally at 50:50 between the subscriber and the Central Government only, with no State Government share. FutureSkills Prime is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and NASSCOM, not C-DAC. Mission Karmayogi is structured around six key pillars, not eight. Option A: It excludes statements II and III, which are also incorrect. Option B: It omits statement IV, which is also incorrect. Option D: It assumes statements I, III, and IV are correct, which is false.

63. Q63STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    In which year was the Centre for Good Governance (CGG) established by the Government of Andhra Pradesh (GoAP)?

    • a2005
    • b2003
    • c2001Answer
    • d2007
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Centre for Good Governance was established in October 2001 by the Government of Andhra Pradesh to guide governance reforms and public management. Centre for Good Governance establishment date: October 2001. Option A: Option A is wrong because CGG was founded four years before 2005. Option B: Option B is wrong because the institute was established two years prior to 2003. Option D: Option D is wrong because CGG had already been functional since 2001.

64. Q64STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Economic Development Board of Andhra Pradesh was established under the Andhra Pradesh Economic Development Board Act ......

    • a2017
    • b2018Answer
    • c2019
    • d2020
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Economic Development Board of Andhra Pradesh was given statutory backing through the Andhra Pradesh Economic Development Board Act, 2018. Andhra Pradesh Economic Development Board Act was enacted in 2018. Option A: Option A is wrong because the statutory Act was not enacted in 2017. Option C: Option C is wrong because the statutory Act was already passed in 2018. Option D: Option D is wrong because 2020 is two years after the enactment of the law.

65. Q65STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    In which of the following years the Andhra Pradesh Innovation Society (APIS) was set up?

    • a2016
    • b2015
    • c2014
    • d2018Answer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

66. Q66STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    The initiative Mission Investigation@75 days, which mandates investigation officer to complete investigation of cases within 75 days of FIR registration is launched by which State Government ?

    • aGujarat
    • bOdisha
    • cBiharAnswer
    • dUttar Pradesh
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Bihar State Police launched the Mission Investigation@75 days initiative, which strictly mandates investigating officers to conclude criminal investigations and submit final reports or chargesheets within 75 days of registering an FIR. Effective implementation date: January 1, 2024 Governing authority: Bihar Police Headquarters Statutory focus: Timely investigation of criminal cases Option A: Incorrect because Gujarat has not instituted this specific 75-day policing campaign. Option B: Incorrect because Odisha Police operates under separate citizen-centric models such as Mo Sarkar. Option D: Incorrect because Uttar Pradesh relies on its own distinct crime control operations such as Operation Trinetra and Mission Shakti.

67. Q67STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    Which of the following statements are valid regarding the interventions of the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the context of Healthcare ? I. Telemedicine facility is available in all Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) to avail specialist services through district hub. II. The Family Doctor Programme has been planned to be implemented as a standalone project without the need to be integrated with Primary Health Centres (PHCs). III. Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme has been revamped, by increasing the income limit from ₹ 2.5 lakh to ₹ 5 lakh per annum per family. IV. 'Aarogya Aasara' Scheme is intended to provide post-operative sustenance allowance with certain eligible conditions complied with. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI and IV
    • bII, III and IV
    • cIII and IV
    • dI, III and IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements I, III, and IV are accurate interventions of the state government, while statement II is incorrect because the Family Doctor Programme is directly anchored around and integrated with Primary Health Centres. Option A: Omits statements III and IV, which are both valid government health interventions. Option B: Includes statement II, which is false because the Family Doctor concept relies completely on PHC medical officers visiting village health clinics rather than running as a standalone project. Option C: Omits statement I, which correctly describes the e-Sanjeevani telemedicine linkage across Health and Wellness Centres.

68. Q68What an economy is measured by

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): National Product measures all goods and services created out of economic activity, whereas National Income is the sum of all incomes resulting from economic activity. Reason (R): Production of goods and services is the outcome of capital and labour along with raw materials, and this automatically generates income. Codes: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

    • aBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).Answer
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • d(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the production of goods and services inevitably involves factor inputs like labour and capital, which generates factor payments, making National Income identical in value to National Product. Option B: Reason directly accounts for why the aggregate value of production equals aggregate income earned in an economy. Option C: Reason is a correct and fundamental principle of the circular flow of income. Option D: Assertion is an accurate definition distinguishing product flow from factor income flow.

69. Q69What an economy is measured by

    Which of the following statements are valid regarding Human Development? I. Two countries with the same level of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, but ending with different human development outcomes is indicative of the importance of growth over development. II. A country's score on the Inequality-Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is not the same as its Human Development Index (HDI) even when there is no inequality among people. III. In Gender Development Index (GDI), values below 1 indicate higher development for women than men. IV. Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) focuses on intergenerational inequality just the same way, as the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) focuses on intragenerational inequality. V. According to the Human Development Report 2021 - 22, a new uncertainty complex is emerging, which comprises of three new concerns — planetary changes, sweeping social transformations and polarized societies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aIV and VAnswer
    • bI, III and V
    • cII and III
    • dI, II and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements IV and V are valid: the Planetary Pressures-adjusted index tackles intergenerational environmental burdens while the IHDI addresses intragenerational distribution, and the 2021-22 report defined the new uncertainty complex around planetary disruptions, societal changes, and political polarization. Option B: Incorrect because statement I wrongly asserts that differing outcomes prioritize growth over development, and statement III is false because a GDI below 1 signifies female human development is lower than male. Option C: Incorrect because statement II is false since the IHDI equals the HDI when inequality is absent, and statement III reverses the GDI definition. Option D: Incorrect because statements I and II are both conceptually incorrect.

70. Q70Economic data, indices and state rankings

    What was the rank of Andhra Pradesh in the Ease of Doing Business Report?

    • a1stAnswer
    • b8th
    • c14th
    • d16th
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Andhra Pradesh achieved the 1st rank in India in the Business Reform Action Plan (Ease of Doing Business) rankings conducted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). Option B: 8th was not the position secured by Andhra Pradesh, which consistently led the national implementation scores. Option C: 14th rank significantly understates the state's performance in regulatory and business reforms. Option D: 16th rank represents lower-performing states rather than the frontrunner.

71. Q71Planning, reform and the shape of policy

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) ? I. NIP includes only economic infrastructure projects but not social infrastructure projects. II. NIP is aimed to focus on key greenfield projects alone. Brownfield projects are excluded from the NIP's coverage. III. NIP aims to offer investment opportunities in India's infrastructure sector, and to attract investments into India. IV. India Investment Grid (IIG) as a platform has ceased to facilitate the NIP and instead 'Invest India' is presently facilitating NIP. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI, II and III
    • bOnly IIIAnswer
    • cIII and IV
    • dI, II and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the primary goal of the National Infrastructure Pipeline is to attract domestic and foreign investments into Indian infrastructure, making statement III the only correct statement among the given options. Option A: Statement I is incorrect because NIP encompasses both economic and social infrastructure such as health and education, and statement II is incorrect because NIP covers both greenfield and brownfield projects. Option C: Statement IV is incorrect because the India Investment Grid continues to host and facilitate the NIP project database. Option D: Statements I, II, and IV are all factually incorrect.

72. Q72Population, poverty and work

    In the context of India's fight against poverty, consider the following statements : I. Unlike the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by NITI Aayog does not make use of 'Alkire-Foster' (AF) methodology. II. The urban population witnessed a larger decline in poverty as compared to the rural population. III. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) includes the coverage of food grain entitlements. IV. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is computed by adding the incidence of multidimensional poverty and the intensity of poverty. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

    • aI and IV
    • bOnly IIIAnswer
    • cI and III
    • dNone are valid
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because only statement III is valid, as the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package provided free food grains to beneficiaries under the PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana. Option A: Statement I is incorrect because the National MPI utilizes the Alkire-Foster methodology, and statement IV is incorrect because MPI is computed by multiplying incidence and intensity, not by adding them. Option C: Statement I is false because NITI Aayog adopts the Alkire-Foster framework for computing multidimensional poverty. Option D: Statement III is completely valid, which invalidates the claim that none are valid.

73. Q73Population, poverty and work

    In connection with the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF), which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The fund will be established through reserved bonds taken from the G-Sec market. II. The fund is to be exclusively availed by private agencies to create urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities. III. Eligible activities for UIDF shall be connected to the Missions and Programmes of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA). IV. The fund will be collectively managed by a cluster of Municipal Cooperative Banks. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly IIIAnswer
    • bI, II and IV
    • cII, III and IV
    • dII and III
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statement III accurately states that eligible projects under UIDF align with the focus areas of MoHUA schemes, whereas statements I, II, and IV contain factual errors. Key facts about UIDF: Established using priority sector lending shortfalls, not G-Sec reserved bonds Utilised by public agencies and urban local bodies, not exclusively private agencies Managed by the National Housing Bank (NHB), not Municipal Cooperative Banks Focuses on Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities Option B: It includes statements I, II, and IV, all of which are incorrect. Option C: It includes statements II and IV, both of which are incorrect. Option D: It includes statement II, which incorrectly restricts the fund exclusively to private agencies.

74. Q74Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : Majority of the reported transactions on e-NAM are intra-mandi instead of inter-mandi and inter-state. Reason (R) : The Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017 provides for progressive agricultural marketing reforms that include greater focus on intra-mandi transactions. Code :

    • aBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.Answer
    • d(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Assertion (A) accurately highlights that the bulk of transactions on e-NAM remain confined to intra-mandi trades, while Reason (R) is false because the model APLM Act, 2017 aims to promote seamless inter-mandi and inter-state trade rather than focusing on intra-mandi transactions. Option A: Incorrect because statement R makes an erroneous claim about the objectives of the APLM Act, 2017. Option B: Incorrect because statement R is factually false. Option D: Incorrect because statement A is correct and statement R is false.

75. Q75Industry in the Indian economy

    The strategic objective of Asset Monetization Programme may be explained as :

    • aAn initiative to unlock the value of investments in private sector assets by utilizing public sector capital.
    • bInvolving an indefinite period license/lease of an asset, owned by the government or a public authority, to a private sector entity.
    • cFacilitating an opportunity for public asset owners to use new financial structures by utilizing capital from private sector investors.Answer
    • dOffering an alternative mechanism to the PPP model.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the National Asset Monetisation Programme aims to monetize brownfield public sector infrastructure assets by leveraging institutional and long-term private capital through structures such as Infrastructure Investment Trusts and long-term concessions. Option A: The programme aims to unlock value in public sector assets using private capital, not the reverse. Option B: The monetisation models operate through predefined, fixed-tenure leases or concession agreements rather than indefinite periods. Option D: Asset monetisation relies directly on public-private partnership models rather than serving as an alternative to them.

76. Q76Industry in the Indian economy

    Which of the following feature/features is/are correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme ? I. This scheme covers brownfield enterprises along with greenfield enterprises. II. Non-Individual enterprises are also eligible to avail the benefit of this scheme provided certain conditions are complied with. III. For drawal of Working Capital up to ₹ 10 lakh, the same may be sanctioned by way of Cash Credit Limit. IV. Besides Primary Security, the loan may be secured by a guarantee of Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand-Up India Loans (CGFSIL) as decided by the banks. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aII and IVAnswer
    • bI and III
    • cI, II and III
    • dOnly IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements II and IV accurately reflect the Stand-Up India guidelines: non-individual enterprises are eligible if at least 51 percent shareholding and controlling stake is held by SC/ST or woman entrepreneurs, and loans can be secured by collateral or CGFSIL guarantees. Option B: Statement I is incorrect because the scheme explicitly mandates greenfield projects only, and statement III is incorrect because working capital up to 10 lakh is sanctioned via overdraft, not cash credit. Option C: Statement I is incorrect because brownfield projects are strictly ineligible under Stand-Up India. Option D: Statement II is also a valid and correct feature of the scheme, so identifying only statement IV is incomplete.

77. Q77Industry in the Indian economy

    With regard to the Startup Ecosystem in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) Centre will not be presiding over the selection process of the applications that are received under Startup Agri-Business Incubation Programme. II. Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth (MAARG) Portal is an exclusive one-stop platform intended for guiding startups in the emerging Aritificial Intelligence (AI) sector only. III. Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) aims to provide financial assistance to startups for conducting 'proof of concept' trials. IV. Fund of Funds Scheme (FFS) for Startups is meant to contribute to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with the SEBI. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI and II
    • bII, III and IV
    • cIII and IVAnswer
    • dOnly I
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements III and IV are valid descriptions of the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme and the Fund of Funds for Startups respectively. Statement I is invalid because MANAGE acts as a Knowledge Partner and directly presides over the evaluation and selection of applications. Statement II is invalid because the MAARG portal is sector-agnostic and provides mentorship across all sectors, not just Artificial Intelligence. Option A: Statement I is invalid because MANAGE leads the selection process, and Statement II is invalid because MAARG is not exclusive to Artificial Intelligence. Option B: Statement II is invalid because MAARG is cross-sectoral rather than confined to Artificial Intelligence. Option D: Statement I is invalid because MANAGE actively evaluates applications under the incubation programme.

78. Q78Industry in the Indian economy

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): Coal washing reveals an increase in generation efficiency and reduced investment costs. Reason (R): Limited establishment of coal washeries may be attributed to perception that coal washing increases cost of electricity generation. Codes: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) (3) (A) is false, but (R) is true (4) (A) is true, but (R) is false

    • aBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).Answer
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • d(A) is false, but (R) is true.

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

79. Q79The services sector

    Tourism in India has turned out to be a key service sub-sector. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the Tourism sector in India ? I. NIDHI is a technology-driven system meant for providing services to Hospitality and Travel industry. II. The Government has resolved to make India a one trillion USD tourism economy by 2047 with 100 million international investors. III. The Hotel Occupancy Rate has been rapidly increasing alongside a consistent rise in the average daily rate and revenue per available room. IV. India's Services Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) has been in the expanding zone. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aAll
    • bI, II and IV
    • cII, III and IV
    • dI and IVAnswer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

80. Q80Money, banking and financial markets

    Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) : I. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing the RBI-DPI with 2021 as the base year to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. II. The RBI-DPI consists of 6 broad parameters that have in turn sub-parameters. III. There has been a constant increase in the RBI-DPI since the time of its inception. IV. 'Consumer Centricity' is one of the parameters in the RBI-DPI. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

    • aII and IV
    • bI, II and IV
    • cIII and IVAnswer
    • dOnly III
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements III and IV are valid; the Digital Payments Index has shown uninterrupted growth over successive periods, and Consumer Centricity is explicitly defined as one of its core parameters. Base period: March 2018 equal to 100. Parameters: Payment Enablers, Payment Infrastructure Demand-side, Payment Infrastructure Supply-side, Payment Performance, Consumer Centricity. Option A: Incorrect because statement II incorrectly states there are 6 parameters instead of 5. Option B: Incorrect because statement I wrongly names 2021 as the base year instead of 2018, and statement II lists 6 parameters instead of 5. Option D: Incorrect because statement IV is also completely valid.