APPSC Group-I Prelims 2024

378 questions from the 2024 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81Money, banking and financial markets

    Which of the following statement/statements qualifies/qualify as valid in connection with the banking mechanism in India ? I. Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) will result in increasing credit creation. II. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) applies only to the new deposit base while the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) specifically targets the new borrower lending base. III. 'Tenor Premium' is an important component in the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR). IV. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is used as a long-term policy rate and is generally lower than the Bank Rate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI and IV
    • bOnly IIIAnswer
    • cOnly IV
    • dI, III and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statement III is the only valid statement; the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) explicitly incorporates the tenor premium alongside three other components. Components of MCLR: Marginal cost of funds, Negative carry on account of CRR, Operating costs, Tenor premium. CRR effects: Increasing CRR reduces loanable funds, thereby decreasing credit creation. MSF: Overnight borrowing facility priced higher than the repo rate, not a long-term rate. Option A: Incorrect because statement I is false since higher CRR reduces credit creation, and statement IV is false since MSF is an overnight liquidity facility. Option C: Incorrect because statement IV is completely false regarding the tenure and relative rate of MSF. Option D: Incorrect because statements I and IV are factually erroneous.

82. Q82Money, banking and financial markets

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reforms ? I. EASE Reforms are governed by a board of directors, who are heads of premier Financial Institutions in India. II. EASE Next programme had just one (01) priority – the Common Reforms Agenda. III. Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement is one of the four themes conceptualized as part of EASE 6.0. IV. EASE Reforms are intended for both Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as well as NBFCs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly IIIAnswer
    • bI, II and III
    • cII and IV
    • dI and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statement III is the only accurate statement; theme 1 of the EASE 6.0 reforms agenda specifically focuses on delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement. Option B: Statements I and II are incorrect because EASE is driven by the Indian Banks' Association and PSB leadership rather than an institutional board, and EASE Next comprises two distinct tracks: a common reform agenda and strategic 3-year bank-specific roadmaps. Option C: Statements II and IV are incorrect because EASE Next has two priority tracks and the EASE agenda applies exclusively to Public Sector Banks, not NBFCs. Option D: Statement I is incorrect regarding the governance structure and Statement IV mistakenly includes NBFCs under EASE coverage.

83. Q83Money, banking and financial markets

    Pick the correct sequence out of the following sequences with regard to the present prevailing inflation trends (in percentages) in India :

    • aFood Inflation > Headline Inflation > Core InflationAnswer
    • bHeadline Inflation > Food Inflation > Core Inflation
    • c(Food Inflation = Headline Inflation) < Core Inflation
    • dCore Inflation > Food Inflation > Headline Inflation
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because during the recent inflationary episodes in India, elevated food inflation drove headline retail inflation higher, while core inflation (headline minus food and energy) remained significantly lower and subdued. Option B: Headline inflation was lower than food inflation because the moderating effect of core components pulled headline below the high food print. Option C: Food inflation was distinct from headline inflation and substantially higher than core inflation, not lower. Option D: Core inflation remained the lowest among the three components rather than the highest.

84. Q84Money, banking and financial markets

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with inflation ? I. Cost-push inflation cycle of milk is becoming more and more pronounced in India. II. The Bharat Atta initiative of the Government has played a considerable role in containing wheat inflation in India. III. Retail Inflation has considerably increased in the beginning of 2024 owing to increasing commodity prices. IV. The Bharat Dal initiative has also been extended to include moong dal. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aII and IV
    • bI and III
    • cII, III and IVAnswer
    • dOnly II

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

85. Q85Money, banking and financial markets

    In connection with SEBI, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. SEBI exempted regulations for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Muncipal Bonds in order to facilitate more efficient infrastructure financing through the capital markets. II. SEBI introduced the framework in which listed large corporates will mandatorily meet 25% of their financing requirements through the issuance of debt securities. III. SEBI increased the minimum ticket size of corporate bond investment in order to encourage investor responsibility. IV. SEBI along with the RBI introduced the Retail Direct Scheme. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aOnly IIAnswer
    • bII, III and IV
    • cIII and IV
    • dOnly III
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statement II accurately reflects SEBI's mandate where large corporate borrowers must raise at least 25% of their incremental borrowings through the issuance of debt securities to deepen the corporate bond market. Option B: Statement III is false because SEBI reduced the minimum ticket size to enhance retail participation, and statement IV is false because the Retail Direct Scheme was launched solely by the RBI. Option C: Statement III and IV are both factually incorrect as SEBI lowered rather than raised ticket sizes, and RBI introduced the Retail Direct Scheme independently. Option D: Statement III is incorrect because SEBI lowered the face value/ticket size of privately placed debt securities from 10 lakh to 1 lakh to facilitate broader access.

86. Q86Public finance and the budget

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : Tax reforms directed towards a simple tax system will result in positive productivity gains. Reason (R) : They boost GDP growth and employment growth by removing deadweight costs and reduce distortions in resource allocation. Code :

    • aBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains A.Answer
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
    • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • d(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because simplifying tax structures minimizes compliance costs, eliminates economic distortions, and removes deadweight loss, which directly explains the resulting gains in economic productivity and growth. Option B: Reason R provides the exact economic rationale that accounts for Assertion A, so claiming it does not explain A is incorrect. Option C: Reason R is economically valid because reducing market distortions demonstrably improves resource allocation and GDP growth. Option D: Assertion A is a standard economic principle regarding the benefits of tax base broadening and simplification.

87. Q87Public finance and the budget

    The Interim Union Budget (FY25) has proposed initiatives to boost India's Green Energy Sector. Which of the following proposals are connected with developing India's Green Energy ? I. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for utilizing solar energy projects II. To set up coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100MT by 2030 III. Optional blending of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) in Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for transport and Piped Natural Gas (PNG) for domestic purposes IV. Provision of financial assistance for procurement of biomass aggregation machinery V. Setting up of a payment security system for expanding the bio-manufacturing system in the country Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI, II, III and V
    • bII and IVAnswer
    • cI, III and V
    • dIV and V
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Interim Budget 2024-25 specifically announced setting up a coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100 MT by 2030 (Statement II) and providing financial assistance for the procurement of biomass aggregation machinery (Statement IV). Proposal I: VGF was announced for offshore wind energy projects, not solar energy projects. Proposal II: Target of 100 MT capacity for coal gasification and liquefaction by 2030 was proposed. Proposal III: Phased mandatory blending of CBG in CNG and PNG was announced, not optional blending. Proposal IV: Financial assistance for biomass aggregation machinery was announced to support collection. Proposal V: A payment security mechanism was proposed for expanding the electric bus ecosystem, not bio-manufacturing. Option A: Statements I, III, and V contain factual misstatements regarding wind energy, mandatory blending, and e-buses respectively. Option C: All three listed statements (I, III, and V) are factually incorrect based on the Interim Budget speech. Option D: Statement V is incorrect because the payment security mechanism was designated for electric buses.

88. Q88External sector and the world economy

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the prevailing scenarios and issues in connection with the World Trade Organisation (WTO)? I. The 'Peace Clause' under the Bali Agreement reiterates that developing nations must not exceed the 10% ceiling limit for Public Stockholding schemes initiatives. II. The 'Green Box' prohibits the use of direct payments to producers which are not linked to production decisions. III. The 'Reduction Commitments' are expressed in terms of a "Total Aggregate Measurement of Support" which includes all product-specific support and non-product-specific support in one single figure. IV. Any support that would normally be placed in the 'Amber Box', is not to be placed in the 'Blue Box' even if the support mandates farmers to limit production. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aIII and IV
    • bI, II and IV
    • cOnly IIIAnswer
    • dI and II
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statement III accurately defines the Total Aggregate Measurement of Support (Total AMS) under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture, which combines both product-specific and non-product-specific support into a single quantified figure subject to reduction commitments. Option A: Statement IV is incorrect because the Blue Box specifically permits Amber Box subsidies with conditions that require farmers to limit production. Option B: Statements I, II, and IV are all incorrect because the Bali Peace Clause protects developing nations from legal challenge even if they breach the 10 percent limit for traditional staple food stockholding, the Green Box explicitly permits decoupled direct income support to farmers, and Blue Box allows trade-distorting supports that limit production. Option D: Statements I and II are incorrect because the Peace Clause grants an exemption rather than enforcing a hard cap, and the Green Box allows, rather than prohibits, decoupled direct payments.

89. Q89External sector and the world economy

    Which of the following statement can best be described as having resulted in the recovery of India's external sector ?

    • aModeration in India's merchandise export growth in FY24 accompanied by a sharp decline in India's merchandise import growthAnswer
    • bIncreasing commodity prices with escalating global demand
    • cIncrease in merchandise exports and imports followed by a decline in net services receipts
    • dGrowth in world output outpacing the world trade volume
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Economic Survey highlights that a sharp decline in merchandise imports relative to the moderation in merchandise exports significantly narrowed India's trade deficit, aiding external sector stability. Option B: Escalating global commodity prices elevate import bills, particularly for crude oil and fertilizers, worsening the trade deficit rather than improving it. Option C: A decrease in net services receipts would diminish the foreign exchange buffer that compensates for the merchandise deficit. Option D: Global output growth outpacing world trade volume describes a macroeconomic divergence that does not directly account for the improvement in India's external trade balance.

90. Q90STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the socio-economic status of Andhra Pradesh ? I. Andhra Pradesh won the Best State Award of ICAR - National Research Center for Banana (NRCB) for export promotion. II. Andhra Pradesh GSDP growth rate has been registering a decline in recent times owing to repeated lower returns in certain sub-sectors of the Service Sector. III. For the FY 2024 - 25, the Revenue Deficit is budgeted higher than the Fiscal Deficit in terms of percentage of Andhra Pradesh GSDP. IV. The technology used by the Government of Andhra Pradesh while conducting resurvey of landholdings is referred to as 'Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS)' technology. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI and IVAnswer
    • bII and III
    • cII, III and IV
    • dOnly II
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements I and IV are accurate factual statements about Andhra Pradesh. Statement I is true as Andhra Pradesh bagged the Best State Award from ICAR-NRCB for its excellence in banana export promotion, and statement IV is true because the state deployed Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS) network technology alongside drones for the comprehensive land resurvey. Option B: Statement II is incorrect because Andhra Pradesh maintained a strong GSDP growth rate exceeding national averages, and Statement III is incorrect because Fiscal Deficit is fundamentally broader and higher than Revenue Deficit. Option C: Statements II and III are both false. Option D: Statement II is false, while statements I and IV are valid.

91. Q91STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    According to NITI Aayog report, the multidimensional poverty rate in Andhra Pradesh reduced from 41.6% in 2005-06 to ......... in 2016-17.

    • a17%
    • b21%Answer
    • c29%
    • d32%
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the NITI Aayog Multidimensional Poverty Index report recorded that the multidimensional poverty headcount ratio in Andhra Pradesh fell from 41.6% in 2005-06 to approximately 21% in 2015-16/2016-17. Multidimensional poverty headcount in AP (NFHS-3, 2005-06): 41.6% Multidimensional poverty headcount in AP (NFHS-4, 2015-16): 21.05% Option A: 17% is lower than the actual proportion recorded in the baseline MPI report for that survey period. Option C: 29% fails to capture the full extent of poverty reduction achieved by the state over that decade. Option D: 32% significantly overstates the poverty headcount ratio remaining in 2016-17.

92. Q92STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    As per reports of Andhra Pradesh Economic Development Board (APEDB), how much percentage of total Indian exports was contributed by Andhra Pradesh by 2020-2021?

    • a8.8%
    • b7.8%
    • c6.8%
    • d5.8%Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because reports from the Andhra Pradesh Economic Development Board indicated that Andhra Pradesh contributed 5.8% of India's total merchandise exports in 2020-21, placing the state among the top exporting states in the country. Option A: 8.8% overstates the state's share in national exports during 2020-21. Option B: 7.8% is higher than the official export contribution recorded by APEDB. Option C: 6.8% is incorrect as it exceeds the actual 5.8% contribution achieved in that financial year.

93. Q93STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    The annual per capita income of Andhra Pradesh stood at ₹ 2.07 lakh in 2021-22 against ......... per capita income in 1960.

    • a₹ 7,781
    • b₹ 7,681Answer
    • c₹ 7,581
    • d₹ 7,481
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because comparative state income assessments historical records cite the constant-value equivalent annual per capita income of Andhra Pradesh in 1960 as ₹ 7,681 against ₹ 2.07 lakh in 2021-22. Option A: ₹ 7,781 is higher than the baseline figure recorded for 1960. Option C: ₹ 7,581 is lower than the cited statistical baseline. Option D: ₹ 7,481 reflects an incorrect estimation of historical per capita income.

94. Q94STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    The Andhra Pradesh Community-Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) is being implemented by RySS, a not-for-profit company established by the Department of Agriculture, Government of Andhra Pradesh. What is the full form of RySS?

    • aRythu Surakshana Samstha
    • bRythu Sarvekshana Samstha
    • cRythu Sadhana Samstha
    • dRythu Sadhikara SamsthaAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because RySS stands for Rythu Sadhikara Samstha, a not-for-profit company incorporated by the Department of Agriculture, Government of Andhra Pradesh, to implement natural farming programmes including APCNF. Option A: Rythu Surakshana Samstha is incorrect because the word Surakshana is not part of the registered name. Option B: Rythu Sarvekshana Samstha is incorrect as Sarvekshana means survey and does not form the acronym. Option C: Rythu Sadhana Samstha is an incorrect expansion of the organization's official title.

95. Q95STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    The "Panta Sanjeevani" program in Andhra Pradesh aims to increase agricultural productivity. Initially with how much budget outlay it was launched?

    • a200 croresAnswer
    • b100 crores
    • c300 crores
    • d500 crores

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

96. Q96STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the regarding the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Policy 2023 - 27 ? I. To achieve a minimum contribution of II. 25% by industry in the State GDP III. To provide end-to-end facilitation in 2 weeks III. To envisage ten (10) priorities of accomplishment IV. To focus on becoming a Plug and Play State' for investments V. Ensuring land allotment by APIIC within a period of 2 weeks upon receipt of application Select the answer using the codes given below:

    • aII, III and V
    • bI, II, III and VAnswer
    • cOnly V
    • dIII and IV

    Explanation coming soon.

97. Q97STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Which of the following statements are valid in connection with Andhra Pradesh Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia Policy (2023)? I. The objective is to target Green Energy production up to the capacity of 1 MPTA (Million Tonnes Per Annum) or Green Ammonia production up to the capacity of 2.0 MTPA in the next five years. II. New and Renewable Energy Development Corporation of A.P. Ltd (NREDCAP) shall act as a Nodal Agency under this policy. III. All the Ports in the State have infrastructure for storing liquid nitrogen which can then be utilized for storing Green Hydrogen for exporting to other countries. IV. The Policy prohibits the production of Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia by using Renewable Energy and/or Biomass from 'Third-Party/Power exchange'. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    • aII and IIIAnswer
    • bI and IV
    • cI, II and III
    • dIII and IV

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

98. Q98STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Under Andhra Pradesh Industrial Policy 2020-23, how much percentage of plots in APIIC parks are reserved for Scheduled Caste entrepreneurs?

    • a14.2%
    • b16.2%Answer
    • c12.2%
    • d10.2%
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Development Policy 2020-23 mandated reservation of land in APIIC industrial parks for marginalized groups, allocating 16.2% of plots specifically to Scheduled Caste entrepreneurs. Scheduled Caste entrepreneurs reservation: 16.2% Scheduled Tribe entrepreneurs reservation: 6.0% Option A: 14.2% is incorrect because it is an inaccurate percentage not specified in the policy. Option C: 12.2% is incorrect because the reserved quota for SC entrepreneurs in APIIC parks is fixed at 16.2%. Option D: 10.2% is incorrect because it does not match the statutory reservation proportion established by the policy.

99. Q99STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    What is the number of notified Special Economic Zones in the state of Andhra Pradesh till July 2023?

    • a18
    • b24Answer
    • c29
    • d32
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because as per official records of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, Andhra Pradesh had 24 notified Special Economic Zones out of 29 formally approved zones as of July 2023. Option A: 18 is incorrect as it is close to the number of operational SEZs rather than notified SEZs. Option C: 29 is incorrect because 29 represents the number of formally approved SEZs in the state. Option D: 32 is incorrect because it exceeds the total SEZ approvals granted to the state.

100. Q100STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

     As per Vision 2029 document of Andhra Pradesh, by which year the state is targeting to become the most preferred global investment destination?

     • a2030
     • b2040
     • c2050Answer
     • d2060
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Vision 2029 document outlines a long-term, three-phase growth trajectory culminating in Andhra Pradesh becoming the most preferred global investment destination by the year 2050. Phase 1 by 2022: Among the top three states in India Phase 2 by 2029: The leading state in India Phase 3 by 2050: The most preferred global investment destination Option A: Targets within 2030 belong to intermediate Sustainable Development Goal tracking rather than the final global destination phase. Option B: The year 2040 is not a designated milestone year in the document's phased framework. Option D: The year 2060 lies beyond the planning horizon laid out in Vision 2029.

101. Q101STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

     Which sector has been a focus of industrial development in the Krishnapatnam Port region of Andhra Pradesh?

     • aTextiles
     • bTourism
     • cHeavy IndustriesAnswer
     • dInformation Technology
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Krishnapatnam Port region in Nellore district has been strategically developed as a major industrial node under the Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor (CBIC) focusing on heavy industries, thermal power plants, steel, and port-based engineering manufacturing. Option A: Textiles is mainly centered around traditional hubs like Dharmavaram, Chirala, and dedicated parks in other districts, not Krishnapatnam's deep-sea port belt. Option B: Tourism is not the core focus of the Krishnapatnam port industrial cluster, which is dedicated to maritime commerce and heavy manufacturing. Option D: Information Technology development in Andhra Pradesh is concentrated predominantly around Visakhapatnam, Tirupati, and Vijayawada.

102. Q102STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

     Which special economic zone (SEZ) in Andhra Pradesh is dedicated to the IT and ITES (Information Technology Enabled Services) sector?

     • aSri City SEZ
     • bKakinada SEZ
     • cNellore SEZ
     • dVisakhapatnam SEZAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Visakhapatnam SEZ (specifically units and IT SEZs located around Rushikonda and Madhurawada in Visakhapatnam) is the primary multi-product and IT/ITES hub developed in Andhra Pradesh. Option A: Sri City SEZ is predominantly a multi-product manufacturing, automotive, and engineering industrial zone. Option B: Kakinada SEZ focuses heavily on port-based industries, oil, gas, and manufacturing. Option C: Nellore SEZ focuses primarily on manufacturing, leather, and heavy engineering.

103. Q103Interior of the Earth and its landforms

     Following are the intrusive landforms of volcanic activity and their characteristic features : I. Batholiths : Huge mass of igneous rocks, usually granite at the deeper layers of the crust. II. Phacoliths : Large igneous mounds with a dome-shaped upper surface. III. Dykes : Wall-like structures developed by solidifying almost perpendicular to the ground. IV. Sills : The near horizontal bodies of intrusive igneous rocks. Which of the above are correctly matched ?

     • aI, II and III
     • bI, II and IV
     • cI, III and IVAnswer
     • dI, II, III and IV
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because statements I, III, and IV accurately define batholiths, dykes, and sills, whereas statement II incorrectly defines a phacolith. Option A: It incorrectly accepts statement II, which describes a laccolith rather than a phacolith, and omits the correct statement IV. Option B: It incorrectly includes statement II while omitting statement III, which correctly defines dykes. Option D: It improperly includes statement II as correct when a phacolith is actually a lens-shaped intrusion occupying the crest of an anticline or trough of a syncline.

104. Q104Interior of the Earth and its landforms

     Match the following : List-I (Hunters/ Nomadic tribes) A. Pygmies B. Masai C. Semangs D. Punan List-II (Region) I. East Africa II. Congo basin III. Borneo IV. Malaysia Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : A B C D (1) I II III IV (2) II I IV III (3) III I IV II (4) III IV I II

     • aI only
     • bII and III onlyAnswer
     • cI and III only
     • dI, II and III

     Explanation coming soon.

105. Q105Interior of the Earth and its landforms

     Consider the following statements : I. Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety. II. Almost one-fourth of the Earth's crust is composed of feldspar and quartz. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

     • aStatement I onlyAnswer
     • bStatement II only
     • cBoth of them
     • dNone of them
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because silicon and oxygen form the basic silicate framework of all feldspars, while statement II is incorrect because feldspar alone makes up about half of the Earth's crust, and together with quartz they constitute over sixty percent. Feldspar share of Earth's crust: about 50 percent Quartz share of Earth's crust: about 12 percent Combined share: more than 60 percent, not one-fourth Option B: It accepts statement II, which severely underestimates the abundance of feldspar and quartz as one-fourth instead of over half. Option C: It overlooks the factual numerical error present in statement II regarding crustal composition. Option D: It incorrectly rejects statement I, which is a standard mineralogical fact regarding the elemental composition of feldspar varieties.

106. Q106Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric pressure belts: I. Equatorial Low Pressure Belt is characterized by rising air currents. II. Subtropical High Pressure Belts are areas of descending air. III. Polar High Pressure Belts are thermally induced. IV. Trade Winds originate from the Equatorial Low Pressure Belt. Which statements are correct?

     • aGeomorphic processes bring about changes in the configuration of the surface of the Earth.
     • bDiastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes.
     • cThe endogenic and exogenic forces cause physical stresses and chemical actions on earth materials.
     • dOrogeny is the continental building process.Answer

     Explanation coming soon.

107. Q107Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Consider the following statements regarding rivers of India: I. The Indus River originates near Lake Mansarovar. II. The Brahmaputra enters India through Arunachal Pradesh. III. The Narmada flows into the Bay of Bengal. IV. Godavari is the longest river in Peninsular India. Which are correct?

     • aStatement I only
     • bStatement II only
     • cBoth of them
     • dNone of themAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

108. Q108Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Match the following : List-I (Clouds) List-II (Description) A. Cirrus I. Milky appearance B. Cirrostratus II. Silky appearance C. Cirrocumulus III. Cauliflower structure D. Cumulus IV. Small globular masses Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : A B C D

     • aI II III IV
     • bII I IV IIIAnswer
     • cIV III II I
     • dIII IV I II
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the cloud types correctly match their visual characteristics: Cirrus are thin, fibrous clouds with a silky appearance, Cirrostratus form a thin sheet giving the sky a milky appearance, Cirrocumulus appear as small white globular masses, and Cumulus clouds exhibit flat bases with rounded, cauliflower-like tops. Cirrus matches silky appearance Cirrostratus matches milky appearance Cirrocumulus matches small globular masses Cumulus matches cauliflower structure Option A: It incorrectly attributes the milky veil to Cirrus and cauliflower heads to Cirrocumulus. Option C: It inverts the order by matching Cirrus to globular masses. Option D: It pairs Cirrus with cauliflower formations, which are exclusive to Cumulus clouds.

109. Q109Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Which of the following soils are generally found in the Deccan Plateau? I. Black Cotton Soil II. Red Soil III. Laterite Soil IV. Alluvial Soil

     • aThese develop in the mid and high latitudes.
     • bThey do not have a clear frontal system.Answer
     • cThey affect a large area as compared to the tropical cyclones.
     • dThey can originate over the land and sea.

     Explanation coming soon.

110. Q110Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Consider the following : I. Dry winter season II. No dry season III. Dry hot summer IV. Dry and very severe winter Which of the above are not the characteristic features of Mediterranean Climate ?

     • aI, II and III
     • bI, II and IVAnswer
     • cII, III and IV
     • dI, III and IV
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Mediterranean climate is characterized by warm to hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters. Therefore, statements I, II, and IV are incorrect descriptions of this climatic type. Option A: Includes III, which is a true defining characteristic of the Mediterranean climate rather than an incorrect one. Option C: Includes III, which correctly describes the dry hot summer characteristic of this climate. Option D: Includes III, which accurately depicts the typical summer conditions of the Mediterranean region.

111. Q111Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     Match the following: List-I (Ocean Current) List-II (Nature) A. Gulf Stream I. Warm Current B. Labrador Current II. Cold Current C. Kuroshio Current D. Peru Current A B C D A B C D

     • aI, II and III
     • bI and III only
     • cIII and IV onlyAnswer
     • dI, II, III and IV

     Explanation coming soon.

112. Q112Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     Which of the following crops are classified as plantation crops? I. Tea II. Coffee III. Rubber IV. Cotton

     • aTaiga is the largest land biome in the world.
     • bThis cold biome stretches across the northern portion of North America, Europe and Asia.
     • cWithin this biome, there is a narrow range of temperatures between the winter and summer seasons.Answer
     • dPrecipitation in this biome is moderately high throughout the year with snow occurring during the winter months.

     Explanation coming soon.

113. Q113India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Which of the following statements regarding Himalayas are correct ? I. Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains. II. They are wide in Kashmir and narrow in the North-eastern states. III. The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature and their core is composed of granite. IV. The longitudinal valleys lying between Greater and Lesser Himalayas are known as Duns. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

     • aII, III and IV
     • bI, II and IIIAnswer
     • cI, III and IV
     • dI, II, III and IV
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements I, II, and III accurately describe the age, fold mountain structure, varying east-west width, and granitic core of the Himalayas. Option A: Statement IV is incorrect because Duns are longitudinal valleys located between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks, not the Greater and Lesser Himalayas. Option C: Statement II is erroneously excluded, even though the Himalayan width varies from about 400 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh. Option D: Statement IV is included despite being geographically inaccurate.

114. Q114India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Consider the following statements regarding Andhra Pradesh: I. Andhra Pradesh has the second-longest coastline in India. II. Visakhapatnam is the largest city in Andhra Pradesh. III. Krishna and Godavari are the major rivers of the State.

     • aIndus > Brahmaputra > Godavari > Krishna
     • bBrahmaputra > Indus > Godavari > Krishna
     • cIndus > Godavari > Krishna > BrahmaputraAnswer
     • dBrahmaputra > Indus > Krishna > Godavari

     Explanation coming soon.

115. Q115India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Match the following Climatic regions of India according to Koeppen's scheme : List-I (Type of Climate) A. Monsoon with short dry season B. Monsoon with dry summer C. Monsoon with dry winter D. Semi-arid Steppe climate List-II (Areas) I. West coast of India, south of Goa II. Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu III. Most of North-East India IV. Northwestern Gujarat Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : A B C D

     • aI II III IVAnswer
     • bII I IV III
     • cIII I IV II
     • dIII IV I II
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Koeppen classifies the southwestern coast south of Goa as Amw, the Coromandel coast as As, most of northeastern India as Cwg, and northwestern Gujarat as BShw. Monsoon with short dry season (Amw): West coast of India, south of Goa Monsoon with dry summer (As): Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu Monsoon with dry winter (Cwg): Most of North-East India Semi-arid Steppe climate (BShw): Northwestern Gujarat Option B: It incorrectly associates monsoon with short dry season with the Coromandel coast and monsoon with dry summer with the western coast south of Goa. Option C: It wrongly links monsoon with short dry season to northeastern India and semi-arid steppe climate to the Coromandel coast. Option D: It incorrectly assigns semi-arid steppe climate to the western coast south of Goa and monsoon with short dry season to northeastern India.

116. Q116India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Which of the following districts are known for coffee cultivation in Andhra Pradesh? I. Alluri Sitharama Raju District II. Parvathipuram Manyam District

     • athe areas of low rainfall with low leaching activity.
     • bthe areas of high temperature and high rainfall with intense leaching.
     • cthe areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity with good vegetation.Answer
     • dthe areas of semi-arid climate with salinity.

     Explanation coming soon.

117. Q117Natural resources and their distribution

     Match the following: List-I (Mineral) List-II (Major Producing State) A. Iron Ore I. Odisha B. Bauxite II. Rajasthan C. Mica III. Andhra Pradesh D. Limestone IV. Chhattisgarh Codes:

     • aA mountain with pointed summit rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean.
     • bA deep valley sometimes found cutting across the continental shelves and slopes.
     • cA flat topped seamount showing the evidence of gradual subsidence through stages.Answer
     • dA low island found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression.

     Explanation coming soon.

118. Q118Natural resources and their distribution

     Consider the following statements regarding groundwater: I. Over-extraction leads to decline in water table. II. Artificial recharge helps improve groundwater availability. III. Groundwater is unaffected by pollution.

     • aI, II and III
     • bI, II and IVAnswer
     • cI, III and IV
     • dI, II, III and IV

     Explanation coming soon.

119. Q119Natural resources and their distribution

     Consider the following statements: Statement I: India has high solar power generation potential. Statement II: India has 250 to 300 clear sunny days in a year, and the estimated solar energy incidence on India's land area is 5000 trillion kilowatt-hours (Tn kilowatt hour) per year. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

     • aStatement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement IAnswer
     • bStatement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
     • cStatement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
     • dStatement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because India's geographical advantage of receiving 250 to 300 sunny days and vast solar insolation annually is the direct physical reason for its high solar power generation potential. Option B: It fails to recognize that the solar insolation figures directly provide the logical and physical justification for India's high solar potential. Option C: It marks Statement II as incorrect, despite the cited figures being the official estimates of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Option D: It incorrectly marks Statement I as false, whereas India is globally recognized for its massive solar potential.

120. Q120Natural resources and their distribution

     Consider the following protected areas of Andhra Pradesh: I. Sri Venkateswara National Park II. Papikonda National Park III. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary Which are correctly matched as protected areas of Andhra Pradesh?

     • aI, II and III
     • bI, II and IV
     • cI, III and IVAnswer
     • dI, II, III and IV
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because all three listed protected areas—Sri Venkateswara National Park (in the Seshachalam hills), Papikonda National Park (spanning the Godavari basin), and Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary (in the Godavari estuary)—are located in Andhra Pradesh. Option B: It incorrectly assumes the presence of a fourth option which does not exist in the question stem. Option C: It references an item IV that is not provided in the question. Option D: It includes an item IV that is completely absent from the given choices.