TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2010

367 questions from the 2010 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Who is responsible for the registration of voters?

    • aGovernment
    • bVoters
    • cPolitical Parties
    • dElection CommissionAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Article 324 read with the Representation of the People Act, 1950 entrusts the preparation, revision, and maintenance of electoral rolls entirely to the Election Commission. Option A: Government provides administrative staff and logistical resources but does not hold constitutional responsibility for enrolling voters. Option B: Voters submit applications and claims, but they do not hold legal authority for maintaining voter rolls. Option C: Political parties deploy booth-level agents to aid verification but cannot register electors.

82. Q82Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

    • aPrime Minister
    • bPresidentAnswer
    • cParliament
    • dChief Justice of India
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 324(2) of the Constitution of India, the President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner as well as other Election Commissioners. Option A: The Prime Minister chairs the selection committee under recent statutory provisions but does not make the formal appointment. Option C: Parliament enacts laws governing the conditions of service but does not hold the power of appointment. Option D: The Chief Justice of India does not possess constitutional authority to appoint members of the Election Commission.

83. Q83Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Regarding the Central Government, the Comptroller and Auditor General submits the annual report to:

    • aThe Prime Minister
    • bThe PresidentAnswer
    • cThe Parliament
    • dThe Chairman of the Planning Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 151(1) of the Constitution of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General submits the audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President. The President then causes these reports to be laid before both Houses of Parliament. Article 151(1): CAG submits Union audit reports to the President Article 151(2): CAG submits State audit reports to the Governor Option A: The Prime Minister does not receive the CAG reports directly under constitutional provisions. Option C: The Parliament receives the report from the President, not directly from the CAG. Option D: The Planning Commission has no role in receiving or processing constitutional audit reports.

84. Q84Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Among the following, there is one organization with an official emblem. Identify it.

    • aAir Force
    • bAir India
    • cInternational Airport Authority of IndiaAnswer
    • dIndian Navy

    Explanation coming soon.

85. Q85Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    All India Institution for Judicial Education, Research and Training was established in:

    • aHyderabad
    • bNew Delhi
    • cLucknow
    • dBhopalAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the National Judicial Academy, established as an All India Institution for Judicial Education, Research and Training, is located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Option A: Incorrect because Hyderabad hosts the National Academy of Legal Studies and Research, not the National Judicial Academy. Option B: Incorrect because New Delhi houses the Supreme Court and Indian Law Institute, not this specific academy. Option C: Incorrect because Lucknow is the site of the Judicial Training and Research Institute of Uttar Pradesh.

86. Q86Parties, elections and representation

    What is the event that led to the Prime Minister of India becoming 'Primus inter pares'?

    • aMany regional parties
    • bThe verdict formed in Lok Sabha elections
    • cCoalition governmentsAnswer
    • dConcept of good governance
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the advent of coalition governments diluted single-party dominance and compelled the Prime Minister to consult, compromise, and build consensus with cabinet colleagues representing alliance partners, restoring the literal meaning of primus inter pares or first among equals. Option A: The growth of regional parties caused regionalization, but executive authority transformed specifically inside the cabinet framework of coalition governments. Option B: Lok Sabha election verdicts decide seat counts, not the working relationship inside the Union Council of Ministers. Option D: Good governance is an administrative benchmark unrelated to the Prime Minister's constitutional power balance within cabinet.

87. Q87Parties, elections and representation

    In the party system of India, the emergence of Bharatiya Janata Party as a strong political party led to what kind of consequence?

    • aPolarization of votes on religious basis
    • bFormation of a two-party system
    • cBeginning of coalition politics
    • dEnd of single-party dominanceAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the rise of the Bharatiya Janata Party as a formidable national competitor dismantled the long-standing Congress system, effectively ending the era of single-party dominance in Indian politics. Option A: Religious polarization describes an ideological or electoral strategy rather than the structural transformation of the party system. Option B: India developed a multi-party coalition system rather than a two-party system. Option C: Coalition politics at the national level began in 1977 with the Janata Party, prior to the rise of the BJP.

88. Q88Parties, elections and representation

    The number of women members elected in the 2009 general elections to the Lok Sabha:

    • a59Answer
    • b45
    • c48
    • d44
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because 59 women candidates won seats in the 2009 general elections, constituting roughly 10.86% of the 15th Lok Sabha. 14th Lok Sabha (2004): 45 women MPs elected. 15th Lok Sabha (2009): 59 women MPs elected. Option B: wrong because 45 was the number of women MPs elected in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections. Option C: wrong because 48 was not the total number of women members elected in the 2009 elections. Option D: wrong because 44 was the count of women MPs elected in the 1991 Lok Sabha elections.

89. Q89Public policy and governance

    Recently, the Prime Minister of India announced that higher education in India can be achieved by adopting which of the following immediate approaches?

    • aThrough Privatization
    • bBy including donations procured from foreign countries
    • cBy allocating 6 percent of the national income to higher education
    • dThrough Public Private PartnershipAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Government has highlighted the Public Private Partnership model as an immediate strategy to mobilize private capital, expertise, and infrastructure for expanding higher education. Option A: Complete privatization is not the adopted national policy approach for higher education. Option B: Foreign donations are neither a primary policy instrument nor a viable immediate mechanism for systemic educational expansion. Option C: Allocating six percent of national income is a long-standing overall educational target rather than a novel immediate approach.

90. Q90Public policy and governance

    The method being practiced for appointing individuals to various types of jobs in the public and private sectors in the present era:

    • aContract appointments
    • bEmergency recruitment
    • cOutsourcingAnswer
    • dOnline recruitment
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because outsourcing has emerged as a widely adopted modern human resource method in both the public and private sectors to procure non-core and specialized operational staff via external third-party agencies. Option A: Pertains to direct, fixed-term employment contracts rather than third-party service arrangements. Option B: Represents an ad-hoc, situational hiring mechanism used during crises rather than a standard contemporary staffing practice. Option D: Refers to the technological channel or medium of recruitment (the application process) rather than the method/form of appointment itself.

91. Q91Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    When did the new anti-terror laws come into force after Presidential assent ?

    • a31-10-2008
    • b31-11-2008
    • c31-12-2008Answer
    • d1-1-2009
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks, Parliament passed the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act and the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, both of which received the President's assent and came into force on 31-12-2008. Passed by Parliament in late December 2008 Presidential assent granted on 31-12-2008 Published in the Gazette and entered into force on 31-12-2008 Option A: 31-10-2008 is incorrect because the 26/11 attacks had not even taken place in October 2008. Option B: 31-11-2008 is incorrect because November only has 30 days and the bills were enacted after late November. Option D: 1-1-2009 is incorrect because the enactments were assented to and officially notified on the final day of 2008.

92. Q92Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    Lok Sabha passed National Investigation Bill in the year

    • a2006
    • b2007
    • c2008Answer
    • d2009
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the National Investigation Agency Bill was introduced and passed by the Lok Sabha in December 2008 in the aftermath of the Mumbai terror attacks. National Investigation Agency Bill passed by Lok Sabha: December 2008 Presidential assent received: December 31, 2008 Act published in Gazette: January 2009 Option A: 2006 is incorrect as the legislation was not introduced or passed in this year. Option B: 2007 is incorrect as the Act was drafted following the November 2008 attacks. Option D: 2009 is incorrect because Lok Sabha passed the bill in December 2008, even though the agency commenced operational setup in 2009.

93. Q93Rights issues and social justice

    The date on which the Right to Education Act came into force:

    • a1 February, 2010
    • b1 March, 2010
    • c1 April, 2010Answer
    • d1 May, 2010
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 officially came into force across India on 1 April, 2010. RTE Act received presidential assent on 26 August, 2009 RTE Act came into force on 1 April, 2010 Option A: 1 February, 2010 is two months prior to the statutory enforcement date. Option B: 1 March, 2010 is one month prior to the official commencement date. Option D: 1 May, 2010 is one month after the Act had already come into effect.

94. Q94India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which organ of UNO is considered as World Parliament?

    • aSecurity Council
    • bGeneral AssemblyAnswer
    • cInternational Court of Justice
    • dTrusteeship Council
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the General Assembly is the main deliberative, policymaking, and representative organ of the UN where all member states have equal representation, leading political analysts to describe it as the World Parliament. Option A: is wrong because the Security Council is an executive body tasked specifically with maintaining international peace and security, consisting of only 15 members. Option C: is wrong because the International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN. Option D: is wrong because the Trusteeship Council was created to oversee the administration of trust territories and suspended operations in 1994.

95. Q95India's foreign policy and international relations

    With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements: A. At present, China's GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries. B. China's population is more than the combined population of any two other countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB onlyAnswer
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

96. Q96Other countries' constitutions: presidential and parliamentary systems compared

    In which of the following aspects are the Indian and American Constitutions similar?

    • aFundamental RightsAnswer
    • bDirective Principles
    • cFederal Governance
    • dConstitutional Rigidity
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the framers of the Indian Constitution drew inspiration for the justiciable Fundamental Rights in Part III directly from the American Bill of Rights. Option B: Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from the Irish Constitution, not the American Constitution. Option C: India adopted a quasi-federal structure with a strong central bias modeled after Canada, unlike the classic dual federalism of the USA. Option D: The American Constitution is exceptionally rigid, whereas the Indian Constitution combines both rigidity and flexibility under Article 368.

97. Q97STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    During the tenure of which of the following Chief Ministers was the Andhra Pradesh Panchayat Raj system introduced?

    • aN. Sanjeeva ReddyAnswer
    • bD. Sanjeevaiah
    • cK. Brahmananda Reddy
    • dP.V. Narasimha Rao
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the three-tier Panchayati Raj system was formally launched in Andhra Pradesh at Shadnagar on 11 October 1959 by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, during the tenure of Chief Minister N. Sanjeeva Reddy. N. Sanjeeva Reddy first tenure as CM: 1956 to 1960 AP Panchayat Samithis and Zilla Parishads Act: enacted in 1959 Inauguration at Shadnagar: 11 October 1959 Option B: D. Sanjeevaiah served as Chief Minister between 1960 and 1962, after the launch. Option C: K. Brahmananda Reddy served as Chief Minister from 1964 to 1971. Option D: P.V. Narasimha Rao held the Chief Minister office between 1971 and 1973.

98. Q98What an economy is measured by

    Who first compiled the national income estimates of India during British rule:

    • aLord Curzon
    • bDadabhai NaorojiAnswer
    • cR.C. Dutt
    • dV.K.R.V. Rao
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Dadabhai Naoroji pioneered the compilation of India's national income and per capita income during British colonial rule. Dadabhai Naoroji estimation period: 1867-68 Work: Poverty and Un-British Rule in India Estimated per capita income: Rs 20 per year Option A: Lord Curzon was a British Viceroy who presented an official per capita income estimate in 1901, decades after Naoroji. Option C: R.C. Dutt analyzed colonial economic exploitation and agriculture but did not compile the first national income estimates. Option D: V.K.R.V. Rao provided the first scientific and census-based national income estimates in 1931-32, much later than Naoroji.

99. Q99What an economy is measured by

    Saving is a:

    • aprimary determinant for growth
    • bonly determinant for growth
    • cone of the determinants for growthAnswer
    • dno relation with growth
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because saving provides the domestic funds required for capital formation and investment, which drives growth alongside technology, human capital, and institutional efficiency. Option A: saving is vital for financing investment, but designating it as the sole primary driver ignores essential inputs like labor productivity and technological change. Option B: economic growth depends on a combination of capital, innovation, labor, and natural resources, so saving is not the only determinant. Option D: saving determines the supply of loanable funds for investment, so it has a direct and well-established relationship with growth.

100. Q100What an economy is measured by

     The first estimates of National Income for India During British rule was provided by:

     • aLord Curzon
     • bDadabhai NaorojiAnswer
     • cR. Giffen
     • dV.K.R.V. Rao
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Dadabhai Naoroji prepared the first non-official estimates of India's national income for the year 1867-1868, published in his landmark work Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. Year of Dadabhai Naoroji's estimate: 1867-1868 Estimated per capita income: 20 rupees per annum Option A: Lord Curzon is wrong because his official estimate was made much later, in 1901. Option C: R. Giffen is wrong because he was a British statistician who did not provide the first national income estimate of India. Option D: V.K.R.V. Rao is wrong because he provided the first scientifically and statistically rigorous estimate of India's national income in 1931-1932, decades after Naoroji.

101. Q101What an economy is measured by

     Human Development Index was developed by:

     • aFAI
     • bWTO
     • cUNDEAnswer
     • dWHO

     Explanation coming soon.

102. Q102What an economy is measured by

     Human Development Index is developed by:

     • aFAO
     • bWTO
     • cUNDPAnswer
     • dWHO
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Human Development Index was formulated by economists Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen and launched under the auspices of the United Nations Development Programme in 1990. Option A: Incorrect because the Food and Agriculture Organization handles agricultural productivity and food security initiatives. Option B: Incorrect because the World Trade Organization administers multilateral trade rules and agreements. Option D: Incorrect because the World Health Organization is concerned exclusively with global public health directives and disease control.

103. Q103Economic data, indices and state rankings

     Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation lies between which of the following?

     • a-1 to +1Answer
     • b-1 % to 0
     • c0 to 1
     • d1 to 100
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation measures the degree of linear association between two variables and mathematically ranges from -1 (perfect negative correlation) to +1 (perfect positive correlation). Option B: The coefficient is not measured in percentages and does not terminate at 0. Option C: The range 0 to 1 excludes negative relationships, which Pearson's r accounts for. Option D: The scale 1 to 100 is completely outside the mathematical bounds of the correlation coefficient.

104. Q104Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The main objective of the Eleventh Five-Year Plan:

     • aStrengthening food security for all people
     • bAchieving a growth rate of 9.5 percent
     • cStabilizing the achievements made through liberalized policies
     • dReducing growing income inequalities to the lowest levelAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Eleventh Five Year Plan, titled Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth, aimed to ensure that the benefits of expansion reached marginalized sections by curbing growing disparities and income inequalities. Option A: Strengthening food security was an important sectoral strategy through the National Food Security Mission, but not the broad overarching objective of the entire plan. Option B: The targeted GDP growth rate set for the Eleventh Plan was 9.0 percent, not 9.5 percent. Option C: Consolidating and stabilizing liberalization reforms was the central policy environment of the Eighth Plan, not the Eleventh Plan.

105. Q105Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     Achieving a growth rate of 9.5 percent is the target of which of the following?

     • aMinistry of Finance
     • bEleventh Five Year PlanAnswer
     • cTenth Five Year Plan
     • dPlanning Commission
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007–2012) envisioned accelerating economic growth sequentially from 8 percent to reach a peak annual growth target of close to 9.5 percent by its terminal year. Eleventh Five Year Plan period: 2007 to 2012 Initial vision: Accelerating GDP growth to reach up to 9.5 percent towards the end of the plan period Theme: Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth Option A: Ministry of Finance implements fiscal policy and does not independently set five-year macroeconomic target rates. Option C: Tenth Five Year Plan targeted an overall average growth rate of 8 percent, not 9.5 percent. Option D: Planning Commission is the administrative body that drafts plans rather than a specific planning document or target framework.

106. Q106Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The heavy industry sector strategy is associated with which of the following?

     • aBrahmananda
     • bMahalanobisAnswer
     • cBhagwati
     • dChakravarty
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because P.C. Mahalanobis developed the two-sector and four-sector growth models that formed the bedrock of the Second Five Year Plan, prioritizing capital goods and heavy industries. Option A: P.R. Brahmananda, together with C.N. Vakil, advocated the Wage-Goods Model in contrast to the heavy industry approach. Option C: Jagdish Bhagwati is an international trade theorist noted for advocating market reforms and export-oriented growth. Option D: Sukhamoy Chakravarty contributed to macroeconomic planning models and headed the committee on the monetary system, not the heavy industry strategy.

107. Q107Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The main target of the Eleventh Five Year Plan is:

     • aEnsuring food security to all persons
     • bAchievement of Growth rate of 9.5%
     • cStabilizing the achievements of Liberalisation PoliciesAnswer
     • dReducing the growing income disparities to the minimum level

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

108. Q108Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     When did National Development Council was established?

     • a15th March 1950
     • b6th August 1952Answer
     • c2nd October 1952
     • d1st November 1959
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the National Development Council was set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India on 6th August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Five Year Plans. Establishment of Planning Commission: 15th March 1950 Establishment of National Development Council: 6th August 1952 Launch of Community Development Programme: 2nd October 1952 Option A: 15th March 1950 is incorrect because it is the date of establishment of the Planning Commission. Option C: 2nd October 1952 is incorrect because it marks the inauguration of the Community Development Programme. Option D: 1st November 1959 is incorrect because it has no relevance to the inception of the National Development Council.

109. Q109Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     What kind of Economy is there in India?

     • aMixedAnswer
     • bFree
     • cClosed
     • dLiberal
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Indian economy features the co-existence of both public and private sectors, combining market mechanisms with state planning and regulation. Option B: Free is incorrect because a free or capitalist economy leaves resource allocation entirely to market forces with minimal state intervention, unlike India. Option C: Closed is incorrect because India actively participates in international trade and foreign capital flows, meaning it is an open economy. Option D: Liberal is incorrect because liberal describes a political philosophy or a regime of market deregulation rather than the structural definition of the economic system itself.

110. Q110Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     Which of the following measures does not fall under the purview of economic reforms?

     • aSpecial Economic Zones
     • bRigid labor lawsAnswer
     • cFewer special provisions for the small-scale sector
     • dRemoval of entry barriers in industries
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because economic reforms aim at deregulation, flexibility, and ease of doing business, whereas rigid labor laws introduce inflexibility and restrict business growth. Option A: Special Economic Zones are a hallmark export-promotion reform designed to liberalize manufacturing and trade. Option C: Fewer special reservations or provisions for small-scale industries was part of the reform agenda to encourage economies of scale. Option D: Removal of entry barriers via delicensing is one of the core elements of the 1991 reforms.

111. Q111Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The main impact of globalization on India's economy:

     • aSteep increase in the export of national goods
     • bStabilizing the balance of payments
     • cSignificant increase in industrial development
     • dDecrease in poverty but increase in economic inequalitiesAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because while post-1991 globalisation and market-oriented reforms expanded the economy and reduced overall headcount poverty rates, they significantly deepened income and wealth inequalities across sectors and regions. Option A: India experienced rapid growth in services exports, particularly information technology, rather than an extraordinary surge in domestic merchandise exports. Option B: While foreign exchange reserves improved, the balance of payments saw recurring current account deficits due to high import dependence. Option C: The manufacturing and industrial sector registered uneven and sluggish growth compared to the dominant expansion of the services sector.

112. Q112Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The famous plan introduced by the Government of India in the early 1990s to tackle the economic crisis:

     • aPrivatization of core sector industries
     • bSignificantly reducing government employees
     • cStructural Adjustment ProgramAnswer
     • dRupee convertibility for current account purposes
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because India introduced the Structural Adjustment Program under the guidance and conditionality of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank to restore macroeconomic stability and promote growth. Option A: core sector privatization was only a partial and selective element rather than the overarching plan name. Option B: large-scale retrenchment of government employees was not adopted as the national reform framework. Option D: rupee convertibility on the current account was a specific exchange rate reform achieved later in 1994, not the comprehensive plan itself.

113. Q113Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     Abolition of state permission and regulations regarding foreign trade is a characteristic of what?

     • a2000-2001 'EXIM' Policy
     • bForeign Exchange Regulation Act
     • c2002-2007 'EXIM' Policy
     • dNew Industrial Policy of 1991Answer

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

114. Q114Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The economic development model of Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization assigns a key role to which of the following?

     • aForeign Direct Investment
     • bInformation Technology
     • cPrivate SectorAnswer
     • dPublic Private Partnership
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the core philosophy of the Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization model was to reduce the dominance of the state in economic activities and assign the private sector a central role as the engine of growth. Option A: Foreign Direct Investment is a financial instrument to attract capital, not the overarching sector assigned the primary role. Option B: Information Technology is an industrial sector, not the primary economic actor empowered across the whole economy. Option D: Public Private Partnership is one specific delivery mechanism rather than the central driver of the overall LPG model.

115. Q115Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     A stable macroeconomic policy contributes to global integration through which of the following?

     • aBy efficiently coping with bio-waste
     • bBy using prices as signals
     • cBy higher returns from education policy
     • dBy creating financial disciplineAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because a stable macroeconomic policy maintains price stability, sustainable fiscal balances, and a predictable exchange rate, thereby creating financial discipline that attracts international investment and fosters global economic integration. Option A: Coping with bio-waste is an environmental management function rather than a macroeconomic policy instrument for global integration. Option B: Using prices as signals is a microeconomic market mechanism rather than a core macroeconomic stability policy. Option C: Higher returns from education policy pertain to human capital formation and social policy rather than macroeconomic stabilization.

116. Q116Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     Which of the following is one of the main elements for India's market-based development strategy?

     • aNon-intervention of the government
     • bInvesting in the form of capital
     • cIntegration with the global economyAnswer
     • dRapidly changing macroeconomic policy
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because integrating the domestic economy with the global economy through lower tariffs, trade liberalization, and opening up to foreign investment is a cornerstone of India's market-based development strategy. Option A: Non-intervention of the government is incorrect because India adopts a mixed economic framework where the state actively regulates and facilitates markets rather than practicing total non-intervention. Option B: Investing in the form of capital is a general requirement of any economic system and not specific to a market-based strategy. Option D: Rapidly changing macroeconomic policy is incorrect because economic development requires stable and predictable policy environments.

117. Q117Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The major impact of Globalization on Indian Economy is:

     • aSteep rise in the export of textile goods
     • bStabilization in the Balance Payments
     • cSubstantial Increase in the Industrial Growth rate
     • dReduction in the Poverty but Increase in the economic disparitiesAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because empirical assessments of post-1991 globalization in India show that while absolute poverty headcounts declined significantly, income inequality and regional economic disparities widened considerably between urban and rural areas as well as across income groups. Option A: Growth occurred in textiles, but it faced stiff global competition after the Multi-Fibre Arrangement phase-out, making it an inadequate summary of major impact. Option B: The balance of payments improved initially due to capital inflows, but high trade deficits persisted, so it was not the sole major socioeconomic impact. Option C: Industrial sector growth remained moderate and erratic, never achieving sustained dominance over service sector growth.

118. Q118Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     The landmark programme launched by the Government of India to combat grave economic crisis of early 1990 decade was:

     • aPrivatisation of core sector industries
     • bMassive downsizing of Civil Servants
     • cStructural Adjustment ProgrammeAnswer
     • dConversion of Rupee for exchange purposes
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the comprehensive package introduced by the Government of India in 1991 to combat the balance of payments and fiscal crisis was formally known as the Structural Adjustment Programme (SAP), supported by the IMF and World Bank. Option A: Privatisation was a component of the broader reforms, not the overarching title of the landmark programme. Option B: Massive downsizing of civil servants was not the core policy programme launched in 1991. Option D: Full rupee convertibility on the current account was implemented later in 1994 as a specific monetary measure, not the entire reform programme.

119. Q119Planning, reform and the shape of policy

     Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government's objective of inclusive growth? A. Promoting Self-Help Groups B. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises C. Implementing the Right to Education Act Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

     • aA only
     • bA and B only
     • cB and C only
     • dA, B and CAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because inclusive growth seeks to ensure broad-based social and economic participation, which is directly advanced by empowering marginalized groups through microfinance in Self-Help Groups, generating decentralized employment through MSMEs, and securing universal foundational human capital through the Right to Education Act. Option A: Fails to recognize that supporting MSMEs and ensuring compulsory schooling through the RTE Act are vital pillars of inclusive growth. Option B: Excludes the Right to Education Act, which is essential for long-term equity and human development among disadvantaged populations. Option C: Leaves out the critical role played by Self-Help Groups in financial inclusion, women's empowerment, and poverty reduction.

120. Q120Population, poverty and work

     What is distinguished unemployment?

     • aOvermanned
     • bUnder employmentAnswer
     • cUneducated
     • dUnemployment without education
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because disguised unemployment is fundamentally a form of underemployment where workers are apparently occupied but work below their full productive capacity with zero marginal productivity. Option A: It is incorrect because overmanned simply describes an operational state of excess staffing rather than the conceptual economic classification. Option C: It is incorrect because lack of education describes illiteracy rather than a mode of labour underutilization. Option D: It is incorrect because unemployment without education refers to uneducated open unemployment.