TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2010

367 questions from the 2010 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

121. Q121Population, poverty and work

     Providing every needy rural house hold at least 100 days of employment in a year is by the programme:

     • aMahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee ProgrammeAnswer
     • bNational Rural Employment Programme
     • cPrime Minister's Rozgar Yojana
     • dFood for Work Programme
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme provides a statutory guarantee of at least 100 days of unskilled wage employment per year to every rural household. Option B: National Rural Employment Programme provided wage employment through asset creation but did not guarantee a specific 100-day legal entitlement per household. Option C: Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana was a credit-linked self-employment scheme for educated unemployed youth, not a wage guarantee programme. Option D: Food for Work Programme aimed at providing supplementary foodgrains for labor during distress without a statutory guarantee of 100 days.

122. Q122Agriculture in the Indian economy

     In respect of which of the following crops the Green Revolution in India had limited impact?

     • aMaize
     • bWheat
     • cRice
     • dPulsesAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Green Revolution was heavily skewed toward cereals, leaving pulses largely untouched due to lack of high-yielding drought-resistant seeds and shifting of fertile land to wheat and rice. Option A: Maize benefited from high-yielding hybrid varieties and modernized inputs. Option B: Wheat was the primary beneficiary and experienced the most dramatic yield and production increases. Option C: Rice experienced widespread expansion and productivity growth under the high-yielding variety program.

123. Q123Agriculture in the Indian economy

     Land Development Banks are associated with which of the following?

     • aCommercial Bank
     • bIndustrial Development Bank of India
     • cFood Corporation of India
     • dCooperative Credit SystemAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Land Development Banks, now known as State Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks, constitute the long-term segment of the rural cooperative credit system. Option A: Commercial banks belong to the scheduled commercial banking sector and are not part of the cooperative land development structure. Option B: Industrial Development Bank of India was set up to provide credit and financing facilities to industrial enterprises. Option C: Food Corporation of India is a public procurement and logistics agency, not a credit-providing bank.

124. Q124Agriculture in the Indian economy

     Duration of medium-term agricultural loan:

     • aFrom 15 months to 5 yearsAnswer
     • bFrom 5 years to 10 years
     • cLess than 3 months
     • dFrom 3 to 6 months
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because in agricultural finance classification, medium-term loans are those granted for repayment periods ranging from 15 months up to 5 years. Short-term agricultural loan: up to 15 months Medium-term agricultural loan: 15 months to 5 years Long-term agricultural loan: beyond 5 years Option B: Loans for durations of 5 to 10 years are classified as long-term loans. Option C: Loans of less than 3 months represent very short-term seasonal credit rather than medium-term credit. Option D: Loans of 3 to 6 months fall strictly within the short-term seasonal crop loan bracket.

125. Q125Agriculture in the Indian economy

     The body that recommends the Minimum Support Price for food crops to the Central Government:

     • aAgricultural Association
     • bMinistry of Agriculture
     • cCommission for Agricultural Costs and PricesAnswer
     • dFood Corporation of India
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is the expert statutory body mandated to submit price policy reports recommending Minimum Support Prices (MSP) to the Central Government. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP): Recommends MSP Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA): Approves MSP Food Corporation of India (FCI): Implements procurement Option A: Incorrect because it is a generic term and not an official government body responsible for MSP policy. Option B: Incorrect because the Ministry of Agriculture considers the recommendations of CACP and passes them to CCEA for final approval, rather than recommending them as an advisory body. Option D: Incorrect because the Food Corporation of India is the central agency responsible for procurement, storage, and distribution, not policy recommendations.

126. Q126Industry in the Indian economy

     Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)? A. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt. B. The government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

     • aA only
     • bB only
     • cBoth A and B
     • dNeither A nor BAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because disinvestment proceeds are mainly used to finance social infrastructure, capital expenditure, and schemes like the National Investment Fund, rather than primarily paying back external debt, and the government generally retains majority equity and management control except in specific strategic sales. Option A: It is incorrect because the primary objective is not servicing external debt but financing development expenditures and capital investments. Option B: It is incorrect because disinvestment does not imply complete withdrawal of management control; the government retains at least 51% stake in most CPSEs. Option C: It is incorrect because both underlying statements are factually incorrect regarding the official objectives of CPSE disinvestment.

127. Q127Industry in the Indian economy

     The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: A. Development of infrastructure facilities B. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. C. Promotion of exports of services only. Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

     • aA and B onlyAnswer
     • bC only
     • cB and C only
     • dA, B and C
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the SEZ Act of 2005 aims to promote the export of both goods and services, which makes statement C incorrect while statements A and B are valid objectives. Generation of additional economic activity Promotion of exports of goods and services Promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources Creation of employment opportunities Development of infrastructure facilities Option B: Statement C is incorrect because the Act targets goods alongside services rather than services exclusively. Option C: It includes statement C, which falsely restricts the scope of export promotion to services only. Option D: It includes statement C, overlooking the fact that export of goods is a major mandate of SEZs.

128. Q128Money, banking and financial markets

     High-powered money can also be called by which of the following.

     • aM₁Answer
     • bM₂
     • cM₃
     • dM₄

     Explanation coming soon.

129. Q129Money, banking and financial markets

     High powered money is also known as:

     • aM₁
     • bM₂Answer
     • cM₃
     • dM₄

     Explanation coming soon.

130. Q130Money, banking and financial markets

     Which of the following is not included in the qualitative credit control of the Reserve Bank?

     • aMoral suasion
     • bChange in margin requirement
     • cDifferential interest margin
     • dBank rate policyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the bank rate policy is a quantitative or general credit control measure that affects the overall cost and quantity of credit across the whole economy, rather than a selective or qualitative tool. Option A: Moral suasion is incorrect because it is a qualitative tool using advice and persuasion to influence bank lending. Option B: Change in margin requirement is incorrect because it is a qualitative tool used to regulate the flow of credit to specific security-backed loans. Option C: Differential interest margin is incorrect because it is a qualitative tool that prescribes varied interest rates for specific sectors.

131. Q131Money, banking and financial markets

     Qualitative credit control of Reserve Bank of India does not includes this:

     • aMoral Suasion
     • bChange in Margin requirement
     • cDifferential Interest rate
     • dBank Rate PolicyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Bank Rate Policy is a quantitative or general credit control tool that regulates the total volume and cost of bank credit in the economy, rather than its direction. Quantitative credit control tools: Bank Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio, Statutory Liquidity Ratio, Open Market Operations, Repo and Reverse Repo Rates. Qualitative credit control tools: Margin requirements, Moral suasion, Regulation of consumer credit, Rationing of credit, Differential interest rates. Option A: Moral Suasion is a qualitative tool involving central bank guidance and persuasion rather than quantitative regulation. Option B: Change in Margin requirement is a qualitative tool used to restrict or encourage borrowing against specific securities. Option C: Differential Interest rate is a qualitative tool designed to provide cheaper credit to prioritized or vulnerable sectors.

132. Q132Money, banking and financial markets

     The date on which 14 banks were nationalized in India:

     • a1 March 1967
     • b10 April, 1968
     • c19 July, 1969Answer
     • d20 April, 1970.
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the nationalisation of 14 major commercial banks through an ordinance on 19 July, 1969. First phase nationalisation: 19 July 1969 (14 banks with deposits exceeding 50 crore rupees) Second phase nationalisation: 15 April 1980 (6 banks with deposits exceeding 200 crore rupees) Option A: 1 March 1967 is incorrect because no bank nationalisation occurred on this date. Option B: 10 April, 1968 is incorrect because social control over banks, not nationalisation, was introduced during 1968. Option D: 20 April, 1970 is incorrect because nationalisation had already taken place the previous year.

133. Q133Money, banking and financial markets

     Regional Rural Bank is accountable to:

     • aReserve Bank of India
     • bMinistry of Finance
     • cNABARDAnswer
     • dScheduled Commercial Bank
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is statutorily tasked with supervising, monitoring, and conducting statutory inspections of Regional Rural Banks under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Option A: Reserve Bank of India is the central monetary authority that lays down overarching banking policies, but direct supervisory oversight and accountability of RRBs lies with NABARD. Option B: Ministry of Finance holds ownership stakes and policy direction, but operational regulatory supervision is carried out by NABARD. Option D: Scheduled Commercial Bank acts as the sponsor bank providing managerial and operational assistance, not the statutory supervisory authority.

134. Q134Money, banking and financial markets

     Land Development Banks form a part of the:

     • aCommercial Bank
     • bIndustrial Development Bank
     • cFood Corporation of India
     • dCooperative Credit StructureAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Land Development Banks, now known as State Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks, form an integral part of the long-term cooperative credit structure in India. Option A: Commercial banks provide short-to-medium-term commercial credit and function separately from the cooperative credit system. Option B: Industrial Development Bank focuses on long-term project finance for industries rather than agricultural land mortgage lending. Option C: Food Corporation of India is a statutory body responsible for procurement, storage, and distribution of food grains, not a credit institution.

135. Q135Money, banking and financial markets

     With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements: A. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government. B. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

     • aA only
     • bB onlyAnswer
     • cBoth A and B
     • dNeither A nor B
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Non-banking Financial Companies are legally prohibited from accepting demand deposits, while they are permitted to invest in and acquire government securities as part of their ordinary business and statutory requirements. Option A: A only is incorrect because statement A is false; NBFCs are actively permitted to acquire securities issued by the government. Option C: Both A and B is incorrect because statement A is inaccurate. Option D: Neither A nor B is incorrect because statement B is an accurate statutory restriction on NBFC activities under RBI regulations.

136. Q136Money, banking and financial markets

     Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation ?

     • aIt is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
     • bIt is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
     • cIt is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and servicesAnswer
     • dIt is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because deflation is defined in macroeconomic terms as a sustained and persistent decline in the general price level of goods and services over time. Option A: A sharp decline in the external value of a domestic currency against foreign currencies is termed currency depreciation or devaluation. Option B: A persistent downturn across financial and productive sectors represents an economic depression or prolonged recession, not deflation. Option D: A slowdown in the rate of price increases while prices continue to rise is termed disinflation, not deflation.

137. Q137Money, banking and financial markets

     Regarding the Indian stock market, which conducts the highest number of transactions?

     • aReserve Bank of India
     • bBombay Stock Exchange
     • cNational Stock ExchangeAnswer
     • dInternational Stock Exchange
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the National Stock Exchange is India's largest stock exchange by market capitalization and turnover, executing the highest daily trading volume and number of transactions across equity and derivative segments. Option A: The Reserve Bank of India is a central bank and regulatory institution, not a stock exchange. Option B: Bombay Stock Exchange is the oldest exchange in Asia, but its transaction volume and turnover are lower than the National Stock Exchange. Option D: International Stock Exchange is not the domestic platform handling mainstream trading volume in the Indian stock market.

138. Q138The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

     The following Emblem Indicates:

     • aDoordarshan
     • bBharat Sanchar Nigam LimitedAnswer
     • cBharat Electronics Limited
     • dSteel Authority of India Limited

     Explanation coming soon.

139. Q139The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

     The following emblem belongs to:

     • aBank of India
     • bCanara Bank
     • cState Bank of IndiaAnswer
     • dIndian Bank

     Explanation coming soon.

140. Q140The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

     The motto of Bank of India:

     • aWith Press of Trust
     • bCare at Every Step of Life
     • cThe Growing StoreAnswer
     • dLooking Forward to Tomorrow

     Explanation coming soon.

141. Q141The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

     The motto of State Bank of India:

     • aWith You All The WayAnswer
     • bA Tradition of Trust
     • cTrusted Family Bank
     • dCare at Every Stage of Life
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because 'With You All The Way' is the official motto and core tagline used by State Bank of India to express its comprehensive customer service. Option B: A Tradition of Trust was the official motto of the erstwhile Allahabad Bank. Option C: Trusted Family Bank was the motto of Dena Bank before its amalgamation into Bank of Baroda. Option D: Care at Every Stage of Life is a slogan used in the healthcare sector, not by State Bank of India.

142. Q142The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

     To which of the following does this symbol belong?

     
     • aBank of India Bank
     • bCanara Bank
     • cState Bank of IndiaAnswer
     • dIndian Bank

     Explanation coming soon.

143. Q143The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

     The slogan of State Bank of India is :

     • aWith you all the wayAnswer
     • bA tradition of trust
     • cTrusted family Bank
     • dCare at every stage of life
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because "With you all the way" (along with "The banker to every Indian") is an official slogan of the State Bank of India. Option B: "A tradition of trust" is the slogan of Allahabad Bank (now merged with Indian Bank). Option C: "A trusted family bank" or similar slogans are associated with other commercial banks, such as Dena Bank's "Trusted Family Bank". Option D: "Care at every stage of life" is not a recognized slogan of the State Bank of India.

144. Q144The named institutions: public sector undertakings, banks and their brands

     The previous name of Axis Bank

     • aU.T.I. BankAnswer
     • bBombay Stock Exchange
     • cICICI Bank
     • dReliance Bank
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Axis Bank was originally incorporated in 1993 as UTI Bank and was later rebranded as Axis Bank in 2007 to build an independent corporate identity. Option B: Bombay Stock Exchange is Asia's oldest stock exchange, not a former name of a commercial bank. Option C: ICICI Bank is a completely separate private banking corporation that developed from the erstwhile ICICI parent institution. Option D: Reliance Bank is a retail bank in the United Kingdom operated by The Salvation Army, unrelated to Axis Bank.

145. Q145Public finance and the budget

     According to the concept of 'VAT', which of the following descriptions does not clarify?

     • aIt reduces economic output
     • bIt is an era of generally taxing simple people
     • cIts effect is like a cascade effectAnswer
     • dIt is a self-implementing system
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because VAT is explicitly designed to eliminate the cascading effect (tax on tax) by providing input tax credits, so stating that its effect is like a cascading effect is fundamentally incorrect and does not describe VAT. Option A: It is framed as an incorrect description because VAT aims to avoid distorting economic choices and production efficiency. Option B: It is considered a broad general indirect consumption tax applied down to common retail consumers. Option D: It acts as a self-enforcing, self-implementing mechanism because buyers demand tax invoices to claim input tax credits.

146. Q146Public finance and the budget

     Which of the following measures in India would hinder good fiscal governance?

     • aIncreasing the debt-GDP ratioAnswer
     • bIncreasing the combined tax-GDP ratio
     • cReducing the fiscal deficit to zero
     • dReducing the proportion of interest payments relative to revenue receipts
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because an increasing debt-to-GDP ratio indicates that a nation's public debt is accumulating faster than its economic output, which increases interest obligations, crowds out private investment, and severely weakens fiscal stability. Option B: Increasing the tax-to-GDP ratio enhances the government's revenue capacity without excessive borrowing, supporting fiscal health. Option C: Reducing the fiscal deficit to zero reflects strict fiscal discipline and curtails sovereign debt growth. Option D: Reducing interest payments relative to revenue receipts leaves more fiscal space for productive development and capital expenditure.

147. Q147Public finance and the budget

     Deficit financing:

     • aAffects the mobilization of aggregate resources
     • bIs the source of money supply deficit
     • cIs deflationary in nature
     • dIs inflationary in nature.Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because deficit financing adds purchasing power to the economy and expands the money supply without an immediate matching increase in the output of goods and services, leading to inflationary pressures. Option A: Deficit financing is a direct mechanism for mobilizing aggregate resources rather than hindering their mobilization. Option B: Deficit financing creates an increase in the money supply, not a deficit or shrinkage of money supply. Option C: Deficit financing exerts upward pressure on aggregate demand and prices, making it inflationary rather than deflationary.

148. Q148Public finance and the budget

     Which of the following measures shall hamper a good fiscal administration in India?

     • aIncreasing the debt GDP ratioAnswer
     • bImproving the combined tax GDP ratio
     • cBringing down Revenue- deficit to Zero
     • dInterest Payment relative to revenue receipts being brought down
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because an increasing debt-to-GDP ratio indicates an unsustainable accumulation of sovereign debt, raising future debt servicing burdens and undermining macroeconomic stability. Option B: Improving the combined tax-to-GDP ratio strengthens public revenues and fiscal health rather than hampering administration. Option C: Bringing down the revenue deficit to zero is a core objective of prudent fiscal administration, as envisioned under the FRBM framework. Option D: Reducing interest payments relative to revenue receipts frees up budgetary resources for capital formation and social development.

149. Q149Public finance and the budget

     Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 ?

     • aElimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
     • bNon-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances
     • cElimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09Answer
     • dFixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the FRBM Act of 2003 did not mandate the elimination of the primary deficit; it mandated the elimination of the revenue deficit and containment of the fiscal deficit. Option A: The elimination of the revenue deficit by 2007-08 was an explicit statutory target of the original 2003 Act. Option B: Prohibiting direct central government borrowing from the RBI via primary market issuances was an integral reform under the Act. Option D: Setting caps on sovereign guarantees as a proportion of GDP was a binding rule under the FRBM framework.

150. Q150Public finance and the budget

     In which year zero based budget was introduced first time in India

     • a1986-87Answer
     • b1975-76
     • c1983
     • d1990
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Zero-Based Budgeting was formally introduced across Union government departments in India in the budget for the financial year 1986-87 under Finance Minister V. P. Singh. Concept developed by Peter Pyhrr: 1970 Experimental trial in Department of Science and Technology: 1983 Formal adoption across Union Budget: 1986-87 Option B: 1975-76 is incorrect because the technique had not yet been adopted in Indian budgetary practice. Option C: 1983 was limited to an experimental adoption within the Department of Science and Technology, not its formal budget-wide introduction. Option D: 1990 is incorrect because the system was implemented in the mid-1980s.

151. Q151Public finance and the budget

     What is the ratio of expenditure between the Central and State Governments for the 'Sakshar Bharat' scheme, launched on September 8, 2009?

     • a25:75 percent
     • b50:50 percent
     • c75:25 percentAnswer
     • d90:10 percent
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Saakshar Bharat Mission was implemented with a funding pattern of 75:25 between the Central Government and State Governments, with 90:10 reserved only for the Northeastern States. Option A: Incorrect because 25:75 reverses the funding shares, attributing an unrealistically low share to the Centre. Option B: Incorrect because a 50:50 equal sharing ratio was not adopted for this flagship literacy scheme. Option D: Incorrect because the 90:10 ratio was restricted specifically to the Northeastern States and not applicable generally.

152. Q152External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following transactions constitutes a current account transaction?

     • aExport of goods
     • bExport of services
     • cGiving a gift to foreignersAnswer
     • dReceiving a gift from foreigners

     Explanation coming soon.

153. Q153External sector and the world economy

     Which of the following transaction is a debt in the current account?

     • aThe export of merchandise
     • bThe export of services
     • cA gift to foreignersAnswer
     • dA gift from foreigners
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because providing a gift to foreigners involves an outflow of funds without receiving any quid pro quo, which is recorded as a debit entry under unilateral transfers in the current account. Option A: The export of merchandise generates foreign exchange receipts and is recorded as a credit. Option B: The export of services earns foreign currency and is entered as a credit. Option D: A gift received from foreigners brings foreign exchange into the country and constitutes a credit entry.

154. Q154External sector and the world economy

     A list of unexpected negative consequences due to MNCs is given. Which information has no place in the following list:

     • aSending out high dividend money
     • bCrowding out domestic savings and investment
     • cFulfilling export obligationsAnswer
     • dDominating a key sector
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because fulfilling export obligations improves the host country balance of payments and foreign exchange reserves, making it a positive economic contribution rather than an unexpected negative consequence. Option A: Sending out high dividend money is an adverse consequence because it leads to heavy capital outflows and strains the current account. Option B: Crowding out domestic savings and investment is an adverse consequence because multinational corporations preempt domestic credit and resources at the cost of local firms. Option D: Dominating a key sector is an adverse consequence because it suppresses local competitors and leads to monopolistic market power.

155. Q155External sector and the world economy

     The expected negative effects of MNCs are listed. Which item of the following list is out of place?

     • aLarge dividend remittance
     • bCrowding out domestic saving and investment
     • cFulfilling Export obligationsAnswer
     • dExercising influence in key sector
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because fulfilling export obligations is an intended beneficial outcome that enhances host-country export earnings, so it does not belong in a list of negative effects. Option A: Large dividend remittance is a recognized negative effect because it depletes the host nation foreign exchange reserves. Option B: Crowding out domestic saving and investment is a recognized negative effect because multinational access to local capital limits financing for domestic firms. Option D: Exercising influence in key sector is a recognized negative effect because foreign market control threatens domestic industrial autonomy.

156. Q156External sector and the world economy

     A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why ?

     • aIndia has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
     • bIndia has double taxation avoidance agreement with MauritiusAnswer
     • cMost citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
     • dImpending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because India and Mauritius entered into a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA), which historically exempted capital gains on the sale of shares in an Indian company by a Mauritius tax resident, leading to widespread treaty shopping and round-tripping of funds through Mauritius. Option A: India maintains uniform FDI policies across countries rather than giving country-specific preferences. Option C: Ethnic identity and sentiment are not the economic drivers behind institutional investment routing. Option D: Climate change threats have no direct relation to capital routing through tax-advantaged jurisdictions.

157. Q157Environment and sustainable development

     The correct meaning of sustainable development without falling:

     • aDeveloping conditions for the present generation without affecting the needs of future generationsAnswer
     • bDevelopment of sections at lower levels in society
     • cDevelopment with social justice
     • dDevelopment continuing over historical periods
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because sustainable development fundamentally hinges on intergenerational equity, ensuring that current human progress does not erode the natural capital required by future generations. Option B: Uplifting marginalized socio-economic strata refers to inclusive growth rather than the core principle of intergenerational resource sustainability. Option C: Pursuing growth alongside social justice refers to equitable development rather than the long-term ecological balance defined by sustainability. Option D: Continuing growth over long historical spans merely denotes chronological continuity without ensuring ecological preservation for the future.

158. Q158The Earth in the solar system

     Cosmology is the study of:

     • aCosmetics/skin beauty products
     • bUniverseAnswer
     • cCrime
     • dManuscript
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because cosmology is derived from the Greek words cosmos (universe) and logos (study), defining the branch of astronomy dedicated to the universe's origin and development. Option A: Cosmetics or skin beauty products relate to cosmetology, not cosmology. Option C: The study of crime and criminal behaviour is known as criminology. Option D: The study of ancient manuscripts and historical handwriting is known as palaeography.

159. Q159The Earth in the solar system

     The basic fuel for the thermo-nuclear reactions going on within the sun is

     • aHelium
     • bHydrogenAnswer
     • cCarbon
     • dOxygen
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the fundamental energy source of the Sun is nuclear fusion, wherein hydrogen nuclei fuse together via the proton-proton chain to produce helium. Option A: Helium is the primary product formed from the fusion of hydrogen, not the primary starting fuel driving the reaction. Option C: Carbon acts merely as a catalyst in higher-mass stars via the CNO cycle, but it is not the basic fuel inside the Sun. Option D: Oxygen is a heavier element present in trace amounts and does not serve as the basic fuel for the Sun's core thermonuclear reactions.

160. Q160The Earth in the solar system

     On March 21 and September 21, the sun's rays directly fall on which of the following?

     • aEquinox
     • bEquatorAnswer
     • cProtosphere
     • dTropic of Capricorn
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because on the equinoxes, March 21 and September 21, the Sun is directly overhead at the Equator, resulting in nearly equal day and night across the globe. Option A: Equinox is incorrect because it is the astronomical event itself, not the geographic parallel where the rays fall. Option C: Protosphere is incorrect because it is not a geographic latitude on Earth. Option D: Tropic of Capricorn is incorrect because the Sun is directly overhead there during the December solstice.