TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2010

367 questions from the 2010 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

281. Q281Series, analogy and odd man out

     Among the following, identify the odd one out:

     • a529
     • b629Answer
     • c729
     • d1089
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because 629 is not a perfect square, whereas all the other options are perfect squares of integers. 529 is the square of 23 729 is the square of 27 1089 is the square of 33 629 is not a perfect square, being equal to 17 multiplied by 37 Option A: 529 is the exact square of 23. Option C: 729 is the exact square of 27. Option D: 1089 is the exact square of 33.

282. Q282Series, analogy and odd man out

     Arrange the following information in order from general to specific: A. Animal B. Phylum C. Leopard D. Mammal E. Vertebrate F. Cat

     • aA,B,C,D,E,F
     • bA,C,E,D,B,F
     • cA,F,C,E,D,B
     • dA,E,D,B,C,FAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

283. Q283Series, analogy and odd man out

     Identify the odd one out from the following:

     • aHinduismAnswer
     • bChristianity
     • cZoroastrianism
     • dIslam
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Hinduism does not have a single historical founder, whereas Christianity, Zoroastrianism, and Islam are founded religions traced back to specific prophets or founders (Jesus Christ, Zoroaster, and Prophet Muhammad, respectively). Option B: Christianity was founded by a specific historical figure, Jesus Christ. Option C: Zoroastrianism was founded by the prophet Zoroaster. Option D: Islam was founded historically through the teachings of Prophet Muhammad.

284. Q284Series, analogy and odd man out

     If currency is Rupee, then nationality?

     • aNation
     • bPerson
     • cPatriotism
     • dIndianAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Rupee is a specific instance of the general category currency, and Indian is a specific instance of the general category nationality. Option A: Nation represents the overarching political entity rather than a specific nationality term. Option B: Person denotes a human being rather than an identity based on nationality. Option C: Patriotism refers to a sentiment or value of national loyalty, not a nationality.

285. Q285Series, analogy and odd man out

     Just as organs are connected in the body, what is connected in a tree?

     • aSeed
     • bStem
     • cBranchAnswer
     • dRoot
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because organs are individual functioning components joined together to form the body structure, just as branches are interconnected limbs attached to form the overall framework of a tree. Option A: Seed is the embryonic plant unit from which a tree originates, not an interconnected part of a mature tree. Option B: Stem is the central single axis or trunk rather than multiple interconnected structural units. Option D: Root is an anchoring and nutrient-absorbing underground structure, not the interconnected spreading limbs analogous to organs.

286. Q286Coding, decoding and relations

     If the letters RIDANI DINAGM are rearranged, whose name among the following does it belong to?

     • aPoliticianAnswer
     • bPresident
     • cGovernor
     • dActor / Actress
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because rearranging the letters forms the name of a prominent political leader, Indira Gandhi. Option B: Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India, not a President. Option C: Indira Gandhi never held the post of Governor. Option D: Indira Gandhi was a statesman and politician, not an actor or actress.

287. Q287Coding, decoding and relations

     If KNOWLEDGE is coded as ‘256535476’, how can ‘GENERAL’ be coded?

     • a7545993
     • b7969393
     • c7555912
     • d7555913Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because each letter is coded as the sum of the digits of its positional rank in the English alphabet. G = 7 E = 5 N = 14 = 1 + 4 = 5 E = 5 R = 18 = 1 + 8 = 9 A = 1 L = 12 = 1 + 2 = 3 Option A: codes N as 4 instead of 5. Option B: incorrectly assigns values of 9 and 6 to E and N. Option C: codes L as 2 instead of 3.

288. Q288Coding, decoding and relations

     Rearrange the letters SESTA to form a meaningful word?

     • aSets
     • bAssetAnswer
     • cTests
     • dTseas
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because rearranging all five given letters S, E, S, T, and A in the sequence A-S-S-E-T forms the valid English word Asset. Option A: uses only four letters and omits the letter A. Option C: contains two Ts, which are not present in the given set of letters. Option D: forms a non-existent word that has no meaning in English.

289. Q289Coding, decoding and relations

     B is A's son, D is B's son. E married C. C is B's daughter. Then, how is D related to E?

     • aBrother-in-lawAnswer
     • bFather-in-law
     • cUncle
     • dBrother
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because D and C are brother and sister, and since E is married to C, D is the brother of E's wife, making him E's brother-in-law. Option B: D is in the same generation as E, not his father-in-law. Option C: D is E's wife's brother, which does not make him an uncle. Option D: D is related to E by marriage, not as a biological brother.

290. Q290Coding, decoding and relations

     Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is my grandmother's only son”. How is that woman related to that man?

     • aSister
     • bSonAnswer
     • cAunt
     • dMother

     Explanation coming soon.

291. Q291Coding, decoding and relations

     A person walked 10 meters forward, then 10 meters to the right. After that, turning left each time, he walked 5, 15, and 15 meters respectively. Now, how far is he from the starting point?

     • a20 meters
     • b15 meters
     • c10 meters
     • d5 metersAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because tracking the coordinates after all turns shows the person ends up exactly 5 meters away from the starting point along the west-east axis. Initial movement forward: 10 m North First right turn: 10 m East First left turn: 5 m North Second left turn: 15 m West Third left turn: 15 m South Net North-South position: 10 + 5 - 15 = 0 m Net East-West position: 10 - 15 = -5 m Distance from starting point: 5 meters Option A: 20 meters is incorrect because it fails to account for the canceling out of opposite directional movements. Option B: 15 meters is incorrect because the final southward movement brings the person back to the horizontal axis of the origin. Option C: 10 meters is incorrect because the net westward shift is 5 meters, not 10 meters.

292. Q292Coding, decoding and relations

     In a class, Rahul is ranked tenth from the top and thirty-fourth from the bottom. How many students are there in the class?

     • a45
     • b43Answer
     • c46
     • d44
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the total number of students in a ranking line is found by adding the position from the top and the position from the bottom, then subtracting one to avoid counting the same person twice. Rank from top: 10 Rank from bottom: 34 Total students: 10 + 34 - 1 = 43 Option A: 45 is incorrect because it adds two extra positions rather than subtracting the double count. Option C: 46 is incorrect because it simply adds the two values plus two. Option D: 44 is incorrect because it represents the raw sum 10 + 34 without subtracting 1 for Rahul's double count.

293. Q293Shapes, figures and Venn diagrams

     In a group of 15, 7 people study French and 8 people study English. Among them, three (3) do not study either of these. How many people study both French and English?

     • a0
     • b3Answer
     • c4
     • d5
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because deducting the 3 people who study neither language leaves 12 people studying at least one, and subtracting that from the sum of individual counts yields 3 people studying both. Total who study at least one subject = 15 - 3 = 12 People studying French = 7 People studying English = 8 Both French and English = 7 + 8 - 12 = 3 Option A: 0 incorrectly treats French and English learners as completely mutually exclusive. Option C: 4 underestimates the number of individuals studying at least one subject. Option D: 5 incorrectly calculates the intersection using the entire group of 15 without removing non-learners.

294. Q294Shapes, figures and Venn diagrams

     What does the following 'sign' indicate?

     
     • aRoad end
     • bNo right turn
     • cStopping place
     • dNo stopping zoneAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

295. Q295Clocks, calendars and ages

     Which two months have the same calendar?

     • aJune, October
     • bApril, JulyAnswer
     • cOctober, December
     • dApril, November
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because two months have the exact same calendar if the total number of days between their starting dates is a multiple of 7, leaving zero odd days. Days in April: 30 Days in May: 31 Days in June: 30 Total days from April 1 to July 1: 30 + 31 + 30 = 91 days 91 divided by 7 leaves 0 odd days Option A: June to October spans 122 days, leaving 3 odd days, so their start days differ. Option C: October to December spans 61 days, leaving 5 odd days, so their start days differ. Option D: April to November spans 214 days, leaving 4 odd days, so their start days differ.

296. Q296Clocks, calendars and ages

     Which two months among the following have the same type of calendar?

     • aApril, June
     • bJanuary, December
     • cApril, JulyAnswer
     • dJune, October
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the number of days between the first day of April and the first day of July is an exact multiple of 7, meaning both months start on the same weekday. Days in April: 30 Days in May: 31 Days in June: 30 Total days between April 1 and July 1: 91 91 divided by 7 leaves a remainder of 0 odd days Option A: April to June covers 61 days, leaving 5 odd days, so they do not share the same calendar. Option B: January to December covers 335 or 336 days, leaving odd days, so their calendars do not match. Option D: June to October covers 122 days, leaving 3 odd days, so they start on different weekdays.

297. Q297Number system and basic operations

     Among the numbers from 11 to 50, how many numbers are exactly divisible by 7 but not by 3?

     • atwo
     • bfive
     • cfourAnswer
     • dsix
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because among the multiples of 7 between 11 and 50, exactly two are divisible by 3, leaving four numbers. Multiples of 7 from 11 to 50 are 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49. Multiples also divisible by 3 are 21 and 42. Numbers divisible by 7 but not by 3 are 14, 28, 35, 49. Total count = 4 Option A: undercounts the valid numbers by omitting 28 and 35. Option B: overcounts by failing to eliminate one of the multiples of 3. Option D: counts all multiples of 7 without excluding those divisible by 3.

298. Q298Number system and basic operations

     In descending order, which of the following is the correct order? A. Trillion B. Thousand C. Billion D. Hundred E. Million

     • aA, B, C, D, E
     • bA, C, E, B, DAnswer
     • cD, B, E, C, A
     • dE, C, B, D, A
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because arranging the units from largest power of ten to smallest gives the sequence Trillion, Billion, Million, Thousand, Hundred. Trillion = 10^12 Billion = 10^9 Million = 10^6 Thousand = 10^3 Hundred = 10^2 Option A: places Thousand before Billion and Million, violating descending order. Option C: lists the units in ascending order rather than descending order. Option D: starts with Million, which is smaller than Trillion and Billion.

299. Q299Number system and basic operations

     A student made twice as many mistakes as correct answers in calculations. If he attempted 36 problems, how many problems did he do correctly?

     • a18
     • b24
     • c9
     • d12Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because solving the relationship between the correct answers and mistakes yields 12 correct calculations. Let correct answers be C and mistakes be M M = 2C Total attempted = C + M = C + 2C = 3C = 36 C = 36 / 3 = 12 Option A: 18 assumes the student got half of the attempted problems correct. Option B: 24 represents the number of mistakes made rather than the correct answers. Option C: 9 corresponds to attempting 27 problems under the same ratio.

300. Q300Time, work, speed and distance

     A train is travelling at a speed of 120 km/hr. How much time will it take to travel a distance of 10 km?

     • a5 minutesAnswer
     • b10 minutes
     • c15 minutes
     • d30 minutes
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because dividing the given distance by the speed gives the required time in hours, which converts directly to 5 minutes. Time = Distance / Speed Time = 10 km / 120 km/hr = 1/12 hour 1/12 hour = (1/12) × 60 minutes = 5 minutes Option B: It mistakenly doubles the required time to 10 minutes. Option C: It results from calculating (15/60) × 120 = 30 km instead of 10 km. Option D: It corresponds to half an hour, which would cover a distance of 60 km.

301. Q301Mensuration and geometry

     If a box is 2 m wide and 1m deep, how long should it be hold 16 cubic metres of sand?

     • a12m
     • b16m
     • c8mAnswer
     • d10m
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the required length equals the volume divided by the cross-sectional area, giving 8 m. Volume = length × width × depth 16 = length × 2 × 1 Length = 16 / 2 = 8 m Option A: 12m gives an incorrect length that would yield a volume of 24 cubic metres. Option B: 16m fails to divide the volume by the base dimensions. Option D: 10m is an arithmetic mistake.

302. Q302Mensuration and geometry

     If a box has a width of 2 m and a depth of 1 m, what should be its length to hold 16 cubic meters of sand?

     • a12 m
     • b16 m
     • c8 mAnswer
     • d10 m
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because dividing the total volume by the product of the width and depth yields a length of 8 m. Volume = length × width × depth 16 = length × 2 × 1 Length = 16 / 2 = 8 m Option A: 12 m incorrectly calculates the required length. Option B: 16 m forgets to divide by the width of the box. Option D: 10 m is an arithmetic error.

303. Q303Vocabulary

     The synonym for ‘haste’ is

     • aHurryAnswer
     • bFast
     • cRush
     • dQuick
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because haste is a noun referring to excessive speed or urgency of movement or action, which directly corresponds to hurry. Option B: Fast is an adjective or adverb describing speed rather than a direct noun equivalent of haste. Option C: Rush can denote forceful movement or sudden flow, whereas haste specifically emphasizes urgency in time. Option D: Quick is an adjective describing promptness rather than an equivalent noun.

304. Q304Vocabulary

     Synonym of Haste:

     • aHurryAnswer
     • bFast
     • cRush
     • dQuick
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because haste denotes speed or urgency in action, making the noun hurry its most accurate synonym. Option B: Fast is predominantly an adjective or adverb describing the rate of movement, not a noun synonym. Option C: Rush implies forceful or uncontrolled physical motion rather than simply acting with urgency. Option D: Quick is an adjective indicating rapid action or response rather than the state of urgency.

305. Q305Vocabulary

     Which of the following always indicates worry?

     • aNon-Cooperation
     • bUnrestAnswer
     • cPoignancy
     • dDifficulty
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because unrest denotes a state of agitation, internal turbulence, or continuous mental disquiet and worry. Option A: Non-Cooperation refers to a refusal to collaborate or comply, which is an action rather than an emotional state of worry. Option C: Poignancy refers to a quality that evokes a keen sense of sadness, regret, or sharp feeling rather than worry. Option D: Difficulty refers to an external obstacle or hardship, which does not inherently denote the internal state of worry.

306. Q306Vocabulary

     The antonym for ‘hard’ is:

     • aRigid
     • bSoftAnswer
     • cFlexible
     • dTough
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the primary antonym of hard in tactile and physical properties is soft. Option A: Rigid is a synonym meaning firm and not bendable. Option C: Flexible is an antonym of stiff or rigid rather than the standard direct opposite of hard. Option D: Tough is synonymous with strong and resistant to pressure or damage.

307. Q307Vocabulary

     Antonym of Hard:

     • aRigid
     • bSoftAnswer
     • cFlexible
     • dTough
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because soft represents the direct physical opposite of hard, signifying something that yields easily to pressure. Option A: Rigid is a synonym of hard, describing an inability to bend or be forced out of shape. Option C: Flexible is the antonym of rigid or stiff, rather than the primary physical antonym of hard. Option D: Tough is a synonym denoting durability and resistance to breaking.

308. Q308Letters, literature and general English knowledge

     Identify the name of the creator of the popular fictional character Hercule Poirot:

     • aJules Verne
     • bAgastha ChristieAnswer
     • cArthur Conan Doyle
     • dMark Twain
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Hercule Poirot, the fictional Belgian private detective, was created by the British crime novelist Agatha Christie and made his debut in The Mysterious Affair at Styles. Option A: Jules Verne created characters like Captain Nemo and Phileas Fogg in his adventure novels. Option C: Arthur Conan Doyle created the legendary detective Sherlock Holmes. Option D: Mark Twain created iconic American literary characters like Huckleberry Finn and Tom Sawyer.

309. Q309Letters, literature and general English knowledge

     Identify the name of the popular fictional character created by Satyajit Ray:

     • aFeludaAnswer
     • bLord Voldemort
     • cTarzan
     • dCaptian Nemo
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Feluda is the renowned private investigator created by the Indian filmmaker and author Satyajit Ray, debuting in the magazine Sandesh. Option B: Lord Voldemort was created by J. K. Rowling for the Harry Potter series. Option C: Tarzan was created by the American pulp fiction writer Edgar Rice Burroughs. Option D: Captain Nemo was created by French novelist Jules Verne in Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea.

310. Q310Letters, literature and general English knowledge

     Identify the name of the creator of the popular fictional character Sherlock Holmes:

     • aJules Verne
     • bAgatha Christie
     • cArthur Conan DoyleAnswer
     • dMark Twain
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Sir Arthur Conan Doyle created the iconic fictional detective Sherlock Holmes, who first appeared in the novel A Study in Scarlet in 1887. Option A: Jules Verne created characters like Captain Nemo and Phileas Fogg, not Sherlock Holmes. Option B: Agatha Christie created detectives Hercule Poirot and Miss Marple. Option D: Mark Twain created characters such as Tom Sawyer and Huckleberry Finn.

311. Q311Letters, literature and general English knowledge

     Identify the popular fictional character created by Satyajit Ray:

     • aFeludaAnswer
     • bLord Valdemort
     • cTuraan
     • dCaptain Nemo
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Feluda, whose full name is Prodosh Chandra Mitter, is a popular Bengali fictional detective created by Satyajit Ray in 1965. Option B: Lord Voldemort is the fictional dark wizard created by British author J. K. Rowling. Option C: Turaan is not a fictional character created by Satyajit Ray. Option D: Captain Nemo is the fictional submarine commander created by French author Jules Verne.

312. Q312Letters, literature and general English knowledge

     Identify the name of the creator of the popular fictional character Lord Voldemort:

     • aEoin Coulfer
     • bJ.K. RowlingAnswer
     • cSalman Rushdie
     • dEdgar Rice Burroughs
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because British author J.K. Rowling created the dark wizard Lord Voldemort as the primary antagonist of the Harry Potter fantasy series. Option A: Eoin Colfer is an Irish author best known for writing the Artemis Fowl series. Option C: Salman Rushdie is an acclaimed novelist famous for works such as Midnights Children. Option D: Edgar Rice Burroughs created adventure characters including Tarzan and John Carter.

313. Q313Letters, literature and general English knowledge

     Identify the popular fictional character created by Edgar Rice Burroughs:

     • aFeluda
     • bHercule Poirot
     • cTarzanAnswer
     • dGandalf
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Tarzan is the jungle hero created by American writer Edgar Rice Burroughs, first appearing in the 1912 story Tarzan of the Apes. Option A: Feluda was created by the Bengali filmmaker and author Satyajit Ray. Option B: Hercule Poirot was created by the British mystery writer Agatha Christie. Option D: Gandalf was created by the British author J. R. R. Tolkien in The Hobbit and The Lord of the Rings.

314. Q314People: appointments, honours and passings

     UNESCO's first woman Director-General:

     • aCristina Kirchner
     • bIrina BokovaAnswer
     • cElizabeth Hold
     • dIlgar Andres
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Irina Bokova of Bulgaria was elected Director-General of UNESCO in 2009, serving until 2017 as the first woman to lead the organisation since its founding. Option A: Cristina Kirchner was the President of Argentina and not associated with the leadership of UNESCO. Option C: Elizabeth Hold is an invented name in this context and never served as Director-General of UNESCO. Option D: Ilgar Andres is not associated with the leadership of UNESCO.

315. Q315People: appointments, honours and passings

     Chief Justice of India's Supreme Court:

     • aS. H. KapadiaAnswer
     • bA. R. Dave
     • cD. N. R. Varma
     • dK. G. Balakrishnan
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Justice S. H. Kapadia served as the 38th Chief Justice of India from May 2010 to September 2012. Option B: A. R. Dave served as a judge of the Supreme Court of India but never held the office of Chief Justice of India. Option C: D. N. R. Varma is not among the former Chief Justices of India. Option D: K. G. Balakrishnan was the 37th Chief Justice of India, who retired before S. H. Kapadia took office.

316. Q316People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who is the President of Bharatiya Janata Party?

     • aL. K. Advani
     • bSushma Swaraj
     • cVenkaiah Naidu
     • dNitin GadkariAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Nitin Gadkari served as the National President of the Bharatiya Janata Party from December 2009 to January 2013, the period when this examination question was administered. Option A: L. K. Advani served multiple earlier terms as party president, most recently concluding in 2005. Option B: Sushma Swaraj held several major ministerial and parliamentary posts but was never the National President of the party. Option C: M. Venkaiah Naidu served as party president earlier, from 2002 to 2004.

317. Q317People: appointments, honours and passings

     Comptroller and Auditor General of India is :

     • aVinod RoyAnswer
     • bT.N. Chaturvedi
     • cC.K. Bhat
     • dVinay Chopra
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Vinod Rai served as the 11th Comptroller and Auditor General of India from January 2008 to May 2013. Option B: T.N. Chaturvedi held the office of Comptroller and Auditor General decades earlier, from 1984 to 1990. Option C: C.K. Bhat has never held the constitutional office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Option D: Vinay Chopra has never served as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

318. Q318People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who was the longest serving Chief Minister in India?

     • aChimanbhai Patel
     • bHiteshwar Saikia
     • cBhajan Lal
     • dJyoti BasuAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because among the given options, Jyoti Basu was the longest-serving Chief Minister, holding the office in West Bengal continuously for over 23 years from 1977 to 2000. Option A: Chimanbhai Patel served as Chief Minister of Gujarat for relatively short periods totaling less than six years. Option B: Hiteswar Saikia served as Chief Minister of Assam for two separate terms totaling around eight years. Option C: Bhajan Lal served as Chief Minister of Haryana across two non-consecutive terms totaling roughly eleven years.

319. Q319People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who received the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development 2009 from the President of India?

     • aBill Clinton
     • bBarack Obama
     • cAung San Suu Kyi
     • dBill GatesAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Bill Gates received the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 2009 on behalf of the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation in recognition of its philanthropic work in healthcare and disease prevention. Option A: Bill Clinton was not the recipient of the Indira Gandhi Prize for 2009. Option B: Barack Obama won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2009, not the Indira Gandhi Prize. Option C: Aung San Suu Kyi was conferred the Indira Gandhi Prize much earlier, for the year 1995.

320. Q320People: appointments, honours and passings

     Shyam Charan of Kalpa village, Kinnaur district, was honored by Chief Chapta, Chief Election Commissioner of India, in Himachal Pradesh on June 12, 2010, because:

     • ahe was one of the most senior citizens in India
     • bhe was one of those who voted in all elections
     • che was one of the first voters in India before independence
     • dhe was one of the first few voters in independent IndiaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Shyam Saran Negi (referred to as Shyam Charan) from Kalpa, Kinnaur, was recognized as the first voter of independent India when early polling was conducted in Himachal Pradesh in October 1951 ahead of the 1951-52 general elections. Option A: He was honored specifically for his historic voting record rather than merely being one of India's oldest citizens. Option B: While he did vote consistently in general elections, the unique distinction that brought him national recognition was casting the very first vote in independent India. Option C: His first vote was cast post-independence in October 1951, not before independence.