TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2023

163 questions from the 2023 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

1. Q1Vedic Age and the Mahajanapadas

   According to Ajivika philosophy, which is the central idea that determines the life of a person?

   • aKarma
   • bDharma
   • cArtha
   • dNiyatiAnswer
   ›Explanation

   Option D is correct because the Ajivika school, founded by Makkhali Gosala, held Niyati (absolute destiny or cosmic fate) as the supreme principle governing all phenomena and human existence. Option A: Ajivikas rejected the efficacy of Karma, believing that human effort could not alter destiny. Option B: Dharma was not the central deterministic force in the fatalist Ajivika metaphysics. Option C: Artha refers to material wealth in classical Indian thought and is not the central philosophical determinant of Ajivika doctrine.

2. Q2Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Identify the wrong pair/pairs: Authors Texts A. Bhasa : Dradira Charudatta B. Dandin : Dasakumaracharitra C. Subandhu : Vasavadatta D. Bharavi : Ravanavadha

   • aA only
   • bB only
   • cA and D onlyAnswer
   • dC and D only
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because pairs A and D are both incorrectly matched in the context of classical Sanskrit literature. Daridra Charudatta: Attributed to Sudraka or viewed as an incomplete precursor rather than a standard work of Bhasa Dasakumaracharita: Authored by Dandin Vasavadatta: Authored by Subandhu Ravanavadha: Authored by Bhatti, whereas Bharavi authored Kiratarjuniya Option A: Option A is incorrect because pair D is also an incorrect match as Bharavi did not compose Ravanavadha. Option B: Option B is incorrect because Dandin is indeed the author of Dasakumaracharita. Option D: Option D is incorrect because pair C is correctly matched since Subandhu authored Vasavadatta.

3. Q3Gupta and post-Gupta India

   With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs : Literary work Author a. Deuichandragupta : Bilhana b. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri c. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna d. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?

   • aOnly a
   • bOnly b
   • cOnly cAnswer
   • dAll of the above

   Explanation coming soon.

4. Q4Gupta and post-Gupta India

   Which among the following pairs is not correctly matched? A. Somnath Temple : Solankis B. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple : Chauhans C. Aihole Temple : Badami Chalukyas D. Konark Temple : Chandelas

   • aA and B only
   • bB and C only
   • cB and D onlyAnswer
   • dA and D only
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because pairs B and D are incorrectly matched; the Kandariya Mahadeva Temple was built by the Chandela dynasty, and the Konark Sun Temple was built by the Eastern Ganga dynasty. Somnath Temple: Solankis Kandariya Mahadeva Temple: Chandelas Aihole Temples: Badami Chalukyas Konark Sun Temple: Eastern Gangas Option A: Pair A is a correct match because the Solankis patronised the Somnath Temple. Option B: Pair C is a correct match because the Badami Chalukyas built the Aihole temples. Option D: Pair A is a correct match, making this combination incorrect.

5. Q5Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Consider the following dynasties: a. Hoysala b. Gahadavala c. Kakatiya d. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD ?

   • aOnly a
   • bOnly b
   • cOnly cAnswer
   • dAll of the above

   Explanation coming soon.

6. Q6Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Consider the following statements about Warangal fort and its inner constructions: A. Shitabhkhan constructed 'Kush Mahal' in the fort of Warangal, which is a replica of 'Hindola Mahal' at Mandu. B. Pratapa Charitra, Siddeshwara Charitra and Kridabhiramam contain interesting descriptions on the fort of Warangal. C. According to Pratapa Charitra, Warangal fort contains 88 bastions or kottalamulu. D. According to Sivayoga Saramu the foundation of Warangal fort was laid by Ganapatideva. Which of the above statements are correct?

   • aA and B onlyAnswer
   • bB and C only
   • cC and D only
   • dA and D only
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because statements A and B are historically accurate regarding the Warangal fort and its chronicled descriptions. Statement C: Pratapa Charitra records 77 bastions corresponding to the 77 Padmanayaka chiefs, not 88. Statement D: Sivayoga Saramu attributes the initiation of the fort construction to Rudradeva, whereas Ganapatideva completed it. Option B: It incorrectly includes statement C. Option C: It incorrectly treats statements C and D as correct. Option D: It incorrectly includes statement D.

7. Q7Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   Consider the following of Kakatiya period : A. The usual way of representing the people in general during the Kakatiya period is by mentioning them as 'Ashtadasapraja'. B. People of this period led a corporate life. C. During Kakatiya period individual castes organized their corporate associations called 'Samayachara' to look after their well-being. D. The Brahmin villages were generally formed into an association called 'Asamkhyatulu'. Which of the above statements are not correct?

   • aA and B
   • bB and C
   • cC and DAnswer
   • dA and D
   ›Explanation

   Option C is correct because statements C and D are historically incorrect. Samaya, not Samayachara, referred to caste or professional guild associations, and Asamkhyatulu referred to Saivite devotees or Virasaiva bodies rather than Brahmin village associations (which were known as Mahajanas). Option A: A and B are both historically accurate statements regarding the Kakatiya social order. Option B: B is a correct statement describing corporate life in Kakatiya society. Option D: A is correct, making this pairing incorrect.

8. Q8Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   'Shivayogasaram' gives details about the family history of which Kakatiya subordinates?

   • aInduluri ChiefsAnswer
   • bCheraku Chiefs
   • cKota Chiefs
   • dMalyala Chiefs
   ›Explanation

   Option A is correct because Shivayogasaram, composed by Kolani Ganapatideva, details the genealogy and achievements of the Induluri chiefs who served as prominent commanders under the Kakatiyas. Option B: Cheraku Chiefs were Kakatiya feudatories whose family history is known through regional inscriptions rather than Shivayogasaram. Option C: Kota Chiefs ruled the Dharanikota region, and their history is documented in Amaravati and other local epigraphs. Option D: Malyala Chiefs served in the Vardhamanapuram region and their deeds are recorded primarily in temple stone inscriptions.

9. Q9Early medieval South Indian dynasties

   During Kakatiya period, three Acharyas were popularly known as 'Pandita-traya'. Identify them.

   • aMallikarjuna Pandita, Palkuriki Somanatha and Visvesvara Pandita
   • bSripati Pandita, Mallikarjuna Pandita and Manchana PanditaAnswer
   • cVisvesvara Pandita, Mallikarjuna Pandita and Manchana Pandita
   • dSripati Pandita, Palkuriki Somanatha and Manchana Pandita
   ›Explanation

   Option B is correct because Sripati Pandita, Mallikarjuna Pandita, and Manchana Pandita were the three prominent Saiva scholars who established and propagated the Aradhya Saiva tradition in medieval Andhra, collectively revered as the Pandita-traya. Option A: Palkuriki Somanatha was the celebrated biographer and Virasaiva poet who wrote Basava Purana and Panditaradhya Charitra, but is not counted among the trio. Option C: Visvesvara Pandita, also known as Visvesvara Sambhu, was the royal preceptor of Ganapatideva and Rudramadevi, belonging to the Pasupata sect rather than the Pandita-traya. Option D: Palkuriki Somanatha is wrongly included instead of Mallikarjuna Pandita.

10. Q10The Delhi Sultanate

    "Iltutmish got erected two marble statues of lions and bells hanged to their necks. Anybody could ring these bells and seek justice from the Sultan." Who among the following writers recorded this statement?

    • aMinhaj-us-Siraj
    • bIbn BatutaAnswer
    • cIsami
    • dMalik Qutb-ud-din
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Ibn Battuta recorded in his travelogue, the Rihla, that Iltutmish had erected two stone lions at the palace gate with bells attached to chains around their necks so that any petitioner seeking justice could ring them. Option A: Minhaj-us-Siraj wrote the contemporary history Tabaqat-i Nasiri, but this specific anecdote about the justice bells and lions was recorded by Ibn Battuta. Option C: Isami authored the historical verse Futuh-us-Salatin, which does not record this specific account. Option D: Malik Qutb-ud-din was an administrator, not the traveler who wrote this observation.

11. Q11Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    In the Vijayanagara history which dynasty came to the throne after the "First usurpation"?

    • aTuluva
    • bSaluvaAnswer
    • cAravidu
    • dSangama
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the First Usurpation of 1485 occurred when Saluva Narasimha overthrew the weak Sangama ruler Praudha Raya to establish the Saluva dynasty. Sangama dynasty: 1336 to 1485 First Usurpation: 1485, led by Saluva Narasimha Saluva dynasty: 1485 to 1505 Second Usurpation: 1505, led by Vira Narasimha Tuluva Tuluva dynasty: 1505 to 1570 Aravidu dynasty: 1570 onwards Option A: The Tuluva dynasty came to power after the Second Usurpation in 1505, not the first. Option C: The Aravidu dynasty came to power after the Battle of Talikota in 1570, long after the first usurpation. Option D: The Sangama dynasty was the reigning house that was displaced by the First Usurpation.

12. Q12Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    Choose the incorrect pair in the following.

    • aFernao Nuniz - Achyutha Devaraya
    • bAbdul Razzak - Devaraya II
    • cCaesar Frederick - Venkatapathiraya IIAnswer
    • dDomingo Paes - Krishna Deva Raya
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Caesar Frederick visited Vijayanagara in 1567 shortly after the Battle of Talikota, during the time of Tirumala Raya and Sadasiva Raya, not during the later reign of Venkatapathiraya II. Nicolo Conti: Devaraya I Abdul Razzak: Devaraya II Domingo Paes: Krishna Deva Raya Fernao Nuniz: Achyutha Devaraya Caesar Frederick: Tirumala Raya / Post-Talikota era Option A: Fernao Nuniz - Achyutha Devaraya is a historically correct pairing because Nuniz spent several years at his court. Option B: Abdul Razzak - Devaraya II is a historically correct pairing as the Persian envoy visited his court in 1443. Option D: Domingo Paes - Krishna Deva Raya is a historically correct pairing because Paes visited Vijayanagara around 1520.

13. Q13Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large “Dam across Tungabhadra River and "a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city ?

    • aDevaraya IAnswer
    • bMallikarjuna
    • cVira Vijaya
    • dVirupaksha
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Devaraya I built a large barrage across the Tungabhadra River and an aqueduct-cum-canal several kilometres long to lead water directly into the capital city, as recorded by the Italian traveler Nicolo Conti. Option B: Mallikarjuna ruled much later in the Sangama dynasty and was not associated with major irrigation engineering at the capital. Option C: Vira Vijaya had a very brief and uneventful reign without major infrastructure works. Option D: Virupaksha was the last weak ruler of the Sangama dynasty, noted for political instability rather than river engineering.

14. Q14Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    South India was the custodian of the pure classical techniques of dance. In Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, the devadasis kept the dance tradition alive by performing solo and dance-dramas. What are dance-dramas called in South India ?

    • aChhau nritya
    • bKuravanjisAnswer
    • cAngika Abhinaya
    • dAalambana
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Kuravanjis are traditional South Indian dance-dramas with poetic librettos, classically performed by devadasis in temple precincts to depict spiritual allegories through nritta and abhinaya. Option A: It is a semi-classical martial dance-drama form native to eastern India, specifically Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. Option C: It denotes physical or bodily expression within the Natyashastra classification of abhinaya, not a category of dance-drama. Option D: It is a term in Indian aesthetic theory referring to the primary cause or support of an emotion, not a performance genre.

15. Q15Vijayanagara and the Deccan Sultanates

    During the Qutb Shahi period, both the Hindu and Muslim elite wore dresses consisting of Kulah and Qaba. What do these two terms mean?

    • aCap and long coatAnswer
    • bTrousers and belt
    • cShirt and dhoti
    • dHead-band and tie
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Kulah refers to a distinctive Persian-style conical cap or headdress, while Qaba denotes an ankle-length open-fronted coat or tunic worn by the nobility. Option B: Trousers were referred to as Izar or Shalwar, and the waistband or belt was called Patka or Kamarband. Option C: Shirt was known as Kurta or Pirahan, and the dhoti was a traditional unstitched lower garment rather than Kulah or Qaba. Option D: Neither Kulah nor Qaba means a head-band or a tie, which were not customary elements of Deccan court attire.

16. Q16The Mughal Empire

    Match the following: Painters Mughal Rulers A. Mir Sayyid Ali 1. Humayun B. Daswanth 2. Akbar C. Ustad Mansur 3. Jahangir D. Mir Hashim 4. Shah Jahan Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4Answer
    • bA-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    • cA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    • dA-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because each painter is correctly matched with the Mughal emperor who patronized him. Mir Sayyid Ali was brought to India from Persia by Humayun. Daswanth was one of the foremost court painters of Akbar. Ustad Mansur was the celebrated flora and fauna painter under Jahangir. Mir Hashim was a renowned portrait painter in the court of Shah Jahan. Option B: It incorrectly associates Mir Sayyid Ali with Akbar and Daswanth with Shah Jahan. Option C: It wrongly matches Daswanth with Jahangir and Ustad Mansur with Akbar. Option D: It wrongly links Mir Sayyid Ali to Jahangir and Mir Hashim to Akbar.

17. Q17The Mughal Empire

    According to Abul Fazal, Akbar started one thousand karkhanas for producing woollen clothes. At which among the following places did he establish them?

    • aSurat
    • bDacca
    • cLahoreAnswer
    • dAmritsar
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because according to Abul Fazl in the Ain-i-Akbari, Akbar established imperial karkhanas for producing shawls and woollen goods primarily at Lahore, transforming it into a major center for wool manufacture. Option A: Surat was a prominent international seaport and trade center, not a primary hub for imperial woollen workshops. Option B: Dacca was renowned for its fine cotton muslin, not royal woollen karkhanas. Option D: Amritsar was not an imperial Mughal manufacturing hub for woollen clothes during Akbar's reign.

18. Q18Bhakti and Sufi movements

    Consider the following statements regarding Sikhs: A. A well of eighty-four steps built by Guru Amar Das in Goindwal village has become the first pilgrimage centre for the Sikhs. B. Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple) was constructed by Guru Arjan Dev at Amritsar in the year 1589. C. A high platform in front of Harmandir Sahib known as the Akal Takht was built by Guru Hargobind. D. Guru Gobind Singh introduced 'Khalsa' and established himself in Anandpur, in the Siwalik range, in 1699. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA and B
    • bA, B and C
    • cB, C and D
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four statements regarding the history of the Sikh Gurus and their contributions are historically accurate. Statement A: Guru Amar Das built the Baoli (well) with 84 steps at Goindwal, creating the first Sikh pilgrimage site. Statement B: Guru Arjan Dev initiated the construction of Harmandir Sahib at Amritsar, whose foundation was laid around 1589. Statement C: Guru Hargobind built the Akal Takht opposite Harmandir Sahib to represent temporal authority. Statement D: Guru Gobind Singh established the Khalsa order at Anandpur Sahib in 1699. Option A: Incorrect because it omits statements C and D, both of which are historically true. Option B: Incorrect because it fails to include statement D. Option C: Incorrect because it overlooks statement A.

19. Q19Bhakti and Sufi movements

    The socio-religious movement led by Saint Ramanuja, which emphasized devotion to Lord Vishnu and advocated for social equality, had a significant impact on Andhra society. What was this movement called?

    • aAdhyatma movement
    • bArya Samaj
    • cLingayatism
    • dBhakti movementAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Saint Ramanuja was a central pillar of the medieval Bhakti movement, whose propagation of Sri Vaishnavism, social inclusivity, and personal devotion deeply influenced Telugu culture and Andhra society. Option A: Incorrect because the Adhyatma movement is not a recognized historical denomination for Ramanuja's socio-religious mission. Option B: Incorrect because the Arya Samaj was a 19th-century reform movement founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati. Option C: Incorrect because Lingayatism is a Virasaiva tradition centred on Lord Siva, revitalized by Basaveshwara in Karnataka.

20. Q20Socio-religious reform movements

    Which of the following statements is/are correct? A. Arya Samaj was started in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati. B. Vivekananda condemned rituals and superstitions. C. The theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of Hinduism. D. In 1920s, Akali Movement was started to purify Sikh Gurudwaras in Punjab. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B and C
    • bA, B and D
    • cB, C and D
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four given statements accurately describe significant socio-religious reform movements in modern Indian history. Arya Samaj was founded in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati. Swami Vivekananda opposed dogmatic rituals, caste rigidity, and superstitions. Theosophists like Annie Besant worked to revive ancient Hindu philosophical traditions. The Akali movement of the 1920s aimed to liberate Sikh Gurudwaras from corrupt Mahants. Option A: It incorrectly omits statement D, which is historically accurate. Option B: It incorrectly omits statement C, which is historically accurate. Option C: It incorrectly omits statement A, which is historically accurate.

21. Q21Socio-religious reform movements

    Identify the correct statements about the Brahmo Samaj. a. It accepted the theory of "God is One". b. It accepted to incorporate the best aspects of Western Philosophical thought. c. It repudiated the doctrine of the infallibility of Vedas. d. It accepted the need of priestly class for interpreting religious texts.

    • a1. (a), (b) & (d)
    • b2. (b), (c) & (d)
    • c3. (a), (b) & (c)Answer
    • d4. (a), (c) & (d)
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Brahmo Samaj preached strict monotheism, synthesised Western rational philosophy with Indian thought, and rejected the infallibility of the Vedas under Debendranath Tagore and Akshoy Kumar Dutt, while firmly opposing any priestly class or intermediary. Option A: Statement d is included, which is false because the Brahmo Samaj denounced the intermediary role of priests in religious interpretation. Option B: Statement a is excluded despite monotheism being the founding pillar, and statement d is incorrectly included. Option D: Statement d is included, contradicting the core anti-clerical stance of the Samaj.

22. Q22The Indian National Movement

    "This diamond of India, this jewel of Maharashtra, this prince of workers.........Look at him and try to emulate him." Who made this remark about Gopal Krishna Gokhale ?

    • aB.R. Nanda
    • bBal Gangadhar TilakAnswer
    • cMahatma Gandhi
    • dG.V. Joshi
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Bal Gangadhar Tilak paid this memorable tribute at the cremation ground following the death of his political rival and fellow Maharashtrian leader Gopal Krishna Gokhale in February 1915. Option A: B.R. Nanda was a modern biographer and historian of the Indian national movement, not a contemporary delivering this eulogy. Option C: Mahatma Gandhi described Gokhale as his political mentor and pure as crystal, but he was not the author of this specific quote. Option D: G.V. Joshi was an elder mentor in the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha who died before Gokhale.

23. Q23World history: revolutions, the world wars and the modern world

    Arrange the following Second World War. events in the chronological order: A. Normandy Campaign in Western France B. German Soviet Non-aggression Pact C. The American atomic bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki D. Japan's attack on Pearl Harbour E. The Battle of Stalingrad Choose the correct order:

    • aD, C, A, E, B
    • bA, D, C, E, B
    • cE, B, D, A, C
    • dB, D, E, A, CAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because arranging the major events of World War II in temporal order leads to the sequence B, D, E, A, C. German Soviet Non-aggression Pact: August 1939 Attack on Pearl Harbour: December 1941 Battle of Stalingrad: August 1942 to February 1943 Normandy Campaign: June 1944 Atomic bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki: August 1945 Option A: It places Pearl Harbour before the German-Soviet Non-aggression Pact. Option B: It mistakenly places the 1944 Normandy Campaign before the 1941 attack on Pearl Harbour. Option C: It places the Battle of Stalingrad before both the 1939 pact and the 1941 attack.

24. Q24World history: revolutions, the world wars and the modern world

    The following was the major confrontation that brought the United States and the Soviet Union close to war:

    • aCongo Crisis
    • bSuez Canal Crisis
    • cCuban Missile CrisisAnswer
    • dAngolan Civil War
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Cuban Missile Crisis of October 1962, triggered by the installation of Soviet nuclear missiles in Cuba, brought the United States and the Soviet Union to the brink of a direct nuclear war. Option A: The Congo Crisis was a Cold War proxy conflict in Central Africa that did not bring the two superpowers to direct confrontation. Option B: The Suez Canal Crisis of 1956 involved Britain, France, and Israel invading Egypt, opposed by both the United States and the Soviet Union. Option D: The Angolan Civil War was a regional proxy war involving foreign interventions, but never placed the superpowers on the verge of direct war.

25. Q25World history: revolutions, the world wars and the modern world

    Either the throne or the coffin (Ya takht, Ya takhta) was a proverb of which country?

    • aHindustan
    • bTurkistan
    • cPersiaAnswer
    • dArabia
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because "Ya takht, ya takhta" is an old Persian proverb reflecting the high-stakes struggle for royal succession, meaning "either the throne or the funeral plank (bier/coffin)". Option A: While widely used in the Mughal court in Hindustan due to its Persianate culture, the proverb originated in Persia. Option B: Turkistan is of Turkic linguistic origin, whereas this phrase is entirely of Persian derivation. Option D: Arabic uses different vocabulary for throne and coffin; the phrase is distinctly Persian.

26. Q26Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Who was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh after its formation in 1956?

    • aNeelam Sanjiva ReddyAnswer
    • bN. Chandrababu Naidu
    • cTanguturi Prakasam
    • dKasu Brahmananda Reddy
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Neelam Sanjiva Reddy took oath as the first Chief Minister of the unified state of Andhra Pradesh on 1 November 1956. 1 November 1956: Formation of Andhra Pradesh Neelam Sanjiva Reddy: First Chief Minister Option B: N. Chandrababu Naidu became Chief Minister much later, in 1995. Option C: Tanguturi Prakasam was the first Chief Minister of Andhra State in 1953, not Andhra Pradesh in 1956. Option D: Kasu Brahmananda Reddy served as Chief Minister between 1964 and 1971.

27. Q27Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Consider the following in relation to 'Operation Blue Star': A. It was the biggest internal security mission undertaken by the Indian Army. B. It was aimed at removing Sikh militants who were accumulating weapons in the Harmandir Sahib Complex. C. Operation Blue Star was carried out between 1st and 8th July, 1985 in Amritsar. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA and B onlyAnswer
    • bA, B and C
    • cB and C only
    • dB only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements A and B accurately describe the scale and purpose of Operation Blue Star, whereas statement C gives an incorrect date and year. Operation Blue Star execution: 1st to 10th June 1984 Location: Golden Temple complex, Amritsar Option B: Includes statement C, which incorrectly claims the operation took place in July 1985 instead of June 1984. Option C: Includes statement C, which misstates both the month and the year of the military operation. Option D: Overlooks statement A, which is a verified and correct description of the operation's scale.

28. Q28Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    What was introduced by the Zoroastrian Irani immigrants in Hyderabad during the early 19th century?

    • aBiryani
    • bHaleem
    • cKhubani ka Meetha
    • dChaiAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Zoroastrian Irani immigrants who migrated to Hyderabad introduced the culture of Irani chai along with Irani cafes across the city. Option A: Biryani was developed in the royal kitchens of the medieval Deccan under the Qutb Shahi and early Asaf Jahi rulers, not introduced by Irani immigrants. Option B: Haleem originated as an Arab dish called Harees brought by the Chaush community during the Asaf Jahi period. Option C: Khubani ka Meetha is a traditional Hyderabadi dessert rooted in royal Deccan culinary traditions, not brought by Irani Zoroastrians.

29. Q29Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Hyderabad city? (Select all that apply) I. Mir Qamar-ud-din Siddiqi was the founder of the Asaf Jahi dynasty and the first Nizam of Hyderabad. II. The city of Hyderabad, a significant political and economic center in Andhra Pradesh, was established during the rule of Nizam-ul-Mulk in the 18th century.

    • aOnly II
    • bNeither I nor II
    • cOnly IAnswer
    • dBoth I & II
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because only Statement I is accurate; Mir Qamar-ud-din Siddiqi established the Asaf Jahi dynasty in 1724, whereas Hyderabad city was founded long before by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah in 1591. Option A: Only II is incorrect because Statement II falsely attributes the founding of Hyderabad city to the 18th-century Nizam rather than the 16th-century Qutb Shahis. Option B: Neither I nor II is incorrect because Statement I is historically accurate regarding the first Nizam. Option D: Both I & II is incorrect because Statement II contains a false historical claim about the founding era of Hyderabad city.

30. Q30Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Who among the following were the members of the Constituent Assembly of India? A. Amarjit Kaur B. Begum Aizaz Rasul C. Hansa Jivraj Mehta D. Kamala Mukherjee E. Renuka Ray Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, D and E only
    • bA, C and D only
    • cB, C and E onlyAnswer
    • dB, C, D and E only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Begum Aizaz Rasul, Hansa Jivraj Mehta, and Renuka Ray were among the 15 women members of the Constituent Assembly of India. Option A: It includes Amarjit Kaur and Kamala Mukherjee, neither of whom served in the Constituent Assembly. Option B: It omits Begum Aizaz Rasul and includes Kamala Mukherjee, who was not a member. Option D: It includes Kamala Mukherjee, who was not a member of the Constituent Assembly.

31. Q31Fundamental Rights

    When there is a challenge to the legality of detention

    • athe writ of certiorari is filed
    • bthe writ of habeas corpus is filedAnswer
    • cthe writ of mandamus is filed
    • dthe writ of quo warranto is filed
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Habeas Corpus literally means to have the body of, and it is the remedy used to test the legal justification of a person's detention or imprisonment. Option A: The writ of certiorari is filed to review and quash judicial or quasi-judicial determinations tainted by lack of jurisdiction or error of law. Option C: The writ of mandamus is filed to compel the performance of a mandatory public duty. Option D: The writ of quo warranto is filed to inquire into the title or right of an individual to hold a public office.

32. Q32Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Consider the following: A. Preventing the concentration of wealth to the common detriment B. Protection of childhood and youth against exploitation C. Adequate means of livelihood for all citizens D. Equitable distribution of the material resources of the community for the common good The above points are part of:

    • aFundamental Rights in the Constitution
    • bDirective Principles of State Policy in the ConstitutionAnswer
    • cState List in the Constitution
    • dFifth Schedule in the Constitution
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because all four listed principles are socialist directives contained within Article 39 under Part IV of the Constitution, which deals with Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 39(a): Adequate means of livelihood for all citizens. Article 39(b): Equitable distribution of material resources for the common good. Article 39(c): Prevention of the concentration of wealth to the common detriment. Article 39(f): Protection of childhood and youth against exploitation. Option A: consists of justiciable individual rights under Part III, not social and economic policy directives. Option C: specifies subjects on which state legislatures have exclusive power to make laws under the Seventh Schedule. Option D: relates to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

33. Q33Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Consider the following statements: A. The Constitution commands justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as supreme values to usher in the egalitarian social, economic and political democracy. B. To establish an egalitarian social order, the trinity, the preamble, the fundamental rights and the directive principles of state policy delineate the path for socio-economic justice. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because both statements accurately describe how the supreme values of the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, and Directive Principles function as a unified framework to establish an egalitarian socio-economic order. Option A: Statement B is also correct because the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, and Directive Principles are recognized as the constitutional trinity for achieving socio-economic justice. Option B: Statement A is also correct because the Constitution explicitly commands justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity to usher in an egalitarian democracy. Option D: Neither statement is incorrect or invalid under Indian constitutional law.

34. Q34The Union executive

    Who among the following shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of powers and duties of their office ? A. President B. Prime Minister C. Law Minister D. Governor of a State Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B and C only
    • bA and B only
    • cA and D onlyAnswer
    • dA, B and D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Article 361 of the Constitution provides personal immunity to the President and the Governor of a State, declaring that neither shall be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office. Article 361(1): Immunity granted strictly to the President and the Governors of States. Option A: The Prime Minister and the Law Minister do not enjoy immunity under Article 361 and remain accountable under the law. Option B: It omits the Governor of a State, who is expressly granted identical constitutional protection. Option D: It incorrectly includes the Prime Minister, who holds no personal immunity from legal proceedings.

35. Q35The judiciary

    Which of the following is not an appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?

    • aCases involving disputes between two or more StatesAnswer
    • bCases involving interpretation of the Constitution
    • cCivil cases, irrespective of any constitutional question
    • dCriminal cases, irrespective of any constitutional question
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because disputes between two or more States fall under the original and exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131, not under its appellate jurisdiction. Article 131: Original jurisdiction over inter-state and federal disputes. Article 132: Appellate jurisdiction in constitutional matters. Article 133: Appellate jurisdiction in civil matters from High Courts. Article 134: Appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters from High Courts. Option B: Constitutional interpretation appeals from High Courts lie directly under the appellate jurisdiction of Article 132. Option C: Civil appeals from High Court judgments are covered under appellate jurisdiction under Article 133. Option D: Criminal appeals from High Court decisions fall squarely under appellate jurisdiction under Article 134.

36. Q36The state government

    Consider the following in relation to the Legislative Council: A. The Council is a permanent house and one-third of the members retire in two years. B. Members of local bodies elect one-third of the total number of members of the Legislative Council. C. One-twelfth shall be elected by electorates consisting of graduates of three years. standing, residing in the State. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA, B and CAnswer
    • bA and B only
    • cA and C only
    • dB and C only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because all three statements accurately reflect the constitutional provisions governing the State Legislative Council under Articles 171 and 172. Article 172(2): Council is a permanent body not subject to dissolution; one-third of members retire every two years. Article 171(3)(a): One-third of members are elected by electorates consisting of members of local bodies. Article 171(3)(b): One-twelfth of members are elected by graduates of at least three years' standing. Option B: Fails to include statement C, which correctly states the composition rule for graduates under Article 171(3)(b). Option C: Fails to include statement B, which correctly states the representation quota for local bodies under Article 171(3)(a). Option D: Fails to include statement A, which correctly defines the tenure and retirement cycle under Article 172(2).

37. Q37Federalism and centre-state relations

    Consider the following statements: A. To be able to discharge the constitutional obligations fairly and impartially, the Governor should not be burdened with positions and powers which are not envisaged by the Constitution. B. Making the Governor the Chancellor of the Universities and thereby conferring powers on him/her which may have had some relevance historically has ceased to be so with the change of times and circumstances. The above are the part of recommendations of the following:

    • aJustice M.M. Punchhi CommissionAnswer
    • bKothari Commission
    • cNew Education Policy - 2020
    • dNational Knowledge Commission
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Justice M.M. Punchhi Commission specifically recommended that Governors should be freed from statutory duties, including the office of Chancellor of Universities, so that they can carry out their constitutional role without controversy. Option B: Kothari Commission focused on the national education system, school curriculum, and educational standards in 1964-66, not the constitutional office of the Governor. Option C: New Education Policy - 2020 lays down a framework for primary to higher education and skill development, but does not address the Governor's constitutional role or chancellorship. Option D: National Knowledge Commission was set up to build excellence in education and knowledge systems, not to review the constitutional powers of the Governor.

38. Q38Federalism and centre-state relations

    Consider the following statements: A. Article 356 in the Constitution of India deals with the proclamation of financial emergency. B. During the proclamation of financial emergency, the President can suspend provision relating to the division of the taxes between the Union and the States. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB onlyAnswer
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

39. Q39Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    What are the objectives of the Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO)? A. Develop centralised depository of data informatics B. Enable data-driven policy making C. Institutionalising rigorous tracking of performance metrics D. Strengthening the whole ecosystem to mainstream rigorous outcome monitoring and evaluation Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B and C only
    • bA, C and D only
    • cB and D only
    • dB, C and D onlyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because DMEO, an attached office under NITI Aayog, is tasked with driving evidence-based policymaking, tracking scheme performance metrics, and building the national monitoring and evaluation ecosystem, while establishing a centralized data repository is not its mandate. Option A: It incorrectly includes statement A, which falls under information technology and statistical databases managed by bodies like MoSPI or NIC. Option B: It erroneously includes statement A and omits statement B, which constitutes the primary purpose of DMEO's evaluation work. Option C: It omits statement C, which forms an essential core objective regarding institutionalized performance tracking of central schemes.

40. Q40Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    In relation to the organisational framework of the NITI Aayog, which of the following is not matched correctly?

    • aChairperson: Prime Minister of India
    • bPart-time Members: Maximum Two
    • cEx-officio Members: Maximum Four
    • dChief Executive Officer: Appointed by the President for a three-year tenureAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog is appointed directly by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, not by the President for a mandated three-year term. Chairperson: Prime Minister of India Vice-Chairperson: Appointed by the Prime Minister Part-time Members: Maximum of two from leading universities and research organisations Ex-officio Members: Maximum of four members of the Union Council of Ministers nominated by the Prime Minister Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by the Prime Minister in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India Option A: The Prime Minister of India is the designated Chairperson of NITI Aayog. Option B: The framework specifies a maximum of two part-time members from relevant institutions. Option C: The framework provides for a maximum of four ex-officio members from the Union Council of Ministers.