TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2023

163 questions from the 2023 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

81. Q81Climate change: policy and response

    Which of the following is a greenhouse gas ? I. Sulphur dioxide II. Carbon dioxide

    • aOnly I
    • bOnly IIAnswer
    • cBoth I and II
    • dNeither I nor II
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because carbon dioxide absorbs and re-emits thermal infrared radiation, whereas sulphur dioxide acts predominantly as an aerosol precursor that scatters incoming solar radiation and exerts a net cooling effect. Option A: Sulphur dioxide is not a greenhouse gas because it primarily forms sulphate aerosols that reflect sunlight rather than trap heat. Option C: It incorrectly identifies sulphur dioxide as a greenhouse gas. Option D: It fails to recognize carbon dioxide as a major greenhouse gas.

82. Q82Climate change: policy and response

    Which of the following is/are correct regarding the greenhouse effect? I. It is a naturally occurring phenomenon that is responsible for heating of Earth's surface and atmosphere. II. It is caused due to excessive accumulation of biodegradable substance in water system.

    • aOnly IAnswer
    • bOnly II
    • cBoth I and II
    • dNeither I nor II
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring process that traps heat in the atmosphere, keeping Earth habitable. Statement II is incorrect because the accumulation of biodegradable substances in aquatic systems describes organic water pollution or eutrophication, not the greenhouse effect. Option B: Statement I is an accurate definition of the natural greenhouse effect, whereas statement II confuses atmospheric warming with aquatic nutrient loading. Option C: Statement II is incorrect as water system pollution does not cause the greenhouse effect. Option D: Statement I is a well-established and correct scientific fact.

83. Q83Climate change: policy and response

    Which of the following gases is NOT a greenhouse gas?

    • aMethane
    • bNitrous oxide
    • cCarbon monoxideAnswer
    • dCarbon dioxide
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because carbon monoxide (CO) is not considered a direct greenhouse gas as it does not absorb terrestrial infrared radiation effectively, although it acts as an indirect contributor by influencing the abundance of methane and tropospheric ozone. Option A: Methane is a powerful direct greenhouse gas capable of trapping significant amounts of thermal radiation. Option B: Nitrous oxide is a long-lived direct greenhouse gas with a high global warming potential. Option D: Carbon dioxide is the principal direct greenhouse gas responsible for the bulk of anthropogenic radiative forcing.

84. Q84Climate change: policy and response

    In the context of effect of global warming, match the following: Effect Country/Region A. Bush fires I. Antarctica B. Locust swarming II. Arctic C. Heat wave III. Africa - Middle East D. Permafrost melt IV. Australia - USA Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-IV; B-III; C-I; D-IIAnswer
    • bA-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
    • cA-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
    • dA-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because devastating bushfires frequently affect Australia and the USA, locust swarms plague parts of Africa and the Middle East, heatwaves have caused unprecedented warming events in Antarctica, and permafrost melting occurs across the Arctic. Bush fires match Australia - USA Locust swarming matches Africa - Middle East Heat wave matches Antarctica Permafrost melt matches Arctic Option B: It incorrectly associates bush fires with Antarctica and locust swarming with Australia and the USA. Option C: It wrongly links bush fires to Africa and the Middle East instead of Australia and the USA. Option D: It mistakenly matches permafrost melting with Antarctica and heatwaves with the Arctic.

85. Q85Climate change: policy and response

    — is/are responsible for ozone depletion.

    • aHydrogen peroxide
    • bCarbon monoxide
    • cSulphur dioxide
    • dChlorofluorocarbonsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere when exposed to ultraviolet radiation, which catalytically break down ozone molecules. Option A: Hydrogen peroxide is an oxidizing agent found in the atmosphere and industrial processes, not an ozone-depleting substance. Option B: Carbon monoxide contributes to air pollution and ground-level ozone formation, but does not destroy stratospheric ozone. Option C: Sulphur dioxide contributes to acid rain and tropospheric aerosols, but is not responsible for chemical ozone depletion.

86. Q86Pollution and its control

    Which of the following is NOT a major primary air pollutant?

    • aSulphur oxides
    • bSilver oxideAnswer
    • cCarbon monoxide
    • dNitrogen Oxides
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because silver oxide is an inorganic chemical compound mainly used in specialized batteries and chemical synthesis, not a major primary pollutant discharged directly into ambient air. Option A: Sulphur oxides are major primary air pollutants released abundantly from coal combustion, metal smelting, and petroleum refining. Option C: Carbon monoxide is a primary criteria air pollutant discharged directly from vehicle exhausts and incomplete combustion. Option D: Nitrogen oxides are major primary air pollutants generated directly from high-temperature fuel combustion in vehicles and power stations.

87. Q87Pollution and its control

    Consider the following statements: A. BOD is oxgen consumed by micro-organisms and is an index of water pollution. B. Drinking water should have BOD level of 1 to 2 ppm. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because both statements are scientifically valid: Biochemical Oxygen Demand represents the dissolved oxygen consumed by microbes during organic decomposition, and pure drinking water requires a low value of 1 to 2 ppm to ensure safety from microbial and organic contamination. Option A: It wrongly excludes statement B, which accurately states the accepted threshold of 1 to 2 ppm for potable water. Option B: It wrongly excludes statement A, which gives the fundamental definition of Biochemical Oxygen Demand. Option D: It incorrectly rejects both statements despite each being factually true.

88. Q88Pollution and its control

    Consider the following pairs: A. Electrostatic precipitator : Particulate matter B. Catalytic converter: Carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxide C. Terror of Bengal : Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) D. Biochemical oxygen demand(BOD) : Polluted water Identify the correctly matched pairs:

    • aA and B only
    • bA and C only
    • cA, C and D only
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four pairs are accurately matched with their respective environmental descriptions and concepts. A. Electrostatic precipitator removes over 99 percent of particulate matter from industrial exhaust. B. Catalytic converters use platinum, palladium, and rhodium to convert carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides to nitrogen gas. C. Eichhornia crassipes is an invasive aquatic weed widely known as the Terror of Bengal. D. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) serves as a direct indicator of organic pollution in water. Option A: Omits pairs C and D, both of which are scientifically and historically correct. Option B: Omits pairs B and D, both of which are standard environmental science concepts. Option C: Omits pair B, which correctly identifies the function of catalytic converters in reducing exhaust pollutants.

89. Q89Environmental law, institutions and treaties

    The TSR Subramanian Committee (2014) is associated with which of the following?

    • aIndian efforts to counter internal and external terrorism
    • bReview the processes, laws and acts of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate ChangeAnswer
    • cDissolution of the Muslim Marriage Act
    • dReview the process, laws and acts of the Ministry of Human Resource Development
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted a High-Level Committee chaired by former Cabinet Secretary T.S.R. Subramanian in August 2014 to review six key environmental laws and recommend amendments. Option A: It did not examine national security or counter-terrorism frameworks. Option C: It was not tasked with personal laws or marriage legislation. Option D: The committee on the National Education Policy under T.S.R. Subramanian was submitted to the Ministry of Human Resource Development later in 2016, whereas the 2014 committee specifically pertained to environmental laws.

90. Q90Environmental law, institutions and treaties

    Arrange the following events in chronological order from earliest to latest: A. Rio Earth Summit B. Sendai Framework for Action C. Hyogo Framework for Action D. Yokohama Strategy Choose the correct order:

    • aA, B, C, D
    • bB, C, D, A
    • cC, D, A, B
    • dA, D, C, BAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because arranging these global disaster and environmental milestones chronologically places the Rio Earth Summit first and the Sendai Framework last. Rio Earth Summit: 1992 Yokohama Strategy: 1994 Hyogo Framework for Action: 2005 Sendai Framework for Action: 2015 Option A: It places the Sendai Framework before the Hyogo Framework and Yokohama Strategy. Option B: It starts with the Sendai Framework, which is the latest event in 2015. Option C: It places the Hyogo Framework before the Yokohama Strategy and the Rio Earth Summit.

91. Q91Environment and health

    Consider the following statements: A. Marburg Virus Disease (MVD), earlier known as Marburg haemorrhagic fever, is a severe, often fatal, haemorrhagic fever, according to the WHO. B. The Tanzanian Government reported the outbreak of the MVD in March 2023 in its north-west Kagera region. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because both statements are factually accurate. Marburg Virus Disease is a highly virulent haemorrhagic fever caused by a filovirus, and the Tanzanian government officially declared its first outbreak in Kagera region in March 2023. Option A: It ignores statement B, which accurately identifies the region and timeline of the Tanzanian outbreak. Option B: It ignores statement A, which gives the standard medical characterization of Marburg Virus Disease. Option D: It incorrectly claims that both established factual statements are false.

92. Q92Environment and health

    The services of Health and Wellness Centers (HWC) under Ayushman Bharat are: A. Care during pregnancy and childbirth B. Management of infectious diseases C. Primary oral health care D. Mental health disease screening and primary management. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, C and DAnswer
    • bA and B only
    • cA only
    • dB and C only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Health and Wellness Centres under Ayushman Bharat deliver an expanded package of twelve comprehensive primary healthcare services covering maternal health, communicable diseases, oral care, and mental health screening. Option B: It ignores primary oral healthcare and mental health services, both of which are mandated components of HWCs. Option C: It restricts the role of HWCs solely to maternal care, overlooking the other primary health services provided. Option D: It omits pregnancy and childbirth care as well as mental health management from the primary care bundle.

93. Q93Sustainable development goals

    Match the following: Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) Targets A. SDG Target 2.2 I. Reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to less than 70 per 1,00,000 live births B. SDG Target 3.1 II. Ensure universal access to sexual and reproductive health-care services C. SDG Target 3.3 III. End all forms of malnutrition D. SDG Target3-7 IV. End the epidemics of AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria and neglected tropi caldiseases Choose the correct answer :

    • aA-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
    • bA-III; B-I; C-IV; D-IIAnswer
    • cA-III; B-I; C-II; D-IV
    • dA-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because matching the respective United Nations Sustainable Development Goal targets with their official descriptions yields A-III, B-I, C-IV, and D-II. SDG Target 2.2: End all forms of malnutrition SDG Target 3.1: Reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to less than 70 per 1,00,000 live births SDG Target 3.3: End the epidemics of AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria and neglected tropical diseases SDG Target 3.7: Ensure universal access to sexual and reproductive health-care services Option A: It incorrectly pairs SDG Target 2.2 with reproductive health services and Target 3.7 with malnutrition. Option C: It inverts the targets for communicable diseases (3.3) and reproductive health-care services (3.7). Option D: It misassigns Target 3.1 to communicable diseases and Target 3.3 to maternal mortality.

94. Q94Sustainable development goals

    Which of the following Goals of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development seeks to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all ?

    • aGoal 3
    • bGoal 4Answer
    • cGoal 5
    • dGoal 6
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Goal 4 is explicitly dedicated to ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities for all. Goal 3: Good health and well-being Goal 4: Quality education Goal 5: Gender equality Goal 6: Clean water and sanitation Option A: Goal 3 addresses good health and well-being for all at all ages. Option C: Goal 5 focuses on achieving gender equality and empowering all women and girls. Option D: Goal 6 focuses on ensuring availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.

95. Q95Environment in the news: named projects, missions, reports and rankings

    In the context of air pollution in cities of India, choose the correct order of pollution in descending order for 2022: A. Bhiwadi B. New Delhi C. Darbhanga D. Ghaziabad Choose the correct order:

    • aGhaziabad - Darbhanga - New Delhi - Bhiwadi
    • bDarbhanga - Ghaziabad - Bhiwadi - New Delhi
    • cNew Delhi - Bhiwadi - Darbhanga-Ghaziabad
    • dBhiwadi - Darbhanga - New Delhi - GhaziabadAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because according to the World Air Quality Report 2022 by IQAir, the annual average PM2.5 levels ranked these Indian cities in the descending order of Bhiwadi, Darbhanga, New Delhi, and Ghaziabad. Bhiwadi: 92.7 micrograms per cubic metre Darbhanga: 89.4 micrograms per cubic metre New Delhi: 89.1 micrograms per cubic metre Ghaziabad: 88.6 micrograms per cubic metre Option A: Ghaziabad had a lower average annual PM2.5 concentration than Darbhanga, New Delhi, and Bhiwadi. Option B: Darbhanga was ranked below Bhiwadi in pollution levels in 2022. Option C: New Delhi recorded a lower annual average PM2.5 than Bhiwadi and Darbhanga.

96. Q96Structure of Indian society

    What is meant by 'Panjatan-e-Pak'?

    • aFive important duties to be performed by every Muslim.
    • bFive important duties of Muslims carried in the emblem i.e., 'Alam' created in the Deccan between 15th and 16th centuries.
    • cAccording to the Shia faith of Islam it means the five pure persons. i.e., Mohammad, Ali, Fathima, Hasan and Hussain. These names were incorporated in Alam.Answer
    • dFive important festivals celebrated by the Muslims of Deccan.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Panjatan-e-Pak literally translates to 'The Five Holy/Pure Ones' in Islamic tradition, particularly in Shia belief, referring to Prophet Muhammad, his daughter Fatima, his son-in-law Ali, and his grandsons Hasan and Hussain, whose names are traditionally inscribed on Alams. Option A: The five basic duties are the Arkan al-Islam (Pillars of Islam), not Panjatan-e-Pak. Option B: Panjatan-e-Pak refers to persons, not duties. Option D: It refers to revered holy persons of the Prophet's household, not festivals.

97. Q97Structure of Indian society

    Consider the following statements related to women's work: A. According to an OECD report, women spend between two to ten times more time on care work than men. B. According to the 2019 NSS Report, women spend 299 minutes a day on unpaid domestic services while men spend 97 minutes. C. According to the Global Gender Gap Report (2021) only 22-3% women in India participate in the labour market. D. Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyaan (PMGDISHA) aims to enable women in rural areas to spend more time in care work at home. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA, B and C onlyAnswer
    • bA, B and D only
    • cA, C and D only
    • dA, B, C and D
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements A, B, and C are factual observations from reputed surveys on gender disparities in labour and care work, whereas statement D is incorrect regarding the objective of PMGDISHA. Option B: Statement D is incorrect because PMGDISHA aims to empower rural citizens with digital literacy, not to keep women confined to household care work. Option C: Statement D is incorrect, and omitting statement B overlooks the authentic findings of the Time Use Survey (2019 NSS Report). Option D: Statement D is false regarding the scheme's objectives.

98. Q98Structure of Indian society

    Gender equality contributes to A. Achieving peaceful and resilient communities B. Sustainable development C. Economic growth D. Women dominance Which of the above are correct?

    • aA, B and C onlyAnswer
    • bA, C and D only
    • cA, B and D only
    • dA, B, C and D
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because gender equality fosters social cohesion, drives inclusive economic growth, and underpins sustainable development, whereas it aims for equal rights and opportunities rather than the dominance of one gender over another. Option B: It incorrectly includes statement D, which contradicts the fundamental principle of gender equality by proposing female dominance. Option C: It incorporates statement D, misrepresenting equality as female supremacy. Option D: It erroneously accepts all statements including female dominance.

99. Q99Welfare mechanism

    Consider the following statements on Tribal Sub-Plan: A. The Tribal Sub-Plan came into effect in 1974-75. B. After the merger of Plan and Non-Plan, the Tribal Sub-Plan was converted into Scheduled Tribes Component (STC) by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. C. State Governments should allocate Tribal Sub-Plan funds in proportion to the Scheduled Tribe population (Census 2011) in the state, relative to the total state plan. D. In the financial year 2018-19, the monitoring of the Scheduled Tribe Component Plan was given to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA, B and C only
    • bA, B and D only
    • cA, C and D only
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four statements accurately describe the history, restructuring, allocation formula, and nodal monitoring responsibilities of the Tribal Sub-Plan. Fifth Five Year Plan: Tribal Sub-Plan introduced in 1974-75 Plan and Non-Plan merger: Sub-Plan renamed as Scheduled Tribes Component Financial allocation rule: Proportionate to ST population as per Census 2011 Financial year 2018-19: Ministry of Tribal Affairs given mandate to monitor the component Option A: It wrongly omits statement D, which accurately captures the formal monitoring responsibility given in 2018-19. Option B: It wrongly omits statement C, which correctly states the mandatory population-proportional allocation rule. Option C: It wrongly omits statement B, which accurately describes the conversion of TSP into the Scheduled Tribes Component.

100. Q100Welfare mechanism

     The Integrated Education for Disabled Children (IEDC) scheme was launched in

     • a1970
     • b1974Answer
     • c1984
     • d1994
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Integrated Education for Disabled Children scheme was introduced in 1974 by the Ministry of Social Welfare to provide equal educational opportunities to children with disabilities in common schools. Launch of Integrated Education for Disabled Children: 1974 Transfer of the scheme to the Department of Education: 1982 National Policy on Education promoting integration: 1986 Launch of District Primary Education Programme: 1994 Option A: 1970 is incorrect because systematic central government initiatives for inclusive schooling had not yet commenced. Option C: 1984 represents the period when the scheme was being revised under the Department of Education, not its launch year. Option D: 1994 marked the launch of the District Primary Education Programme, which absorbed components of special education, two decades after the launch of this scheme.

101. Q101STATE SOCIETY: the society the two states actually have

     Which among the following was considered as the main occupation of Dependent Castes (Aasrita Kulalu) in Telangana ?

     • aKnitting mats and baskets
     • bHunting
     • cBeggingAnswer
     • dPodu Cultivation
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Dependent Castes, historically known as Aasrita Kulalu, traditionally survived by visiting their respective patron communities to sing family genealogies and seek alms or ritualized begging. Option A: Mat-making and basket weaving are traditional occupations of artisan communities such as the Medari. Option B: Hunting is an ancestral livelihood of hunter-gatherer forest tribes rather than village-based service castes. Option D: Podu cultivation is a slash-and-burn agricultural method practiced by hill tribes, not dependent caste groups.

102. Q102Science, technology and society

     Read the following statements about the impact of Science and Technology on the Environment and Society: A. Technology misuse and its wrong implementation leads to the occurrence of environmental pollution B. Scientists have proposed technology as a medium through which the environment can be sincerely helped if directed positively Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements

     • aOnly A
     • bOnly B
     • cBoth A and B
     • dNeither A nor BAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because neither statement is incorrect; both are well-established, valid perspectives on the negative risks and positive environmental potential of science and technology. Option A: Only A is wrong because statement A is completely true, as technological misuse is a primary cause of environmental degradation. Option B: Only B is wrong because statement B accurately reflects how modern green technologies are directed toward ecological restoration. Option C: Both A and B is wrong because neither statement is false.

103. Q103Science, technology and society

     Consider the following pairs: A. Father of Green Revolution : M.S. Viswanathan B. Missile Man of India : A.P.J. Abdul Kalam C. First Indian to go to outer space : Sunita Williams D. First Indian remote sensing satellite : APPLE Identify the wrongly matched pairs:

     • aA, B and D
     • bA, C and DAnswer
     • cA, B and C
     • dB, C and D
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because pairs A, C, and D contain factual errors, while pair B is correctly matched. Father of the Green Revolution in India is M.S. Swaminathan, not M.S. Viswanathan. Missile Man of India is A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. First Indian to go to outer space was Rakesh Sharma, not Sunita Williams. First Indian remote sensing satellite was IRS-1A, whereas APPLE was an experimental communication satellite. Option A: includes pair B, which is correctly matched, and omits the incorrectly matched pair C. Option C: includes pair B, which is correctly matched, and omits the incorrectly matched pair D. Option D: includes pair B, which is correctly matched, and omits the incorrectly matched pair A.

104. Q104Space technology

     In which of the following states of India has the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) conducted a successful Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) at the Aeronautical Test Range (ATR)?

     • aTamil Nadu
     • bKarnatakaAnswer
     • cUttar Pradesh
     • dMaharashtra
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Aeronautical Test Range (ATR) of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), where ISRO conducted the RLV LEX mission, is situated at Challakere in the Chitradurga district of Karnataka. Option A: Tamil Nadu hosts propulsion testing facilities at Mahendragiri, not the Aeronautical Test Range. Option C: Uttar Pradesh has premier academic and research institutions but does not host the ATR. Option D: Maharashtra is not the site of the DRDO Aeronautical Test Range used for this landing experiment.

105. Q105Space technology

     The ISRO conducts 200th consecutive successful launch of RH 200 sounding rocket from :

     • aSrihari Kota, Andhra Pradesh
     • bSpace Applications Centre, Ahmedabad
     • cThumba, ThiruvanathapuramAnswer
     • dNorth Eastern Space Applications Centre, Umiam, Meghalaya
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the 200th consecutive successful launch of the RH-200 sounding rocket was conducted by ISRO from the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, on November 23, 2022. Option A: Sriharikota is India's primary spaceport for orbital launch vehicles like PSLV, GSLV, and LVM3, not where this milestone sounding rocket launch occurred. Option B: Space Applications Centre in Ahmedabad is an R&D facility focused on payloads and applications, lacking launch pad infrastructure. Option D: North Eastern Space Applications Centre in Umiam provides remote sensing and space support services, not rocket launch facilities.

106. Q106Space technology

     Which of the following statements about NISAR are correct? A. It is an Earth-Observation satellite, jointly developed by the NASA and ISRO. B. It was envisioned by NASA and ISRO eight years ago in 2014. C. It is expected to be launched in January 2024 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre. D. It is a High Earth Orbit (HEO) observatory and will operate for a minimum of ten years. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA and B only
     • bA, B and C onlyAnswer
     • cA, B, C and D
     • dA and D only
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements A, B, and C accurately describe the joint NASA-ISRO synthetic aperture radar mission, its timeline, and its projected launch window at the time of the question. Statement A: NASA and ISRO jointly developed the dual-frequency L-band and S-band SAR observatory. Statement B: The partnership agreement was officially signed on September 30, 2014. Statement C: The launch was scheduled from Sriharikota for early 2024. Statement D: NISAR is placed in Low Earth Orbit (LEO), around 747 km altitude, with a baseline mission life of 3 years, not a HEO observatory operating for ten years. Option A: Incomplete because statement C is also correct. Option C: Incorrect because statement D describes incorrect orbit type and mission lifespan. Option D: Incorrect because statement D is false.

107. Q107Space technology

     GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) has been developed as a regional Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) by —. I. Airports Authority of India (AAI) II. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)

     • aOnly I
     • bOnly II
     • cBoth I and IIAnswer
     • dNeither I nor II
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because GAGAN was jointly designed, implemented, and operationalized by the Airports Authority of India (AAI) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Option A: Statement I alone is incomplete because ISRO provided the space segment and technological expertise alongside AAI. Option B: Statement II alone is incomplete because AAI provided the ground architecture, funding, and operational air navigation framework. Option D: Both statements are factual, making the denial of either or both incorrect.

108. Q108Space technology

     Consider the following: A. Gaganyaan: ISRO plans seven-day space tour with three gaganauts in 2023 for science and technology advancement. B. Vyommitra: A humanoid robot sent along with gaganauts to manage the environmental information. Which of the above is/are correct?

     • aA only
     • bB onlyAnswer
     • cBoth A and B
     • dNeither A nor B

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

109. Q109Defence technology

     Akash missile is developed and produced by

     • aDRDO and BDLAnswer
     • bNFC and BARC
     • cISRO and DERL
     • dRussia and DERL
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Akash surface-to-air missile was designed and developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation and is mass-produced by Bharat Dynamics Limited. Option B: NFC and BARC are nuclear energy institutions and do not develop or produce tactical missiles. Option C: ISRO is India's civilian space agency and DERL is a specific avionics laboratory, neither being the primary developer or production agency for Akash. Option D: Russia and DERL is incorrect because Akash is an indigenous Indian missile, not a Russian joint development.

110. Q110Information and communication technology

     In computers RAM stands for :

     • aRandom Access MemoryAnswer
     • bRead & Activate Memory
     • cRemember All Memory
     • dRapid Access memory
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because RAM stands for Random Access Memory, a primary volatile memory technology where any memory cell can be accessed directly in the same amount of time regardless of its physical location. Option B: Read and Activate Memory is a fabricated phrase that misidentifies the acronym. Option C: Remember All Memory is an incorrect expansion. Option D: Rapid Access Memory is an incorrect expansion despite the fast nature of RAM.

111. Q111Nuclear technology

     Consider the following statements : A. Nuclear fuel is material used in nuclear power stations to produce heat to run turbines. B. Thorium is used as a nuclear fuel in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

     • aA only
     • bB only
     • cBoth A and BAnswer
     • dNeither A nor B
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because nuclear fuels are fissionable materials that sustain chain reactions to generate steam for turbines, and India actively employs Thorium fuel bundles for power flattening in commercial reactors as well as in the research reactor KAMINI. Option A: It incorrectly excludes statement B, disregarding India's practical use of Thorium in its reactors and research programme. Option B: It incorrectly excludes statement A, which provides the standard definition and operational purpose of nuclear fuel. Option D: It falsely rejects both statements despite both being technically and contextually accurate.

112. Q112Nuclear technology

     Which of the following statements regarding 'Olkiluoto-3' Reactor are correct? A. It is Europe's most powerful nuclear reactor. B. It was developed in a joint venture between France's Areva and Germany's Siemens. C. Construction of Olkiluoto-3 began in 2005 and is now ready after a delay of 14 years from the original plan. D. It will help Belgium to achieve energy security at a time when European countries have cut oil, gas and other power supplies from Russia. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA and B only
     • bA, B and C onlyAnswer
     • cA, B, C and D
     • dB, C and D only
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements A, B, and C accurately describe the European Pressurized Reactor Olkiluoto-3 in Finland, while statement D incorrectly associates it with Belgium. Olkiluoto-3 reached regular output: Europe's most powerful nuclear reactor with 1,600 MWe capacity Consortium: Built by Areva and Siemens Timeline: Construction began in 2005 and faced a 14-year delay before full operation in 2023 Country: Located in western Finland, not Belgium Option A: A and B only is incomplete because statement C is also historically correct. Option C: A, B, C and D is incorrect because statement D states the reactor will help Belgium, whereas it is located in and powers Finland. Option D: B, C and D only is incorrect because statement A is correct and statement D is false.

113. Q113Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     In August 2023, Which Indian institute developed an ultrasound-assisted fermentation method to produce a safe sugar substitute called "Xylitol" from bagasse, the residue left after crushing of sugarcane?

     • aIIT Kanpur
     • bIIT GuwahatiAnswer
     • cIIT Delhi
     • dIIT Roorkee
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati (IIT Guwahati) successfully developed an ultrasound-assisted fermentation technique to synthesize xylitol from sugarcane bagasse. Option A: Incorrect because IIT Kanpur was not involved in this specific ultrasound-assisted bagasse fermentation project. Option C: Incorrect because IIT Delhi was not the institution that announced this innovation. Option D: Incorrect because IIT Roorkee did not conduct this research.

114. Q114Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Match the following with the corresponding nanomaterial used in it: A. Sunscreen lotion I. Nano silve B. Textiles II. Quantum dots C. Optoelectronics III. Titanium oxide D. High-definition television IV. Zinc selenide V. Lithium oxide Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-III; B-I; C-II; D-IVAnswer
     • bA-IV; B-II; C-III; D-V
     • cA-II; B-III; C-IV; D-V
     • dA-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because titanium oxide is a staple UV-filtering agent in sunscreens, nano silver provides antimicrobial action in textiles, quantum dots are used in optoelectronic devices, and zinc selenide is applied in high-definition display optics. Sunscreen lotion: Titanium oxide Textiles: Nano silver Optoelectronics: Quantum dots High-definition television: Zinc selenide Option B: Matches sunscreen lotion incorrectly with zinc selenide and textiles with quantum dots. Option C: Matches sunscreen lotion incorrectly with quantum dots and textiles with titanium oxide. Option D: Matches sunscreen lotion incorrectly with nano silver and textiles with zinc selenide.

115. Q115Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Match the following: Emerging Trend Example A. Humanoid based on Artificial Intelligence (AI) I. Virtual Reality B. Natural language processing II. Drone C. Unmanned aircraft III. Text-to-Speech D. Operating household devices using smartphone IV. Internet of Things V. Sophia Choose the correct answer :

     • aA-V; B-IV; C-I; D-II
     • bA-II; B-III; C-V; D-I
     • cA-V; B-III; C-II; D-IVAnswer
     • dA-II; B-IV; C-V; D-III
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because each emerging technological trend matches precisely with its corresponding real-world example. Humanoid based on AI: Sophia Natural language processing: Text-to-Speech Unmanned aircraft: Drone Operating household devices using smartphone: Internet of Things Option A: It incorrectly pairs Natural language processing with the Internet of Things and Unmanned aircraft with Virtual Reality. Option B: It mistakenly pairs the humanoid with a drone and the unmanned aircraft with Sophia. Option D: It improperly assigns a drone to the humanoid category and Sophia to the unmanned aircraft category.

116. Q116Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Integrated chip is produced on a piece of semi-conductor crystal by the process of

     • aEmbedding
     • bPhotolithographyAnswer
     • cTomography
     • dCryptography
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because photolithography uses light to transfer geometric patterns from a photomask to a light-sensitive chemical photoresist on a semiconductor wafer to fabricate integrated circuits. Option A: Embedding describes integrating one component inside another and is not the micro-patterning process used in semiconductor fabrication. Option C: Tomography is an imaging technique that displays a cross section through a human body or solid object using penetrating waves. Option D: Cryptography is the mathematical study of securing communication and data, not a physical chip-making technique.

117. Q117SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Dieback disease in neem tree is caused by

     • aIron deficiency
     • bVirus
     • cFungiAnswer
     • dAlgae
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because dieback disease in the neem tree (Azadirachta indica) is caused by the fungal pathogen Phomopsis azadirachtae, which infects shoots, twigs, and leaves. Option A: Iron deficiency leads to nutritional chlorosis of young leaves rather than fungal twig dieback. Option B: Neem dieback is not caused by viral infection. Option D: Algae do not cause progressive shoot dieback in neem trees.

118. Q118HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     The temperature in human body is controlled by

     • aHypothalamusAnswer
     • bSkin
     • cCerebellum
     • dMuscles
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the hypothalamus functions as the body's central thermostat, receiving temperature signals and initiating physiological responses to maintain a constant core body temperature. Option B: Skin contains thermoreceptors and acts as an effector organ through sweating and vasodilation, but does not control or coordinate central thermoregulation. Option C: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary motor movement, balance, and posture, playing no direct regulatory role in body temperature. Option D: Muscles generate heat via shivering as an effector mechanism, but they do not control the thermoregulatory set point.

119. Q119HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Arrange the following in order with respect to the urine formation in human beings: A. Formation of concentrated urine B. Tubular reabsorption C. Glomerular filtration D. Tubular secretion Choose the correct order:

     • aA, C, B, D
     • bC, B, D, AAnswer
     • cB, A, D, C
     • dA, D, B, C
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the physiological process of urine formation in nephrons proceeds through glomerular filtration, followed by tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion, and finally the concentration of urine. Step 1: Glomerular filtration (C) Step 2: Tubular reabsorption (B) Step 3: Tubular secretion (D) Step 4: Formation of concentrated urine (A) Option A: Places the final step (formation of concentrated urine) at the beginning before filtration occurs. Option C: Begins with reabsorption, which cannot happen before glomerular filtration. Option D: Incorrectly places urine concentration first and reverses the physiological sequence.

120. Q120HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Consider the following statements: A. Circadian rhythm is endogenous rhythmic change in organism with a periodicity of 24 hours. B. Biological clock regulates circadian rhythm. C. Sleep and awake phases of humans are due to circadian rhythm. D. Heart-beat of humans is an example of circadian rhythm. Which of the above statements are correct?

     • aA, B and D only
     • bA, C and D only
     • cB, C and D only
     • dA, B and C onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because circadian rhythms are endogenous biological processes operating on an approximate 24-hour cycle regulated by the internal biological clock, driving functions such as sleep-wake cycles, whereas the human heartbeat is an ultradian rhythm occurring multiple times per minute. Option A: It incorrectly includes statement D, as cardiac contractions follow a short ultradian cycle rather than a 24-hour circadian rhythm. Option B: It incorrectly includes statement D and leaves out statement B, which correctly states that the biological clock oversees circadian rhythms. Option C: It incorrectly includes statement D while omitting statement A, which supplies the essential 24-hour definition of circadian rhythm.