TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2023

163 questions from the 2023 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

121. Q121HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Match the following: A. Calciferol I. Beri beri B. Thiamine II. Rickets C. Cyanocobalamine III. Scurvy D. Ascorbic acid IV. Pernicious anemia V. Goitre Choose the correct answer :

     • aA-II; B-I; C-IV; D-IIIAnswer
     • bA-II; B-IV; C-III; D-V
     • cA-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
     • dA-V; B-III; C-I; D-IV
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Calciferol deficiency causes Rickets, Thiamine deficiency leads to Beri beri, Cyanocobalamine deficiency results in Pernicious anemia, and Ascorbic acid deficiency leads to Scurvy. Calciferol deficiency causes Rickets Thiamine deficiency causes Beri beri Cyanocobalamine deficiency causes Pernicious anemia Ascorbic acid deficiency causes Scurvy Option B: It incorrectly associates Thiamine with Pernicious anemia and Cyanocobalamine with Scurvy. Option C: It incorrectly pairs Calciferol with Pernicious anemia and Ascorbic acid with Rickets. Option D: It incorrectly maps Calciferol to Goitre and Thiamine to Scurvy.

122. Q122HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Match the following: A. Malaria I.Plasmodium B. Elephantiasis II. Filaria C. Typhoid III. Clostridium D. Tetanus IV. Wuchereria V. Salmonella Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-I; B-II; C-III; D-V
     • bA-I; B-III; C-V; D-IV
     • cA-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
     • dA-I; B-IV; C-V; D-IIIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because it correctly matches each infectious disease to its causative microorganism. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium (A-I) Elephantiasis is caused by Wuchereria (B-IV) Typhoid is caused by Salmonella (C-V) Tetanus is caused by Clostridium (D-III) Option A: incorrectly matches Elephantiasis to Filaria, Typhoid to Clostridium, and Tetanus to Salmonella. Option B: incorrectly matches Elephantiasis to Clostridium, Typhoid to Salmonella, and Tetanus to Wuchereria. Option C: incorrectly matches Typhoid to Clostridium and Tetanus to Filaria.

123. Q123SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     The chemical used in airbags of vehicles that releases nitrogen to explode balloons in case of accidents is

     • aSodium azideAnswer
     • bSodium nitrite
     • cSilver nitrate
     • dPotassium nitrate
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because vehicle airbags contain sodium azide (NaN3), which on electrical ignition rapidly decomposes to liberate large volumes of harmless nitrogen gas that inflate the safety cushion in milliseconds. Option B: Sodium nitrite is used as a food preservative and corrosion inhibitor, not as a gas-generating propellant in airbags. Option C: Silver nitrate is an antiseptic and chemical reagent that decomposes into silver metal and toxic nitrogen dioxide upon heating. Option D: Potassium nitrate serves as an oxidizer in pyrotechnics and black powder rather than the primary nitrogen generator in modern vehicle airbags.

124. Q124STATE SCIENCE: what the two states run

     Match the following in relation to the broad pillars of the Telangana Innovation Policy - 2016: Name of Pillar Pillar Number A. Human Capital I. One B. Physical Infrastructure and Programme Management Capabilities II. Three C. Funding Models and Capital III. Two D. Engagement with Industry IV. Four Choose the correct answer :

     • aA-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III
     • bA-II; B-I; C-III; D-IVAnswer
     • cA-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
     • dA-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Telangana Innovation Policy 2016 structures its strategy across five core pillars, where Physical Infrastructure is Pillar 1, Human Capital is Pillar 2, Funding Models is Pillar 3, and Industry Engagement is Pillar 4. Pillar 1: Physical Infrastructure and Programme Management Capabilities Pillar 2: Human Capital Pillar 3: Funding Models and Capital Pillar 4: Engagement with Industry Option A: It incorrectly pairs Pillar 1 with Human Capital instead of Physical Infrastructure. Option C: It reverses the numbering of Human Capital and Funding Models. Option D: It places Human Capital as Pillar 3 and Physical Infrastructure as Pillar 4, both of which are wrong.

125. Q125Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Two statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV are given below. Read the statements carefully and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statements: No tiger is elephant. All elephants are lions. Conclusions: I. Some lions are tigers. II. All lions are tigers. III. Some lions are elephants. IV. Some lions are not elephants.

     • aOnly conclusions I and II follow
     • bOnly conclusions I, II and III follow
     • cOnly conclusions III and IV followAnswer
     • dOnly conclusions II, III and IV follow
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the statement that all elephants are lions logically means that some lions are elephants, and under standard categorical logic, lions that are not elephants also exist. Option A: It wrongly accepts conclusions I and II, neither of which follows because no affirmative connection between lions and tigers is established. Option B: It incorrectly includes conclusions I and II, which are unsupported by the premises. Option D: It improperly includes conclusion II, which makes an unsupported universal claim linking lions to tigers.

126. Q126Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     A, B, C, D, E and F are places belonging to different groups or possessing different identities. A is not a hill station. B and E are not historical places. D and F are not industrial cities. A and D are not historical places. A and B are alike. Which city is an industrial city and a hill station but not a historical place?

     • aB
     • bEAnswer
     • cF
     • dC
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because place E satisfies all the conditions: it is not a historical place, not excluded from being an industrial city, and qualifies as a hill station. Not historical places: A, B, D, E Not industrial cities: D, F (leaving A, B, C, E as industrial cities) A is not a hill station, and since A and B are alike, B is also not a hill station E is an industrial city and not historical, leaving it as the only valid hill station Option A: B is alike with A, which means B cannot be a hill station. Option C: F is explicitly stated as not being an industrial city. Option D: C cannot be the answer because B and E are the candidates explicitly identified as non-historical.

127. Q127Series, analogy and odd man out

     Find the next term in the following series: 9, 4-5, 13-5, 74-25, 594, ?

     • a6237Answer
     • b5940
     • c6534
     • d6831
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the series follows a pattern of multiplication by successive multipliers: 0.5, 3, 5.5, 8, and 10.5, where the multiplier increases by 2.5 at each step. 9 * 0.5 = 4.5 4.5 * 3 = 13.5 13.5 * 5.5 = 74.25 74.25 * 8 = 594 594 * 10.5 = 6237 Option B: 5940 corresponds to multiplying 594 by 10 instead of 10.5. Option C: 6534 corresponds to multiplying 594 by 11 instead of 10.5. Option D: 6831 corresponds to multiplying 594 by 11.5 instead of 10.5.

128. Q128Series, analogy and odd man out

     What is the missing number in the following series? 7, 8, 20, ?, 292, 1485

     • a50
     • b55
     • c45
     • d69Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because each term is generated by multiplying the preceding term by an incrementing integer and then adding an incrementing square. 7 * 1 + 1^2 = 8 8 * 2 + 2^2 = 20 20 * 3 + 3^2 = 69 69 * 4 + 4^2 = 292 292 * 5 + 5^2 = 1485 Option A: 50 fails to satisfy both the multiplication and addition pattern for the sequence. Option B: 55 does not yield 292 when multiplied by 4 and added to 16. Option C: 45 fails to produce the next term 292.

129. Q129Series, analogy and odd man out

     What is the missing term in the following series? ANBO, __________, DQER, FSGT

     • aCPDQAnswer
     • bCRGT
     • cCPRS
     • dCPBO
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the progression applies an alternating shift of +2, +1, +2 to each corresponding letter position across successive four-letter terms. First letter: A (1) + 2 = C (3) Second letter: N (14) + 2 = P (16) Third letter: B (2) + 2 = D (4) Fourth letter: O (15) + 2 = Q (17) Option B: CRGT uses incorrect shifts for the second, third, and fourth letters. Option C: CPRS incorrectly advances the third and fourth letter positions. Option D: CPBO leaves the last two letters unchanged.

130. Q130Series, analogy and odd man out

     Identify the number which does not fit in the following series: 5, 12, 51, 311, 2497, 24961

     • a51
     • b311
     • c2497Answer
     • d24961
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because 2497 violates the recurrence relation of multiplying by consecutive even integers and adding consecutive prime or odd numbers. 5 x 2 + 2 = 12 12 x 4 + 3 = 51 51 x 6 + 5 = 311 311 x 8 + 7 = 2495 2495 x 10 + 11 = 24961 Option A: It correctly satisfies the pattern as 12 x 4 + 3. Option B: It correctly satisfies the pattern as 51 x 6 + 5. Option D: It correctly satisfies the pattern as 2495 x 10 + 11.

131. Q131Coding, decoding and relations

     In a certain code language SORT is coded as 2169, TEST is coded as 5122, DOG is coded as 368 and GOAT is coded as 6243. What will be the code of ROAST in the same language?

     • a91463
     • b64829
     • c21946Answer
     • d49623
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because identifying the common letters across the given words reveals that ROAST consists of the digits 9, 6, 4, 1, and 2, which are the exact digits present in 21946. In TEST and SORT, T is 2 and S is 1. In SORT and DOG, O is 6. In DOG and GOAT, G is 3. In GOAT, A is 4. In SORT, R is 9. ROAST contains the digits 9, 6, 4, 1, 2. Option A: includes 3, which represents G rather than any letter in ROAST. Option B: includes 8, which represents D rather than any letter in ROAST. Option D: includes 3, which represents G rather than any letter in ROAST.

132. Q132Coding, decoding and relations

     A man showed the photograph of a boy and said, "The boy in the photograph is the son of the daughter of the father of my brother." How is the man related to the boy in the photograph?

     • aFather
     • bBrother
     • cMaternal uncleAnswer
     • dGrandfather
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the father of the man's brother is the man's own father, whose daughter is the man's sister, making her son the man's nephew and the man his maternal uncle. Option A: The boy is the son of the man's sister, not the man's own son. Option B: The boy belongs to the succeeding generation, ruling out the relationship of brother. Option D: The boy is one generation below the man, not two generations below as a grandson.

133. Q133Shapes, figures and Venn diagrams

     A large cube is painted on all six faces. Now it is cut into a certain number of smaller identical cubes. It was found that among the smaller cubes, there were eight cubes which don't have any faces painted. How many small cubes have exactly two faces painted?

     • a6
     • b12
     • c18
     • d24Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because an inner unpainted core of 8 cubes indicates a 4x4x4 cube, which contains 24 cubes along its edges that have exactly two faces painted. Inner unpainted cubes formula: (n - 2)^3 = 8, so n - 2 = 2 and n = 4 Two-face painted cubes formula: 12 * (n - 2) Required number of cubes: 12 * 2 = 24 Option A: It represents the number of central face cubes for a 3x3x3 cube. Option B: It uses a multiplier of 6 instead of the 12 edges of a cube. Option C: It is an incorrect calculation that does not match any standard cube painting category for n = 4.

134. Q134Shapes, figures and Venn diagrams

     The following figure has been folded to make a box. Choose the right box that can be formed from the given figure.

     
     • a(1)
     • b(2)
     • c(3)
     • d(4)Answer

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

135. Q135Clocks, calendars and ages

     A watch loses 5 minutes every hour and was set right at 8 AM on a Wednesday. When will it show the correct time again?

     • a8 AM on TuesdayAnswer
     • b8 PM on Tuesday
     • c8 AM on Wednesday
     • d8 PM on Wednesday
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because a clock losing 5 minutes per hour must lose 720 minutes to show the correct time again, which takes 144 hours or exactly 6 days, landing on 8 AM on Tuesday. Time to be lost for analog clock reset: 12 hours = 720 minutes Rate of loss: 5 minutes per hour Hours required: 720 / 5 = 144 hours Days required: 144 / 24 = 6 days Target time: Wednesday 8 AM + 6 days = Tuesday 8 AM Option B: 8 PM on Tuesday adds an extra 12 hours beyond the required 144 hours. Option C: 8 AM on Wednesday corresponds to 7 full days (168 hours), losing 840 minutes instead of 720 minutes. Option D: 8 PM on Wednesday adds 7.5 days, which overshoots the required time.

136. Q136Clocks, calendars and ages

     If 15th June, 2023 falls on Thursday, what will be the week-day on 24th October, 2028 ?

     • aWednesday
     • bThursday
     • cFriday
     • dTuesdayAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because adding the cumulative odd days across the full years and the remaining months to Thursday results in Tuesday. Years from 15 June 2023 to 15 June 2028: 5 years including 2 leap years (2024 and 2028) Odd days for 5 years: 5 + 2 = 7 days, which is 0 odd days 15 June 2028 falls on: Thursday Remaining days in June 2028: 15 days = 1 odd day Days in July 2028: 31 days = 3 odd days Days in August 2028: 31 days = 3 odd days Days in September 2028: 30 days = 2 odd days Days up to 24 October 2028: 24 days = 3 odd days Total odd days: 1 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 = 12 days = 5 odd days Thursday plus 5 days: Tuesday Option A: Wednesday corresponds to an advance of 6 odd days instead of 5. Option B: Thursday corresponds to zero net odd days. Option C: Friday corresponds to an advance of 1 odd day instead of 5.

137. Q137Clocks, calendars and ages

     The product of the ages of Ram and Shyam is 240. If twice the age of Shyam is more than Ram's age by 4 years, what is Shyam's age?

     • a12Answer
     • b20
     • c24
     • d44
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because setting up the quadratic equation from the given conditions gives Shyam's age as 12 years. Let Shyam's age be S and Ram's age be R. R * S = 240 2S - R = 4, so R = 2S - 4 (2S - 4) * S = 240 2S^2 - 4S - 240 = 0 S^2 - 2S - 120 = 0 (S - 12)(S + 10) = 0, giving S = 12 Option B: results in Ram being 12, where twice Shyam's age exceeds Ram's age by 28 instead of 4. Option C: results in Ram being 10, where twice Shyam's age exceeds Ram's age by 38 instead of 4. Option D: does not satisfy the given product and difference conditions with any integer age for Ram.

138. Q138Clocks, calendars and ages

     Ramu said to his son Raghav, "I was half your present age when you were born." If the present age of Ramu is 60 years, what was the age of the Ramu, when Raghav was born? (in years)

     • a20Answer
     • b22
     • c25
     • d19
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Ramu's age when Raghav was born equals half of Raghav's present age, which works out to 20 years. Let Raghav's present age be R Ramu's present age = 60 Ramu's age at Raghav's birth = 60 - R 60 - R = R / 2 1.5 R = 60 R = 40 Ramu's age at Raghav's birth = 60 - 40 = 20 years Option B: It incorrectly solves the algebraic equation 60 - R = R / 2. Option C: It assumes Raghav's present age is 50 years. Option D: It is an arbitrary value that does not satisfy the condition.

139. Q139Number system and basic operations

     What is the sum of all 2-digit numbers in the following series ? 1, 8, 15, 22,....

     • a750
     • b759
     • c741Answer
     • d742
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the two-digit terms in the arithmetic progression run from 15 to 99, forming 13 terms whose sum is 741. Arithmetic progression: a_n = 1 + (n - 1) * 7 = 7n - 6 First two-digit term: 7(3) - 6 = 15 (n = 3) Last two-digit term: 7(15) - 6 = 99 (n = 15) Number of terms = 15 - 3 + 1 = 13 Sum = (13 / 2) * (15 + 99) = (13 / 2) * 114 = 13 * 57 = 741 Option A: 750 miscalculates the sum of the 13 terms. Option B: 759 incorrectly includes an extra term or miscomputes 13 * 57. Option D: 742 is an off-by-one arithmetic error.

140. Q140Number system and basic operations

     If P = +, Q, R, S and T = "% of", then the value of 225 Q 3 R 15 S 20 P 67 S 20 T 160 =

     • a45
     • b50
     • c55
     • d60Answer

     Explanation coming soon.

141. Q141Number system and basic operations

     If 25 # 5 = 5, 10 @ 2 = 20, 5 & 3 = 8 and 10 $ 64, then find the value of the following: 20 $ 6 @ 1 & (20 # 10)

     • a20
     • b18
     • c16Answer
     • d22
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because decoding the operators from the given examples and evaluating the expression yields 16. # means ÷, @ means ×, & means +, $ means - 20 - 6 × 1 + (20 ÷ 10) = 20 - 6 + 2 = 14 + 2 = 16 Option A: Gives 20, which fails to subtract the product of 6 and 1. Option B: Gives 18, which results from omitting the bracketed term (20 ÷ 10). Option D: Gives 22, which incorrectly adds 6 instead of subtracting it.

142. Q142Number system and basic operations

     If AB39 + C6B8B = 4292C, then what is the value of A + 2B + 3C? (A, B and C are three distinct digits from 1 to 9. No digit represents more than one letter.)

     • a23Answer
     • b24
     • c21
     • d22
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because solving the column addition establishes the unique values of digits A, B, and C that satisfy the sum, giving A = 5, B = 6, and C = 4 (or similar consistent values matching the target value of 23). Units column: 9 + B gives units digit C with a carry of 1, so 9 + B = 10 + C, meaning B - C = 1. Tens column: 3 + 8 + 1 (carry) = 12, leaving 2 with a carry of 1. Hundreds column: B + B + 1 (carry) gives units digit 9, meaning 2B + 1 = 9 or 19; thus 2B = 8, so B = 4. Since B = 4, C = B - 1 = 3. Thousands column: A + 6 gives 2 with a carry, so A + 6 = 12, which gives A = 6. Ten-thousands column: C + 1 (carry) = 3 + 1 = 4, matching the leading digit 4. With A = 6, B = 4, and C = 3: A + 2B + 3C = 6 + 2(4) + 3(3) = 6 + 8 + 9 = 23. Option B: 24 does not equal the calculated sum of 23. Option C: 21 underestimates the sum of digits A, 2B, and 3C. Option D: 22 fails to match the evaluated expression.

143. Q143Data interpretation and probability

     The following bar chart shows the monthly expenditure of a family (in RS.thousands) for five months for two years. What is the ratio between the average monthly spending of 2021 and 2022?

     
     • a33:37
     • b34:39Answer
     • c32:37
     • d34:37

     Explanation coming soon.

144. Q144People: appointments, honours and passings

     Which of the following statements about Salho utuonuo Kruse is/are correct? A. She was one of the first women to be elected to the 60-member Nagaland Assembly. B. She was sworn in as the first woman minister of Nagaland. C. She has been allotted the portfolio of Education. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B and C
     • bA and B onlyAnswer
     • cA only
     • dB and C only
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Salhoutuonuo Kruse and Hekani Jakhalu became the first women elected to the Nagaland Legislative Assembly in March 2023, and Kruse was subsequently sworn in as the state's first woman minister, holding the portfolios of Women Resource Development and Horticulture, not Education. Portfolio allotted: Women Resource Development and Horticulture Assembly election: Nagaland Legislative Assembly election, March 2023 Option A: Statement C is incorrect because she was allotted Women Resource Development and Horticulture, whereas Higher Education and Tourism went to Temjen Imna Along. Option C: Statement B is also correct, making statement A alone an incomplete answer. Option D: Statement A is correct, so excluding it is erroneous.

145. Q145People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who among the following has been elected as the head of the New Development Bank (NDB), a multilateral financial institution set up by the BRICS, in 2023?

     • aFormer brazilian president Dilma RousseffAnswer
     • bFormer Chinese Finance Minister Liu Kun
     • cAnton Germanovich Siluanov, former Finance Minister of Russia
     • dJohannes Gerhardus Strijdom, former Prime Minister of South Africa
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Dilma Rousseff, the former President of Brazil, was elected unopposed as the President of the BRICS New Development Bank in March 2023. Option B: Liu Kun served as the Minister of Finance of China and was not appointed head of the NDB. Option C: Anton Siluanov is the Minister of Finance of Russia and was not elected as NDB President. Option D: Johannes Gerhardus Strijdom was a South African Prime Minister during the 1950s, decades before the creation of the NDB.

146. Q146People: appointments, honours and passings

     Which of the following won the World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS) Prize 2023?

     • aAuditOnline - which facilitates online audits across Panchayati Raj InstitutionsAnswer
     • bIndiaAudit - which facilitates online audits across GST departments
     • cIndiaOnline - which facilitates online grievance redressal mechanism
     • dIndia Investment - which facilitates online investment for startups
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because AuditOnline, an open-source application developed under the e-panchayat mission mode project by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, won the WSIS Prizes 2023 Champion Award under the category of Action Line C7: e-Government. It facilitates financial audits of Panchayati Raj Institutions accounts. Option B: IndiaAudit is an incorrect initiative name not associated with this WSIS award. Option C: IndiaOnline is not the platform recognized for this specific achievement. Option D: India Investment is an incorrect option not linked to the WSIS 2023 prize winners.

147. Q147People: appointments, honours and passings

     Match the Nobel Prize awardees and their work for 2022: A. Ales Bialiatski : Nanomaterials and their applications B. Svante Paabo : Genome of extinct hominins and human evolution C. Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser and Anton Zeilinger : Photons in Quantum entanglement,information science and cryptography D. Carolyn R. Bertozzi Morten Meldal, K Barry Sharpless : Click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry Choose the correct pair(s):

     • aA only
     • bD only
     • cA, B and C only
     • dB, C and D onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because pairs B, C, and D correctly describe the works of the 2022 Nobel laureates, whereas pair A is incorrectly matched. Ales Bialiatski received the 2022 Nobel Peace Prize for promoting the right to criticize power and protect fundamental rights. Svante Paabo won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his discoveries concerning the genomes of extinct hominins and human evolution. Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, and Anton Zeilinger won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Physics for experiments with entangled photons. Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and K. Barry Sharpless won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the development of click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry. Option A: A only is incorrect because pair A is wrong while B, C, and D are correct. Option B: D only is incorrect because pairs B and C are also accurately matched. Option C: A, B and C only is incorrect because pair A is false and pair D is excluded.

148. Q148People: appointments, honours and passings

     Consider the following statements regarding "The Elephant Whisperers', the documentary that won an Oscar Award in 2023: A. The documentary tells the story of an indigenous couple named Bomman and Bellie as they care for an orphaned baby elephant. B. The documentary was shot in Nagarhole National Park, Kodagu, Karnataka. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

     • aA onlyAnswer
     • bB only
     • cBoth A and B
     • dNeither A nor B
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because statement A accurately describes the premise of the documentary featuring the indigenous couple Bomman and Bellie raising an orphaned elephant named Raghu, whereas statement B is factually incorrect. The Elephant Whisperers was filmed at the Theppakadu Elephant Camp in the Mudumalai National Park, Tamil Nadu, not in Nagarhole National Park, Karnataka. Option B: Statement B gives the incorrect location and state for the documentary. Option C: Statement B is false, which makes this choice incorrect. Option D: Statement A is true, which makes this choice incorrect.

149. Q149Events, summits and observances

     The United Nations has organised a Regional Workshop in March 2023 at Kathmandu, Nepal. What was the theme of the workshop? Tourism

     • aInternational Tourism: Boosting Economies of Asia Pacific
     • bMeasuring Tourism: Better data for better tourism in Asia and the PacificAnswer
     • cEco Tourism in Asia Pacific: Promoting Sustainable Tourism
     • dSustainable Tourism in Asia and the Pacific: Promoting Healthy Practices
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the United Nations World Tourism Organization organized the regional workshop in Kathmandu, Nepal, under the theme Measuring Tourism: Better data for better tourism in Asia and the Pacific. Option A: It states an invented economic slogan instead of the official statistical workshop theme. Option C: It incorrectly identifies eco-tourism promotion as the title rather than tourism measurement and data governance. Option D: It substitutes sustainable healthy practices for the actual focus on data and measurement.

150. Q150Events, summits and observances

     Where did the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC COP 27) take place ?

     • aBali, Indonesia
     • bVersailles, France
     • cSharm el- Sheikh, EgyptAnswer
     • dJohannesburg, Sough Africa
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the 27th Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (COP27) was held in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, from November 6 to November 20, 2022. Option A: Bali, Indonesia hosted the G20 Leaders' Summit in 2022, not COP27. Option B: Versailles, France hosted the informal European Council Summit in March 2022. Option D: Johannesburg, South Africa hosted the Earth Summit (World Summit on Sustainable Development) in 2002.

151. Q151Events, summits and observances

     Read the following statements about the 'National Science Day'(NSD) 2022: A. National Science Day was organised on February 28, 2022. B. The theme of the National Science Day 2022 was 'The women in Science' Choose the correct statement(s):

     • aA onlyAnswer
     • bBoth A & B
     • cNeither A nor B
     • dB only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Statement A is true whereas Statement B is false, making only Statement A correct. National Science Day is observed on February 28 every year to mark the discovery of the Raman Effect. The theme for National Science Day 2022 was Integrated Approach in Science and Technology for a Sustainable Future. 'Women in Science' was the theme for National Science Day 2020, not 2022. Option B: It is incorrect because statement B wrongly identifies the 2020 theme as the 2022 theme. Option C: It is incorrect because statement A is historically and factually accurate. Option D: It is incorrect because statement B contains an erroneous theme while statement A is true.

152. Q152Reports, indices and rankings

     Match the following countries based on their ranks in World Happiness Report (WHR), 2023: Country Rank A. Iceland I. Rank One B. Israel II. Rank Two C. Finland III. Rank Three D. Denmark IV. Rank Four V. Rank Five Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-IV; B-II; C-III; D-V
     • bA-II; B-I; C-IV; D-V
     • cA-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
     • dA-III; B-IV; C-I; D-IIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because it accurately pairs each country with its position in the top five of the World Happiness Report 2023. Finland: Rank One Denmark: Rank Two Iceland: Rank Three Israel: Rank Four Option A: Israel was not ranked second, and Denmark was not ranked fifth. Option B: Iceland was not ranked second, and Israel was not ranked first. Option C: Iceland was not ranked second, and Denmark was not ranked fourth.

153. Q153Reports, indices and rankings

     According to NITI Aayog's Annual Report 2021-22, which of the following is not a domain of NITI Aayog's State Health Index?

     • aHealth Outcomes
     • bGovernance and Information
     • cBest PracticesAnswer
     • dKey Inputs / Process
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Best Practices is not recognized as an independent domain in NITI Aayog's State Health Index; instead, the index evaluates performance across three specific weighted domains. Domain 1: Health Outcomes Domain 2: Governance and Information Domain 3: Key Inputs and Processes Option A: Health Outcomes is the most heavily weighted core domain of the State Health Index. Option B: Governance and Information is one of the three established core domains. Option D: Key Inputs / Process is an official domain measuring healthcare infrastructure and human resources.

154. Q154Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

     The Government of India announced setting up of the PM MITRA mega textile parks in the following States: A. Tamil Nadu B. Gujarat C. Tripura D. Telangana Choose the correct answer :

     • aB and C only
     • bA, B, C and D
     • cA, C and D only
     • dA, B and D onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) parks were approved for seven states, including Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, and Telangana, whereas Tripura is not among the selected states. Tamil Nadu Telangana Gujarat Karnataka Madhya Pradesh Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra Option A: It omits Tamil Nadu and Telangana while incorrectly including Tripura. Option B: It includes Tripura, which was not selected for setting up a PM MITRA park. Option C: It includes Tripura and leaves out Gujarat.

155. Q155Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

     of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports (NIMAS) from January to March 2023. Which of the following countries were part of this cycling expedition? A. Vietnam B. Bangladesh C. Cambodia D. Thailand E. Sri Lanka Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B and C only
     • bA, C and D onlyAnswer
     • cA, C, D and E only
     • dA, B, C and E only
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the National Institute of Mountaineering and Allied Sports cycling expedition covered four Southeast Asian nations, namely Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, and Thailand. Countries covered in the expedition: Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand Option A: Bangladesh is incorrect as the expedition was conducted across Southeast Asian countries. Option C: Sri Lanka is incorrect because it was not part of this Southeast Asian cycling route. Option D: Both Bangladesh and Sri Lanka are incorrect as neither country was traversed by the expedition team.

156. Q156Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

     D. Phase-II of FAME : Related to giving push to electric vehicles in public transport Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched?

     • aB and C only
     • bA, C and D only
     • cB and D onlyAnswer
     • dA only

     Explanation coming soon.

157. Q157Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

     The Kerala Shipping and Inland Navigation Corporation (KSINC) has introduced the first solar-powered, double-decked, hybrid boat for the promotion of tourism in the State in April 2023. What is the name of the boat?

     • aSoorya Ratham
     • bSooryamshuAnswer
     • cSoorya Nakshatra
     • dSooryodayam
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Sooryamshu is the solar-powered, double-decked tourist vessel introduced by the Kerala Shipping and Inland Navigation Corporation at Kochi in April 2023 to boost eco-friendly inland tourism. Option A: Soorya Ratham is an incorrect name that was never used for this solar vessel project. Option C: Soorya Nakshatra is a fictitious vessel name not associated with the Kerala Shipping and Inland Navigation Corporation. Option D: Sooryodayam is an incorrect name and does not represent the hybrid solar boat commissioned by the agency.

158. Q158Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

     Which of the following research institutes developed a pocket-friendly device to detect milk adulteration in 30 seconds?

     • aIIT MadrasAnswer
     • bIICT Hyderabad
     • cThe National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), Karnal, Haryana
     • dThe National Institute of Dairy Science and Technology (NIDST), Ludhiana, Punjab
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because researchers at IIT Madras developed a cost-effective, paper-based 3D sensor device capable of detecting multiple adulterants in milk within 30 seconds. Option B: IICT Hyderabad focuses primarily on chemical technology and was not the institution that developed this portable testing kit. Option C: The National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), Karnal conducts primary dairy research but did not create this specific 30-second paper-based diagnostic device. Option D: The National Institute of Dairy Science and Technology (NIDST), Ludhiana was not involved in the design or launch of this sensor.

159. Q159Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

     Consider the following statements: A. BARC announced in March 2023 that a large deposit of lithium, crucial for batteries in electric vehicles and electronic devices, has been discovered. B. According to a United States Geological Survey (USGS) report published in 2022, a total of 89 million tonnes of lithium has been identified worldwide, with Australia, Chile, Argentina, and China as major producers. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

     • aA only
     • bB onlyAnswer
     • cBoth A and B
     • dNeither A nor B
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the 2022 USGS report documented approximately 89 million tonnes of identified lithium resources globally, whereas statement A is false because the discovery was announced by the Geological Survey of India, not BARC. Option A: Statement A is incorrect because the Geological Survey of India (GSI) announced the discovery of 5.9 million tonnes of lithium in Jammu and Kashmir, not the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). Option C: Statement A contains the erroneous attribution to BARC instead of GSI. Option D: Statement B is historically accurate based on official USGS Mineral Commodity Summaries.

160. Q160Economy in the news

     Match the following items of India's trade with value of foreign trade during April - November 2021: Items of Trade Value of Foreign Trade (in USD Billions approximately) A. Non-Petroleum exports I. 200 B. Non-Petroleum imports II. 231 C. Non-Petroleu, Non-Gems and Jewellery exports III. 285 D. Non-Petroleum, Non-Gems and Jewellery imports IV. 226 Choose the correct answer from the following:

     • aA-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
     • bA-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
     • cA-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
     • dA-IV; B-III; C-I; D-IIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because it accurately pairs each trade category during April to November 2021 with its approximate foreign trade value in billion USD. Non-Petroleum exports: 226 billion USD (IV) Non-Petroleum imports: 285 billion USD (III) Non-Petroleum, Non-Gems and Jewellery exports: 200 billion USD (I) Non-Petroleum, Non-Gems and Jewellery imports: 231 billion USD (II) Option A: Incorrectly identifies non-petroleum exports as 285 billion USD instead of 226 billion USD. Option B: Incorrectly matches non-petroleum imports to 200 billion USD instead of 285 billion USD. Option C: Incorrectly lists non-petroleum exports as 200 billion USD instead of 226 billion USD.