TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2023

163 questions from the 2023 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Public policy and governance

    Which of the following recommended for the establishment of the Public Record Offices as an independent authority by both the Government of India and State Governments?

    • aSupreme Court judgement on Girish Ramchandra Deshpande vs. Central Information Commission
    • bThe NITI Aayog Task Force on Good Governance
    • cThe Second Administrative Reforms CommissionAnswer
    • dThe Parliamentary Joint Working Group on Right to Information
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its First Report titled Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance, recommended that the Government of India and State Governments should establish Public Records Offices as independent authorities to ensure proper archiving and retrieval of public records. Option A: It is incorrect because the Girish Ramchandra Deshpande case dealt with the exemption of personal information under Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, not institutional record offices. Option B: It is incorrect because NITI Aayog task forces have not made statutory recommendations regarding independent public record offices. Option D: It is incorrect because no such joint working group made the cited institutional recommendation.

42. Q42Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    Which of the following is not matched correctly in relation to the year of enacting?

    • a2005: The Right to Information Act
    • b2005: The MGNREG Act
    • c2009: The RTE Act
    • d2012: The National Food Security ActAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the National Food Security Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 2013, making the paired year 2012 incorrect. Right to Information Act: 2005 Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act: 2005 Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act: 2009 National Food Security Act: 2013 Option A: The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005. Option B: The MGNREG Act was passed by Parliament in 2005. Option C: The RTE Act was enacted by Parliament in 2009.

43. Q43Rights issues and social justice

    The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 was recommended by

    • aDave Committee
    • bKothari Commission
    • cNarasimham Committee
    • dGurupadswamy CommitteeAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 was enacted based on the recommendations of the Gurupadswamy Committee, which was appointed in 1979 to examine the problem of child labour. Gurupadswamy Committee was formed in 1979 Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act was enacted in 1986 Option A: Dave Committee examined issues relating to pension and social security schemes for the unorganised sector. Option B: Kothari Commission was appointed to advise on general principles and policies for the development of education in India. Option C: Narasimham Committee recommended reforms in the Indian banking and financial system.

44. Q44Rights issues and social justice

    As per the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, who among the following can issue the certificate of identity for a transgender person?

    • aThe Chief Medical Officer of the area hospital
    • bThe Medical Superintendent of the area hospital
    • cThe District MagistrateAnswer
    • dThe elected Sarpanch of the village or the Chairperson in case of Municipality
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Section 5 and Section 6 of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 designate the District Magistrate as the competent authority to receive applications and issue the certificate of identity. Option A: The Chief Medical Officer of the area hospital may assist with medical evaluations, but has no legal authority under the Act to issue the identity certificate. Option B: The Medical Superintendent of the area hospital has administrative and clinical duties in a hospital, not the statutory power to confer legal gender identity. Option D: The elected Sarpanch of the village or the Chairperson in case of Municipality holds local self-government functions but is not designated as an issuing authority under the Act.

45. Q45India's foreign policy and international relations

    Consider the following statements in relation to the Tibetan issue : A. When China announced that it would be occupying Tibet, India sent a letter of protest proposing negotiations on the Tibet issue. B. In 1954, China and India concluded the 25. Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, under which India acknowledged Chinese rule in Tibet. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because both statements accurately reflect historical diplomacy between India and China regarding Tibet during the 1950s. 1950: India lodged a diplomatic protest over China's military action in Tibet and urged negotiations. 1954: India signed the Panchsheel Agreement, formally acknowledging Chinese sovereignty over Tibet. Option A: ignores the validity of statement B regarding the 1954 agreement. Option B: ignores the validity of statement A regarding India's 1950 protest. Option D: incorrectly rejects two well-established historical facts.

46. Q46India's foreign policy and international relations

    Match the following UN specialised agencies with their headquarters: Agency Headquarter A. FAO I. New york B. UNIDO II. Geneva C. ILO III. Rome D. UNESCO IV. Paris V. Vienna Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
    • bA-II; B-I; C-IV; D-V
    • cA-V; B-IV; C-I; D-II
    • dA-III; B-V; C-II; D-IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Food and Agriculture Organization is headquartered in Rome, UNIDO in Vienna, the International Labour Organization in Geneva, and UNESCO in Paris. FAO: Rome UNIDO: Vienna ILO: Geneva UNESCO: Paris Option A: Incorrectly matches FAO with Paris and UNIDO with Rome. Option B: Incorrectly matches FAO with Geneva and UNIDO with New York. Option C: Incorrectly matches FAO with Vienna and ILO with New York.

47. Q47India's foreign policy and international relations

    Consider the following statements in relation to the G-20: A. The G-20 was founded in 1999 as a forum for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors. B. The G-20 was upgraded to the level of Heads of State/Government in 2010. C. The expanded agenda of G-20 includes 26. trade, sustainable development, health, agriculture, energy, environment, climate change and anti-corruption. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA and B only
    • bA, B and C
    • cB and C only
    • dA and C onlyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statement A is historically accurate regarding the establishment of the G-20 in 1999, and statement C correctly captures the broad and diverse thematic areas covered under its contemporary agenda. Option A: Statement B is incorrect because the G-20 was elevated to the level of Heads of State or Government in 2008 in the aftermath of the global financial crisis, not in 2010. Option B: Includes statement B, which misdates the elevation of the forum to 2010 instead of 2008. Option C: Omits statement A, which is correct, while including the erroneous statement B.

48. Q48India's foreign policy and international relations

    Which of the following pairs are matched correctly? A. ASEAN Secretariat : Bangkok, Thailand B. SAARC Secretariat : Kathmandu, Nepal C. European Union (EU) : Brussels, Belgium D. African Union(AU) : Addis Aaba, Ethiopia Choose the correct answer :

    • aA, B and C only
    • bA, B, C and D
    • cB, C and D onlyAnswer
    • dA and B only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements B, C, and D are correctly matched, whereas statement A incorrectly identifies Bangkok as the headquarters of the ASEAN Secretariat instead of Jakarta, Indonesia. ASEAN Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia SAARC Secretariat: Kathmandu, Nepal European Union: Brussels, Belgium African Union: Addis Ababa, Ethiopia Option A: Includes statement A, which incorrectly places the ASEAN Secretariat in Bangkok instead of Jakarta. Option B: Includes statement A, making the entire combination incorrect. Option D: Omits correct statements C and D, while retaining the incorrectly matched statement A.

49. Q49India's foreign policy and international relations

    To increase the availability and reduce cost of a fertilisers, the Central Government introduced 'One Nation, One Fertiliser' under

    • a'Bharat' brand nameAnswer
    • bVishala Bharat' brand name
    • c'Ekta Bharat' brand name
    • dSamaikya Bharat' brand name
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because under the 'One Nation, One Fertiliser' scheme, which is part of the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janurvarak Pariyojana (PMBJP), all subsidised fertilisers are marketed under the single umbrella brand name 'Bharat' (e.g., Bharat Urea, Bharat DAP, Bharat NPK). Option B: 'Vishala Bharat' is not an approved brand name for any government fertilizer programme. Option C: 'Ekta Bharat' is not the brand name designated under PMBJP. Option D: 'Samaikya Bharat' is not the brand name designated by the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

50. Q50India's foreign policy and international relations

    Arrange the following programmes/schemes in chronological order based on launching/ implementation year of these programmes/ schemes: A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) B. PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi C. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission D. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana Choose the correct answer from the following:

    • aA, C, D, B
    • bC, D, A, BAnswer
    • cD, C, B, A
    • dA, D, C, B
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because arranging the schemes by their introduction dates yields the sequence C, D, A, and B. National Rural Livelihoods Mission: June 2011 Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana: August 2014 Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban): June 2015 PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi: June 2020 Option A: It places PMAY (Urban) before NRLM and Jan Dhan Yojana. Option C: It places Jan Dhan Yojana before NRLM and PM SVANidhi before PMAY (Urban). Option D: It mistakenly starts the timeline with PMAY (Urban) instead of NRLM.

51. Q51Population, poverty and work

    Consider the following in relation to the MGNREGA: A. Wage seekers are the primary stakeholders of the MGNREGA. B. The Field Officer recommends the works to be taken up under MGNREGA. C. Gram Sabha conducts social audit on implementation of the scheme. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA and B only
    • bA and C onlyAnswer
    • cA, B and C
    • dC only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because wage seekers are the central stakeholders of the scheme and the Gram Sabha is legally empowered to conduct social audits, whereas the works to be taken up are recommended and planned by the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat, not by a Field Officer. Option A: Statement B is incorrect because project selection is a decentralized function of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat. Option C: Statement B is included here despite being contradictory to the decentralized statutory provisions of the Act. Option D: Statement A is omitted, even though wage seekers are officially recognized as the primary stakeholders of the scheme.

52. Q52Agriculture in the Indian economy

    Which of the following statements related to Soil Health Card Scheme of the Central Government are true? A. This scheme was introduced in the year 2014-15. B. In Cycle-I of this scheme, around 10-74 crore cards have been issued to farmers. C. In Cycle-II of this scheme, around 12-47 crore cards have been issued to farmers. D. Under Model Village Programme, around 3 crore cards have been issued to farmers. Choose the correct answer from the following:

    • aB and C only
    • bA and B onlyAnswer
    • cB, C and D only
    • dA and D only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statements A and B accurately state that the Soil Health Card Scheme was launched in 2014-15 and that 10.74 crore cards were distributed during Cycle-I. Launch date: 19 February 2015 (Financial Year 2014-15) Cycle-I (2015 to 2017): 10.74 crore cards distributed Cycle-II (2017 to 2019): 11.69 crore cards distributed (not 12.47 crore) Model Village Programme (2019-20): around 19.64 lakh cards distributed (not 3 crore) Option A: It includes statement C, which incorrectly reports 12.47 crore cards instead of 11.69 crore cards for Cycle-II. Option C: It includes statements C and D, both of which give incorrect figures for cards issued. Option D: It includes statement D, which drastically overstates the cards issued under the Model Village Programme as around 3 crore.

53. Q53Industry in the Indian economy

    Which of the following are true in relation to 'Make in India' initiative? A. To facilitate investment B. To foster innovation C. To make India a hub for manufacturing, design and innovation. D. To build best in class infrastructure Choose the correct answer from the following:

    • aA and B only
    • bC and D only
    • cA, B, C and DAnswer
    • dB, C and D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because all four statements represent the core pillars and objectives of the Make in India initiative, which seeks to ease investment, foster innovation, upgrade intellectual property infrastructure, and build world-class manufacturing facilities. Option A: It excludes statements C and D, both of which are central aims of Make in India. Option B: It ignores statements A and B, which are foundational pillars of the initiative. Option D: It omits statement A, which is a primary objective aimed at attracting domestic and foreign investment.

54. Q54Industry in the Indian economy

    Consider the following statements related to Industrial Corridor Development Programme in India: A. Government of India has adopted the strategy of developing industrial corridors in partnership with State Governments and private investors. B. The objective of this programme is to develop Greenfield Industrial regions/areas/nodes with sustainable infrastructure and ensure plug and play infrastructure at the plot level. Which of the above statements is/are true?

    • aB only
    • bA only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because India's Industrial Corridor Development Programme operates via special purpose vehicles created jointly with state governments and private players to construct greenfield smart nodes with plot-level plug-and-play infrastructure. Option A: It excludes statement A, which correctly reflects the institutional partnership between the Union, states, and private investors. Option B: It excludes statement B, which accurately states the goal of building greenfield industrial nodes with plug-and-play facilities. Option D: It incorrectly dismisses both statements, both of which describe the core framework of the programme.

55. Q55External sector and the world economy

    Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) is mainly implemented by the

    • aMinistry of Shipping, Government of India
    • bMinistry of Commerce and Industry, Government of IndiaAnswer
    • cMinistry of Finance, Government of India
    • dMinistry of Roads and Buildings, Government of India
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) was launched in 2017 by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to help establish and upgrade export-related infrastructure. Option A: The Ministry of Shipping oversees maritime transport and ports, but TIES is not under its purview. Option C: The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy and revenue, not the administration of export infrastructure schemes. Option D: The Ministry of Roads and Buildings is a state-level department, whereas TIES is a central scheme run by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

56. Q56External sector and the world economy

    Consider the following statements in relation to the Foreign Trade Policy of the Government of India : A. Foreign Trade Policy is a set of guidelines and instructions established by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) in matters related to the import and export of goods in India. B. The Government of India, Ministry of Finance announces Export Import Policy every five years. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA onlyAnswer
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Foreign Trade Policy provisions and trade procedures are formulated and administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), which functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Finance. Option B: Statement B is wrong because the Foreign Trade Policy is announced by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, while statement A is fully accurate. Option C: Statement B is incorrect because the Ministry of Finance does not formulate or announce the Foreign Trade Policy. Option D: Statement A is a correct description of the regulatory authority of the DGFT under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act.

57. Q57STATE ECONOMY: structure and public finance

    Consider the following statements in relation to the RBI's working paper "States' Fiscal Performance and Yield Spreads on Market Borrowings in India", released in January 2023: A. The average debt to Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Telangana from 2014-15 to 2018-19 was 16-1 percent. B. The States' percentage of Own Revenue Generation in Total Receipts deteriorating fast. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the RBI working paper documented that Telangana's average debt-to-GSDP ratio stood at 16.1 percent over the 2014-15 to 2018-19 period, while also highlighting that states' own revenue generation as a share of total receipts was experiencing a rapid deterioration across India. Option A: It excludes statement B, which was an explicit macroeconomic finding regarding the erosion of states' own revenue capacities highlighted in the paper. Option B: It excludes statement A, which accurately quotes the empirical debt-to-GSDP baseline calculated for Telangana in the RBI study. Option D: It incorrectly rejects both statements even though both are factual findings published in the RBI working paper.

58. Q58STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Which of the following statements related to Rythu Bandhu Scheme of Telangana State is/are correct? A. In 2020 - 21 Telangana budget, 65-4% of agricultural budget was earmarked for Rythu Bandhu Scheme. B. In 202021 Telangana budget, 7-7% of total budget was earmarked for Rythu Bandhu Scheme. C. Telangana government launched Rythu Bandhu Scheme in 2016. D. In the year 2020, 80% of Rythu Bandhu Scheme beneficiaries were marginal and small farmers. Choose the correct answer:

    • aD only
    • bB only
    • cA, B and D onlyAnswer
    • dA and C only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements A, B, and D accurately reflect the budgetary allocations and beneficiary demographics of the Rythu Bandhu Scheme for the 2020-21 fiscal period, whereas statement C contains an incorrect launch year. Rythu Bandhu Scheme official launch date: May 10, 2018 Agricultural budget share earmarked for the scheme in 2020-21: 65.4 percent Total state budget share earmarked for the scheme in 2020-21: 7.7 percent Small and marginal farmer share of scheme beneficiaries in 2020: approximately 80 percent Option A: Omits statements A and B, which are correct statistical facts from the Telangana 2020-21 state budget. Option B: Omits statements A and D, both of which are also verified correct figures. Option D: Statement C is factually incorrect because Rythu Bandhu was launched in 2018, not in 2016.

59. Q59STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Consider the following pairs in relation to incentives offered under Telangana Textiles and Apparel Policy 2017 - 22: Incentive Type Incentive A. Capital subsidy : Up to RS. 40 crore B. Interest subsidy : 6% per annum for 8 years C. Power subsidy : Up to RS. 1.5 per unit D. SGST reimbursement : 100% for 7 years Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched?

    • aA and C only
    • bB and D only
    • cA and D only
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four pairs accurately reflect the key fiscal incentives offered under the Telangana Textiles and Apparel Policy (T-TAP) 2017-22. Capital subsidy: Up to Rs. 40 crore Interest subsidy: 6% per annum for 8 years Power subsidy: Up to Rs. 1.5 per unit SGST reimbursement: 100% for 7 years Option A: A and C only is incorrect because pairs B and D are also fully accurate incentives of the policy. Option B: B and D only is incorrect because pairs A and C are also correctly matched. Option C: A and D only is incorrect because pairs B and C are also correct.

60. Q60STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

    Consider the following statements related to IT industry in Telangana: A. During 2014-15, the IT exports from Telangana were worthRs. 66,276 crore which almost tripled toRs. 1,83,569 crore by 2021-22. B. Through the Growth in Diversity policy, the Government provides special incentives to the companies that expand or set up their IT units beyond the western part of Hyderabad. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA onlyAnswer
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statement A is factually accurate according to Telangana government records, while statement B misnames the policy as the Growth in Diversity policy instead of the GRID (Growth in Dispersion) policy. Key facts regarding Telangana IT policies: IT exports in 2014-15: Rs. 66,276 crore IT exports in 2021-22: Rs. 1,83,569 crore Policy incentivising IT expansion outside western Hyderabad: GRID (Growth in Dispersion) Policy, not Growth in Diversity Option B: B only is incorrect because statement B uses the wrong term (Diversity instead of Dispersion) and statement A is correct. Option C: Both A and B is incorrect because statement B contains an erroneous policy name. Option D: Neither A nor B is incorrect because statement A is correct.

61. Q61Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    The sequence of geological composition from the depth to the surface of the Earth is:

    • aCrust - Mantle - Inner core - Outer core
    • bMantle - Crust - Inner core - Outer core
    • cOuter core - Inner core- Crust -Mantle
    • dInner core-Outer core - Mantle -CrustAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because arranging the Earth layers from greatest depth at the center out to the surface yields the sequence inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Inner core: center of Earth, depth from about 5150 km to 6371 km Outer core: liquid layer, depth from about 2890 km to 5150 km Mantle: intermediate layer, depth from about 35 km to 2890 km Crust: outermost layer, surface down to about 35 km Option A: It presents the reverse order, proceeding from surface down to depth. Option B: It places the mantle above the crust and inverts the inner and outer cores. Option C: It places the outer core deeper than the inner core and crust beneath the mantle.

62. Q62Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Consider the following statements related to Igneous rocks: A. Igneous rocks are granular or crystalline. B. They do not have strata-like sedimentary rocks. C. They are less affected by chemical weathering. D. Igneous rocks do not contain fossils. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA and B only
    • bB and C only
    • cB, C and D only
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four statements accurately describe igneous rocks, which crystallize from molten magma into granular structures, lack sedimentary bedding planes, resist chemical weathering better than soft sedimentary rocks, and contain no fossils due to high formation temperatures. Option A: It excludes statements C and D, both of which are valid characteristics of igneous rocks. Option B: It excludes statements A and D, ignoring the crystalline texture and absence of fossils in igneous formations. Option C: It excludes statement A, which correctly identifies that igneous rocks are granular or crystalline.

63. Q63Interior of the Earth and its landforms

    Consider the following statements: A. A deadly earthquake occurred in Bhuj, Gujarat. B. More than 20,000 people lost their lives in the earthquake. C. The earthquake occurred on the Independence Day, 2001. D. Smriti Van Memorial for earthquake-victims was inaugurated by the Prime Minister in August 2022 at Bhuj. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA and B only
    • bA, B and C only
    • cB and D only
    • dA, B and D onlyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements A, B, and D are historically accurate, whereas the Bhuj earthquake occurred on Republic Day (26 January 2001), not on Independence Day. Date of Bhuj earthquake: 26 January 2001 (51st Republic Day) Death toll: Exceeded 20,000 lives Smriti Van Memorial inauguration: 28 August 2022 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Bhuj Option A: overlooks statement D, which is also completely correct. Option B: includes statement C, which incorrectly names Independence Day instead of Republic Day. Option C: leaves out statement A, which correctly identifies Bhuj in Gujarat as the disaster site.

64. Q64Oceans

    Match the following ocean currents and their location/type: Ocean Current Location/Type A. Benguela current I. Warm current B. Kuroshio current II. Cold current C. North Atlantic Drift III. Pacific Ocean D. Agulhas current IV. Indian Ocean Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
    • bA-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
    • cA-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
    • dA-II; B-III; C-I; D-IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because Benguela is a cold current (II), Kuroshio is located in the Pacific Ocean (III), North Atlantic Drift is a warm current (I), and Agulhas is located in the Indian Ocean (IV). Benguela current: Cold current (II) Kuroshio current: Pacific Ocean (III) North Atlantic Drift: Warm current (I) Agulhas current: Indian Ocean (IV) Option A: A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I is incorrect because it incorrectly pairs the North Atlantic Drift with the Indian Ocean. Option B: A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II is incorrect because Benguela is in the South Atlantic Ocean, not the Pacific. Option C: A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II is incorrect because Benguela is an Atlantic current, not an Indian Ocean current.

65. Q65India: physiography, drainage and climate

    Read the following statements about the effect of 'Mascarene High' on monsoon rainfall in India: A. 'Mascarene High' is a low-pressure area observed around the Mascarene Islands (in the Southern Indian Ocean) during the rainy season (monsoon). B. 'Mascarene High' is responsible for the cross-equatorial flow through the Southern Arabian Sea and acts as a Southern Hemisphere connection. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB onlyAnswer
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statement B accurately identifies the Mascarene High as the high-pressure area that drives cross-equatorial airflow into the Arabian Sea, powering the Indian southwest monsoon. Option A: Mascarene High is a semi-permanent subtropical high-pressure cell, not a low-pressure area. Option C: Statement A is factually inaccurate regarding the pressure system type. Option D: Statement B is a verified meteorological mechanism controlling monsoon intensity.

66. Q66Natural resources and their distribution

    Consider the following statements regarding Ken-Betwa River Link Project (KBLP) for irrigation: A. It is critical for the water security and socio-economic development of Purvanchal region of Uttar Pradesh. B. The project involves the transfer of water from the Betwa to the Ken River through the construction of Daudhan Dam. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and B
    • dNeither A nor BAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because both statements A and B are factually incorrect. Target region: Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh Water transfer: Surplus water from Ken river basin to deficit Betwa river basin Key structure: Daudhan Dam across the Ken River Option A: Statement A is false because the project benefits the drought-prone Bundelkhand region, not Purvanchal. Option B: Statement B is false because water is diverted from the Ken River to the Betwa River, not Betwa to Ken. Option C: Both statements are false because the project serves Bundelkhand and transfers water from Ken to Betwa.

67. Q67Industrial location and industrial regions

    Consider the following pairs: Iron and Steel Plant State A. Bhilai : Chhattisgarh B. Bokaro : Jharkhand C. Dolvi : Maharashtra D. Daitari : Odisha Identify the correctly matched pairs:

    • aA and B only
    • bB and C only
    • cA, B and D only
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four pairs are accurately matched with their respective states. Bhilai Steel Plant is located in Durg district of Chhattisgarh Bokaro Steel Plant is located in Bokaro district of Jharkhand Dolvi Steel Plant is operated by JSW Steel in Raigad district of Maharashtra Daitari Steel Plant complex is located in Odisha Option A: It excludes Dolvi and Daitari, which are also correctly matched with Maharashtra and Odisha respectively. Option B: It omits Bhilai and Daitari, both of which are correct matches. Option C: It leaves out the Dolvi plant located in Maharashtra, which is a correct pairing.

68. Q68Population, settlement and human geography

    Arrange the following States, among the bigger States, whose population densities were the highest as per the Census of India 2011, in descending order: A. Bihar B. Kerala C. Haryana D. Uttar Pradesh E. West Bengal Choose the correct order:

    • aD, A, B, C, E
    • bB, E, C, D, A
    • cA, E, B, D, CAnswer
    • dA, D, E, B, C
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because ranking the states by their 2011 population densities in descending order places Bihar first, West Bengal second, Kerala third, Uttar Pradesh fourth, and Haryana fifth. Bihar (A): 1,106 persons per square kilometre West Bengal (E): 1,028 persons per square kilometre Kerala (B): 860 persons per square kilometre Uttar Pradesh (D): 829 persons per square kilometre Haryana (C): 573 persons per square kilometre Option A: This order wrongly starts with Uttar Pradesh instead of Bihar and ends with West Bengal. Option B: This order wrongly places Kerala at the top ahead of Bihar and West Bengal. Option D: This order incorrectly places Uttar Pradesh ahead of West Bengal and Kerala.

69. Q69Population, settlement and human geography

    Match the following States with child sex ratio (0-6 years) of these States in 2011 as per the 2011 Census: State Child sex ratio (0-6 years) A. Haryana I. 941 B. Rajasthan II. 888 C. Arunachal Pradesh III. 834 D. Odisha IV. 972 Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
    • bA-III; B-II; C-IV; D-IAnswer
    • cA-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
    • dA-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because matching each state with its corresponding child sex ratio (0-6 years) from Census 2011 produces the combination A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I. Haryana: 834 Rajasthan: 888 Arunachal Pradesh: 972 Odisha: 941 Option A: Misassigns Haryana to 888 and Arunachal Pradesh to 941. Option C: Incorrectly pairs Haryana with 972 and Odisha with 888. Option D: Inverts the values, pairing Haryana with 941 and Rajasthan with 972.

70. Q70Population, settlement and human geography

    Match the following Modern Languages (Family) with the States/UT: Language (Family) State/UT A. Austric I. Meghalaya B. Dravidian II. Kerala C. Sino-Tibetan III. Arunachal Pradesh D. Indo-European IV.Jammu and Kashmir Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
    • bA-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
    • cA-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
    • dA-I; B-II; C-III; D-IVAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Mon-Khmer branch of the Austric family is spoken by the Khasi in Meghalaya, Dravidian family languages like Malayalam are spoken in Kerala, Sino-Tibetan languages are native to Arunachal Pradesh, and Indo-European languages like Kashmiri and Dogri belong to Jammu and Kashmir. Option A: It pairs Austric with Kerala and Dravidian with Meghalaya, which contradicts the geographical distributions of both families. Option B: It incorrectly matches Austric to Jammu and Kashmir and Indo-European to Meghalaya. Option C: It misattributes Austric to Jammu and Kashmir and Sino-Tibetan to Kerala.

71. Q71Population, settlement and human geography

    The Census of India has classified towns into six categories on the basis of their population. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

    • aClass II towns with 50,000 to 99,999 population
    • bClass III towns with 30,000 to 49,999 populationAnswer
    • cClass V towns with 5,000 to 9,999 population
    • dClass VI towns with less than 5,000 population
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Class III towns are defined by the Census of India as urban centers with a population between 20,000 and 49,999, not 30,000 to 49,999. Class I: 100,000 and above Class II: 50,000 to 99,999 Class III: 20,000 to 49,999 Class IV: 10,000 to 19,999 Class V: 5,000 to 9,999 Class VI: Less than 5,000 Option A: It is correctly matched as Class II towns strictly have a population range of 50,000 to 99,999. Option C: It is correctly matched as Class V towns strictly have a population range of 5,000 to 9,999. Option D: It is correctly matched as Class VI towns comprise settlements with a population of less than 5,000.

72. Q72Natural hazards, disasters and their management

    Which of the following is not a geological hazard?

    • aMine fire
    • bTropical cycloneAnswer
    • cTsunami
    • dVolcano eruption
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because a tropical cyclone is a hydro-meteorological or atmospheric hazard driven by convective weather systems and warm sea-surface temperatures, not a geological hazard. Option A: Mine fire is a geological and technological hazard directly linked to underground coal deposits and mineral extraction. Option C: Tsunami is classified as a geological hazard because its trigger is usually a seabed earthquake, volcanic eruption, or submarine mass movement. Option D: Volcano eruption is an endogenous geological process involving the movement and expulsion of molten rock from within the Earth.

73. Q73Natural hazards, disasters and their management

    Consider the following statements: A. The National Disaster Management Act was enacted in 2005. B. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by the Prime Minister. C. State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is headed by the Chief Minister. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cA and B only
    • dA, B and CAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all three statements are true provisions under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Disaster Management Act enacted in 2005 Section 3(2): Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairperson of NDMA Section 14(2): Chief Minister of the State is the ex officio Chairperson of SDMA Option A: Incorrect because it excludes statements B and C, which are also legally accurate. Option B: Incorrect because it leaves out statements A and C. Option C: Incorrect because it omits statement C, which correctly identifies the Chief Minister as the head of the SDMA.

74. Q74World regional geography

    "Zuider Zee', a tract of lowland reclaimed from a body of water in the Netherlands is known for:

    • aPoldersAnswer
    • bDykes
    • cCanyons
    • dGeysers
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because tracts of lowland reclaimed from bodies of water such as the Zuiderzee using dikes and pumping stations in the Netherlands are termed polders. Option B: Dykes are the protective retaining barriers or dams constructed to hold back water, not the reclaimed tracts of land themselves. Option C: Canyons are deep valleys carved naturally by river systems through rock strata. Option D: Geysers are natural geothermal features that intermittently eject columns of hot water and steam.

75. Q75STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

    Identify the top three districts with highest share of forest area to their total geographical area in Telangana State (2020-21).

    • aMulugu, Jayashankar Bhupalpally and Kumuram Bheem Asifabad
    • bMulugu, Bhadradri Kothagudem and Kumuram Bheem AsifabadAnswer
    • cMulugu, Kumuram Bheem Asifabad and Bhadradri Kothagudem
    • dBhadradri Kothagudem, Kumuram Bheem Asifabad and Adilabad
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because according to the Telangana State Statistical Year Book and forest reports, the top three districts with the highest percentage of forest cover relative to geographical area are Mulugu, followed by Bhadradri Kothagudem and Kumuram Bheem Asifabad. Mulugu: over 70% forest cover Bhadradri Kothagudem: over 50% forest cover Kumuram Bheem Asifabad: over 40% forest cover Option A: Jayashankar Bhupalpally ranks lower than Bhadradri Kothagudem after district bifurcations. Option C: Kumuram Bheem Asifabad has a lower percentage share than Bhadradri Kothagudem, placing it third rather than second. Option D: Omits Mulugu entirely, which has the highest forest percentage in the state.

76. Q76TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

    Consider the following statements regarding the South Telangana Agro-Climatic Zone: A. Medak-Malkajgiri, Wanaparthy, Ranga Reddy and Vikarabad districts fall under this zone. B. The annual rainfall (June to May) ranges from 610 to 850 mm. Minimum and maximum temperatures in summer are between 32°C - 38°C. C. This zone mainly has alluvial soils. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    • aA and B onlyAnswer
    • bB and C only
    • cA and C only
    • dA, B and C
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the South Telangana Agro-Climatic Zone encompasses parts of southern Telangana including Wanaparthy, Vikarabad, and Medchal-Malkajgiri with an annual rainfall of 610 to 850 mm, whereas its soils are predominantly red soils rather than alluvial soils. Option B: Incorrect because statement C is erroneous as the predominant soils are red sandy loams and black soils, not alluvial soils. Option C: Incorrect because statement C is false while statement B accurately reflects the climatic parameters of the zone. Option D: Incorrect because statement C includes the false assertion that alluvial soils dominate this zone.

77. Q77TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

    According to the 2011 Census, which of the following newly formed districts have more than 40% urban population?

    • aWarangal
    • bSangareddy
    • cPeddapalli
    • dMancherialAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because according to the 2011 Census data recast for the reorganised districts of Telangana, Mancherial recorded an urban population share of over 43 percent, which is greater than 40 percent. Peddapalli district urban population: approximately 38.2 percent Sangareddy district urban population: approximately 34.7 percent Warangal district urban population: approximately 7 percent Mancherial district urban population: approximately 43.9 percent Option A: Incorrect because Warangal Rural has a predominantly rural population with urbanisation well below 40 percent. Option B: Incorrect because Sangareddy district's urban proportion is below the 40 percent mark. Option C: Incorrect because Peddapalli has an urban proportion of roughly 38 percent, falling below 40 percent.

78. Q78TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

    Consider the following pairs: Churches Location in Hyderabad A. St. John's Church : Bolarum B. Holy Trinity Church : Tirumalagiri C. St. Mary's Church : Secunderabad D. St. George's Church : Abids Choose the correct pair:

    • aA and B
    • bB and C
    • cC and DAnswer
    • dA and D
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because St. Mary's Church is situated in Secunderabad and St. George's Church is located at Abids, making pairs C and D correctly matched. Option A: Incorrect because St. John's Church is located in Secunderabad and Holy Trinity Church is located in Bolarum, not Tirumalagiri. Option B: Incorrect because Holy Trinity Church is in Bolarum rather than Tirumalagiri. Option D: Incorrect because pair A incorrectly places St. John's Church in Bolarum.

79. Q79Ecology and ecosystems

    Consider the following statements: A. Optimal usage of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides increases crop production. B. Pesticides are toxic to non-target organisms. C. Excess fertilizer residue loaded water inflow leads to eutrophication of lakes. D. Biomagnification of harmful chemicals poses a threat to human health. Which of the above statements are correct?

    • aA, B and C only
    • bA, C and D only
    • cA, B and D only
    • dA, B, C and DAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because all four statements accurately reflect ecological and agricultural realities regarding the proper use of inputs, chemical runoff, and environmental impacts. Option A: It is incorrect because statement D is also valid, as biomagnification of persistent pollutants directly endangers human health. Option B: It is incorrect because statement B is also valid, as broad-spectrum pesticides routinely harm beneficial insects and other non-target wildlife. Option C: It is incorrect because statement C is also valid, as nutrient-rich runoff causes algal blooms and severe eutrophication.

80. Q80Climate change: policy and response

    Consider the following statements: A. Global surface temperature was 1-09°C (0-95°C 1-20°C) higher in the decade 2011-2020 than in 1850-1900. B. The global temperature increase is larger over the land 1-59°C [1-34°C 1-83°C] than over the ocean 0-88°C [0-68°C -1-01°C]. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB only
    • cBoth A and BAnswer
    • dNeither A nor B
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because both statements are official findings taken directly from the IPCC Sixth Assessment Report (AR6). Global surface temperature rise (2011-2020 vs 1850-1900): 1.09°C (0.95°C to 1.20°C) Land surface temperature increase: 1.59°C (1.34°C to 1.83°C) Ocean surface temperature increase: 0.88°C (0.68°C to 1.01°C) Option A: It ignores statement B, which correctly states that land warms at a higher rate than the oceans. Option B: It ignores statement A, which correctly reflects the IPCC benchmark temperature increase of 1.09°C. Option D: It dismisses both statements, both of which are documented scientific facts.