TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2024

262 questions from the 2024 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

201. Q201Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Kalpana's project report has 40 pages. There are 75 lines with 80 characters per line. If the number of lines is reduced to 70 and the number of characters per line is increased to 95, what is the approximate change in the number of pages of that report?

     • a-7.5%
     • b-10%Answer
     • c-12%
     • d-14%
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the total character count requires about 36 pages in the new format, reflecting a reduction of approximately 10%. Initial characters = 40 * 75 * 80 = 240000 New characters per page = 70 * 95 = 6650 New number of pages = 240000 / 6650 ≈ 36.09 pages Percentage change = ((36.09 - 40) / 40) * 100 ≈ -9.775% ≈ -10% Option A: -7.5% underestimates the reduction by overestimating the new page requirement. Option C: -12% overestimates the page reduction. Option D: -14% incorrectly applies the line reduction percentage directly.

202. Q202Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Directions for questions 12 to 15: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nandu and Mohan decided to sell their Apple 6 series watches for Rs. 42,000 each to Karthik and Ganesh. The selling price of Rs. 42,000 was arrived at by increasing the cost price by 25%. Nandu gave his buyer Karthik a discount of 10% on the first Rs. 12,000, 8% on the next Rs. 16,000 and 5% on the remainder, while Mohan gave his buyer Ganesh a discount of 8% on the first Rs. 16,000, 7% on the next Rs. 8,000 and 5% on the remainder. These discounts are conditional: if a buyer fails to make a payment on time, the discount is reduced by 1% for every week of delay. If Nandu and Mohan receive all payments on time, what is the approximate profit percentage of the person who earns more profit between the two?

     • a14%
     • b21%
     • c17%Answer
     • d9%

     Explanation coming soon.

203. Q203Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Directions for questions 12 to 15: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nandu and Mohan decided to sell their Apple 6 series watches for Rs. 42,000 each to Karthik and Ganesh. The selling price of Rs. 42,000 was arrived at by increasing the cost price by 25%. Nandu gave his buyer Karthik a discount of 10% on the first Rs. 12,000, 8% on the next Rs. 16,000 and 5% on the remainder, while Mohan gave his buyer Ganesh a discount of 8% on the first Rs. 16,000, 7% on the next Rs. 8,000 and 5% on the remainder. These discounts are conditional: if a buyer fails to make a payment on time, the discount is reduced by 1% for every week of delay. If Karthik fails to make the second and third payments for 1 and 2 weeks respectively, what is the profit Nandu made from the watch sale?

     • aRs. 5,480
     • bRs. 5,545
     • cRs. 5,660Answer
     • dRs. 5,740

     Explanation coming soon.

204. Q204Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Directions for questions 12 to 15: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nandu and Mohan decided to sell their Apple 6 series watches for Rs. 42,000 each to Karthik and Ganesh. The selling price of Rs. 42,000 was arrived at by increasing the cost price by 25%. Nandu gave his buyer Karthik a discount of 10% on the first Rs. 12,000, 8% on the next Rs. 16,000 and 5% on the remainder, while Mohan gave his buyer Ganesh a discount of 8% on the first Rs. 16,000, 7% on the next Rs. 8,000 and 5% on the remainder. These discounts are conditional: if a buyer fails to make a payment on time, the discount is reduced by 1% for every week of delay. If Ganesh fails to make each payment for 2 weeks, what is the profit Mohan made from the watch sale?

     • aRs. 5,400
     • bRs. 6,200
     • cRs. 6,500Answer
     • dRs. 6,800

     Explanation coming soon.

205. Q205Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Directions for questions 12 to 15: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nandu and Mohan decided to sell their Apple 6 series watches for Rs. 42,000 each to Karthik and Ganesh. The selling price of Rs. 42,000 was arrived at by increasing the cost price by 25%. Nandu gave his buyer Karthik a discount of 10% on the first Rs. 12,000, 8% on the next Rs. 16,000 and 5% on the remainder, while Mohan gave his buyer Ganesh a discount of 8% on the first Rs. 16,000, 7% on the next Rs. 8,000 and 5% on the remainder. These discounts are conditional: if a buyer fails to make a payment on time, the discount is reduced by 1% for every week of delay. If both buyers fail to make each payment for one week, what is the difference in profits between Nandu and Mohan?

     • aRs. 440Answer
     • bRs. 464
     • cRs. 488
     • dRs. 520

     Explanation coming soon.

206. Q206Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Krishna, Suresh, and Raghava started a business with initial investments of Rs. 15,000, Rs. 18,000, and Rs. 20,000 respectively. After one year, Krishna and Suresh increased their investments by Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,000 respectively, while Raghava withdrew Rs. 5,000. After another year, Krishna, Suresh, and Raghava increased their investments by 20%, 25%, and 40% respectively. It was decided that Raghava would receive 20% of the total profit for his additional work, and the remaining profit would be distributed according to their investments. After 3 years, the total profit they received was Rs. 53,400. If the additional profit received by Raghava is excluded, find the ratio of the profit shares of Krishna, Suresh, and Raghava:

     • a56 : 63 : 53
     • b53 : 63 : 56
     • c59 : 63 : 56Answer
     • d69 : 63 : 56
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the profit is distributed strictly in proportion to the total product of capital and duration for each partner over the three years. Krishna total capital-years = (15000 * 1) + (20000 * 1) + (24000 * 1) = 59000 Suresh total capital-years = (18000 * 1) + (20000 * 1) + (25000 * 1) = 63000 Raghava total capital-years = (20000 * 1) + (15000 * 1) + (21000 * 1) = 56000 Ratio of profit shares = 59000 : 63000 : 56000 = 59 : 63 : 56 Option A: 56 : 63 : 53 miscalculates the third-year additions and withdrawals for Krishna and Raghava. Option B: 53 : 63 : 56 transposes the final values of Krishna and Raghava while miscomputing the additions. Option D: 69 : 63 : 56 adds an extra 10000 to Krishna total capital instead of the calculated values.

207. Q207Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Sandeep invested a certain amount in Reliance Infra Pvt Ltd, which offers 5% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually). And he invested an amount equal to 50% of that amount in Reliance Jio, which offers 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually). The investment period for both companies is 2 years. If the difference between the amounts received from the two companies is Rs. 6,965. What is the difference between the capital invested in the two companies?

     • aRs. 7,000Answer
     • bRs. 8,400
     • cRs. 7,900
     • dRs. 6,600
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the difference between the initial capitals corresponds to the variable solved from the maturity difference, which is Rs. 7,000. Let the capital in Reliance Jio be P, so Reliance Infra is 2P Amount from Reliance Infra = 2P * (1.05)^2 = 2.205 P Amount from Reliance Jio = P * (1.10)^2 = 1.210 P Difference between amounts = 2.205 P - 1.210 P = 0.995 P 0.995 P = 6,965 P = 7,000 Difference in capital invested = 2P - P = P = Rs. 7,000 Option B: Rs. 8,400 wrongly applies simple interest instead of compound interest. Option C: Rs. 7,900 is obtained if 10% interest is calculated for only one year. Option D: Rs. 6,600 is an incorrect value resulting from rounding errors in the compound interest multipliers.

208. Q208Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Ganesh donated 50% of his income of Rs. 1,26,588 to traffic and invested the remaining amount at 10% compound interest per annum, separately for his children Krishna and Veda. After they turn 18 years old, both of them receive the same amount. Krishna's age is 13 years and Veda's age is 11 years. Then the amount that must have been invested for Veda is:

     • aRs. 28,204
     • bRs. 28,640Answer
     • cRs. 26,840
     • dRs. 28,460
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because dividing the remaining amount according to the compound interest formula gives Rs. 28,640 for Veda. Remaining amount = 1,26,588 / 2 = Rs. 63,294 Time for Krishna to reach 18 years = 18 - 13 = 5 years Time for Veda to reach 18 years = 18 - 11 = 7 years Equal maturity amount condition: K * (1.1)^5 = V * (1.1)^7 K = V * (1.1)^2 = 1.21 V K + V = 63,294 2.21 V = 63,294 V = Rs. 28,640 Option A: Rs. 28,204 is incorrect due to a miscalculation in the ratio 1.21 to 1. Option C: Rs. 26,840 is an incorrect transposition of digits. Option D: Rs. 28,460 results from an arithmetic error when dividing 63,294 by 2.21.

209. Q209Ratio, percentage and commercial arithmetic

     Madhu takes 2t minutes to complete Form-A which has k questions, and 3t minutes to complete Form-B which has k/2 questions. If Madhu answers all questions, how much more time on average does he take to answer a Form-B question than the average time he takes to answer a Form-A question?

     • a2 tk
     • b8 tk
     • c4 tkAnswer
     • dt/k

     Explanation coming soon.

210. Q210Time, work, speed and distance

     Pipe 'N' can fill a tank in 1/4 hour, and another pipe 'M' can fill it in 1/6 hour. Both pipes were opened to fill an empty tank, but after 1/15 hour, a leak developed in the tank. This leak alone can empty the full tank in 1/12 hour. If both pipes were opened at 9 PM, at what time will the tank be empty?

     • a9:20 pmAnswer
     • b9:30 pm
     • c9:25 pm
     • d9:40 pm

     Explanation coming soon.

211. Q211Time, work, speed and distance

     A, B, and C were chosen for a painting job. If A and B work together, they can do the work in 12 days, B and C can do the same work in 8 days, and A and C can do it in 16 days. In that case, if all of them work together to complete the work, how long will it take?

     • a3 7/13 days
     • b7 7/13 days
     • c3 7/12 days
     • d7 5/13 daysAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because summing the pairwise daily work rates gives twice the combined daily work rate of all three persons. Combined pairwise daily work = 1/12 + 1/8 + 1/16 = (4 + 6 + 3)/48 = 13/48 Twice the joint work rate = 2(A + B + C) = 13/48 Joint daily work rate of A, B, and C = 13/96 Time taken working together = 96/13 = 7 5/13 days Option A: 3 7/13 days is 46/13, which is an arithmetic error. Option B: 7 7/13 days incorrectly evaluates 96/13 as having a remainder of 7 instead of 5. Option C: 3 7/12 days miscalculates both the denominator and the quotient.

212. Q212Time, work, speed and distance

     Amit traveled distances of 66 km, 88 km, and 110 km on three consecutive days. If he traveled at the highest possible constant speed (in km/hr) over the three days, he would cover the respective distances each day in an integer number of hours. How many hours will it take him to complete the journey?

     • a8 hours
     • b12 hoursAnswer
     • c22 hours
     • d24 hours
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the highest possible constant speed is the greatest common divisor of the three distances, and the total time is the sum of times taken on each day. Highest possible speed = HCF(66, 88, 110) = 22 km/hr Time on Day 1 = 66 / 22 = 3 hours Time on Day 2 = 88 / 22 = 4 hours Time on Day 3 = 110 / 22 = 5 hours Total time = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 hours Option A: It underestimates the total hours needed to cover 264 km at 22 km/hr. Option C: It confuses the value of the highest speed (22 km/hr) with the number of hours. Option D: It doubles the correct total time.

213. Q213Time, work, speed and distance

     Vande Bharat Express, traveling at a speed of 63 km/hr, can cross Visakhapatnam Railway Station platform, which is 199.5 meters long, in 21 seconds. How much time will it take for Vande Bharat Express to completely cross (from the moment they meet) Duronto Express, which is 157 meters long and traveling at 54 km/hr in the opposite direction to Vande Bharat Express?

     • a1) 8 seconds
     • b2) 10 secondsAnswer
     • c3) 12 seconds
     • d4) 16 seconds
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the length of Vande Bharat Express is first determined using the platform data, after which the time to cross Duronto Express is calculated using their combined lengths and relative speed. Vande Bharat speed = 63 * (5/18) = 17.5 m/s Vande Bharat length = (17.5 * 21) - 199.5 = 367.5 - 199.5 = 168 m Total distance to cross Duronto = 168 + 157 = 325 m Relative speed = (63 + 54) * (5/18) = 117 * (5/18) = 32.5 m/s Time taken = 325 / 32.5 = 10 seconds Option A: 1) 8 seconds underestimates the time by miscalculating the length of Vande Bharat Express. Option C: 3) 12 seconds uses an incorrect relative speed in the denominator. Option D: 4) 16 seconds incorrectly calculates crossing time without accounting for the relative speed of the moving train.

214. Q214Mensuration and geometry

     If a circle with radius r touches all n sides of a polygon with perimeter 2p, then what is the area of that polygon:

     • a1) p+n / 2r
     • b2) (p - n)r
     • c3) (2p - n)r
     • d4) prAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the area of any polygon enclosing an inscribed circle is equal to half the perimeter multiplied by the radius. Perimeter of polygon = 2p Semiperimeter of polygon = p Radius of inscribed circle = r Area of polygon = (1/2) x Perimeter x r = (1/2) x 2p x r = pr Option A: 1) p+n / 2r is dimensionally incorrect for area and improperly introduces the side count n. Option B: 2) (p - n)r incorrectly subtracts the number of sides from the semiperimeter. Option C: 3) (2p - n)r subtracts the number of vertices from the perimeter before multiplying by r.

215. Q215Mensuration and geometry

     Consider the following statements: I. An equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle has the maximum area compared to other triangles in the same circle. II. If the height of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm, its area will be 100√3/3 cm². III. If the three sides of a triangle are 5, 12, and 13 cm, the circumradius of the triangle is 2.5 cm. IV. In a Scalene triangle, no sides are equal to other sides. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

     • aI, II and III only
     • bI, II and IV onlyAnswer
     • cII, III and IV only
     • dAll of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements I, II, and IV are geometrically accurate, while statement III provides an incorrect circumradius for the given right triangle. Statement I: An equilateral triangle maximises area among all inscribed triangles in a circle. Statement II: Area = h^2 / sqrt(3) = 100 / sqrt(3) = 100sqrt(3)/3 cm². Statement III: The sides 5, 12, and 13 form a right triangle, so the circumradius is half the hypotenuse, which is 13 / 2 = 6.5 cm, not 2.5 cm. Statement IV: A scalene triangle by definition has all three sides of unequal length. Option A: Excludes the correct statement IV and includes the false statement III. Option C: Omits statement I and includes the false statement III. Option D: Incorrectly marks statement III as true.

216. Q216Mensuration and geometry

     Consider the following statements: I. A parallelogram with all sides equal is a rhombus. II. All rhombuses are parallelograms, but not all parallelograms are rhombuses. III. A rhombus may or may not be a square, but all squares are rhombuses. Which of the statements given above are correct?

     • aI and II only
     • bII and III only
     • cI and III only
     • dAll of the aboveAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because all three statements accurately reflect standard geometric definitions and subset relationships among quadrilaterals. Option A: I and II only ignores statement III, which is correct because every square satisfies the definition of a rhombus. Option B: II and III only ignores statement I, which is the standard definition of a rhombus. Option C: I and III only ignores statement II, which correctly notes that rhombuses form a strict subset of parallelograms.

217. Q217Data interpretation and probability

     The following pie chart shows the sale of different vegetables in a shop. Consider the following statements: A. Sum of sales of pumpkins and drumsticks is equal to that of cabbage. B. People are buying beans more than cabbage. C. Potatoes are the best-selling vegetables in the shop. D. Potatoes and beans collectively account for half of the total sales. Which of the above statements are correct?

     
     • aC and D only
     • bA and D only
     • cA, B and C only
     • dA, C and D onlyAnswer

     Explanation coming soon.

218. Q218Data interpretation and probability

     Production and sale of a certain brand of cars for six years is given in the following graph. Study the graph carefully and answer the question. What is the difference between the averages of production and sales over the given six-year period?

     
     • a420
     • b380
     • c450
     • d400Answer

     Explanation coming soon.

219. Q219Data interpretation and probability

     The details of members in a club with 2780 members belonging to different professions are shown in the table below: | Profession | Number of Members | Ratio of Men, Women | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | Doctors | 750 | 3 : 2 | | Engineers | 990 | 4 : 1 | | Lawyers | 270 | 5 : 4 | | Professors | 770 | 4 : 3 | What is the difference between the number of male and female members?

     • a880
     • b888
     • c882
     • d884Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because calculating the difference between men and women within each profession yields a total difference of 884. Doctors difference = 750 x (3 - 2) / 5 = 150 Engineers difference = 990 x (4 - 1) / 5 = 594 Lawyers difference = 270 x (5 - 4) / 9 = 30 Professors difference = 770 x (4 - 3) / 7 = 110 Total difference = 150 + 594 + 30 + 110 = 884 Option A: It underestimates the combined difference by 4 members due to an arithmetic error. Option B: It miscalculates the sum of differences across the professional categories. Option C: It results from a subtraction error in tallying the gender disparity across groups.

220. Q220Data interpretation and probability

     In the following diagram, the ratios of import value and export value of a company during the years 2000-2005 are given. If the import value in the year 2002 is Rs. 250 crores, and the total export value in the years 2002 and 2003 is Rs. 500 crores, then the import value in 2003 (in crores) is:

     
     • a525
     • b500
     • c450Answer
     • d420

     Explanation coming soon.

221. Q221Data interpretation and probability

     Study the following bar chart and answer the question given below. The chart shows the number of students who appeared for and passed the B.Tech. exam from various IITs in 2024. Number of students who appeared for and passed the B.Tech. exam from various IITs in India ☐ Appeared ⬛ Passed. What percentage (in decimal order) is the number of students who passed the exam from IIT Kanpur and IIT Pune of the average number of students who appeared for the exam from IIT Madras, IIT Tirupati and IIT Bombay?

     
     • a1) 60% and 85%
     • b2) 64% and 90%Answer
     • c3) 65% and 70%
     • d4) 62% and 90%

     Explanation coming soon.

222. Q222Data interpretation and probability

     Is y > x ? Statements: I. x ≠ 0, xy>xq ⇒ y<q II. y ≠ 0, 1/y < x/y ⇒ 1<x Choose the right option among the following:

     • aOnly II is sufficient to answer the question.
     • bNeither I nor II is sufficient to answer the question.
     • cOnly I is sufficient to answer the question.
     • dBoth I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.Answer

     Explanation coming soon.

223. Q223Data interpretation and probability

     Question: Is that year a leap year? I. January 1 and December 31 of that year are not the same day of the week. II. That year has 53 Sundays. Choose the correct option from the following:

     • aOnly I can answer the question.Answer
     • bOnly II can answer the question.
     • cBoth I and II together can answer the question.
     • dBoth I and II together cannot answer the question.
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because statement I alone is sufficient to establish whether the year is a leap year, whereas statement II is insufficient. An ordinary year has 365 days (52 weeks plus 1 odd day), so January 1 and December 31 are always the same day of the week. A leap year has 366 days (52 weeks plus 2 odd days), so January 1 and December 31 fall on different days of the week. Both ordinary years and leap years can have 53 Sundays depending on which day the year starts. Option B: statement II is inconclusive because an ordinary year starting on Sunday also has 53 Sundays. Option C: both statements are not required together because statement I alone resolves the question. Option D: statement I by itself provides sufficient information to answer the question.

224. Q224Data interpretation and probability

     The letters in the word 'ENTRANCE' are arranged such that all vowels always come together. Then how many ways are possible to write such a word?

     • a1080Answer
     • b1440
     • c1384
     • d1526
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because treating the vowels as a single entity yields six units to arrange with two identical consonants, multiplied by the arrangements of the vowels themselves. Letters in ENTRANCE are E, N, T, R, A, N, C, E (8 letters with 2 E's and 2 N's) Consonants are N, T, R, N, C (5 letters with two N's) Vowels are E, A, E (3 letters with two E's) Arrangements of 6 items (5 consonants + 1 vowel group) = 6! / 2! = 360 Internal arrangements of the vowel group (E, A, E) = 3! / 2! = 3 Total arrangements = 360 * 3 = 1080 Option B: 1440 forgets to divide by 2! for the repeated letter N or E. Option C: 1384 is an arbitrary arithmetic error. Option D: 1526 incorrectly accounts for the permutations of repeated letters.

225. Q225Data interpretation and probability

     Find the median of the following data (correct to two decimal places): | Variables | Frequency | |---|---| | 15-25 | 4 | | 25-35 | 11 | | 35-45 | 19 | | 45-55 | 14 | | 55-65 | 0 | | 65-75 | 2 |

     
     • a39.26
     • b40.26Answer
     • c41.56
     • d42.65
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because applying the median formula for grouped frequency distributions places the median in the 35-45 class at 40.26. Total frequency N = 50 Median position N / 2 = 25, which lies in class 35-45 Lower boundary L = 35 Cumulative frequency before median class cf = 15 Frequency of median class f = 19 Class width h = 10 Median = 35 + ((25 - 15) / 19) * 10 = 35 + (100 / 19) = 35 + 5.263 = 40.26 Option A: 39.26 underestimates the interpolation inside the median class. Option C: 41.56 results from using an incorrect cumulative frequency. Option D: 42.65 adds an excessively large fraction to the lower class boundary.

226. Q226Psychological abilities

     Assume you are a polling officer at a polling station in the General Elections 2024, and that polling booth is in a Maoist-dominated area. On polling day, a group of Maoists arrived, intimidated voters, fired guns, and tried to disrupt the activities. What would you do then?

     • a1) Immediately stop the polling and inform your superiors about the incident.Answer
     • b2) Ask the police forces to gather and resist the Maoists present there.
     • c3) Ask the police forces present there to retreat and ensure the safety of important documents and EVMs.
     • d4) Ask your subordinate officers and voters to revolt against the Maoists.
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the safety of voters and election personnel is paramount, and standard statutory polling procedures require the immediate suspension of polling and reporting to superior election authorities when armed disruption occurs. Option B: It is beyond the authority of a civil polling officer to direct tactical armed combat against insurgents during an ongoing attack. Option C: It inappropriately usurps command over security personnel to order retreats, when standard protocol requires pausing the poll and reporting to superiors. Option D: It endangers civilian lives and subordinates by inciting unequipped people to physically confront armed militants.

227. Q227People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who among the following were appointed as Election Commissioners of India in March 2024? A. Rajiv Kumar B. Gyanesh Kumar C. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu D. Arun Kumar Goel Choose the correct answer:

     • aB, C and D only
     • bA, C and D only
     • cB and C onlyAnswer
     • dD and C only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu were appointed as Election Commissioners of India by the President on March 14, 2024. Key details: Rajiv Kumar was already serving as the Chief Election Commissioner. Arun Goel resigned from the post of Election Commissioner in early March 2024. Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu were selected to fill the two vacant posts. Option A: Includes Arun Kumar Goel, who resigned from the commission prior to these appointments. Option B: Includes Rajiv Kumar, who took charge earlier in May 2022, and Arun Kumar Goel, who resigned. Option D: Includes Arun Kumar Goel, who resigned rather than being appointed in March 2024.

228. Q228People: appointments, honours and passings

     In October 2023, whom did the Election Commission of India appoint as a national icon for voter awareness and education?

     • aPankaj Tripathi
     • bRajkummar RaoAnswer
     • cSonu Sood
     • dVirat Kohli
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Election Commission of India appointed actor Rajkummar Rao as its national icon in October 2023 to motivate citizens and promote voter education ahead of key elections. Option A: Pankaj Tripathi was designated as a national icon earlier, in October 2022, and stepped down prior to this selection. Option C: Sonu Sood served as a state icon for Punjab in previous elections rather than being appointed national icon in October 2023. Option D: Virat Kohli was not appointed as a national icon by the Election Commission in October 2023.

229. Q229People: appointments, honours and passings

     Match the following regarding the Nobel Prize for the year 2023: Person's Name Subject/Field A. Jon Fosse 1. Physics B. Narges Mohammadi 2. Chemistry C. Aleksey Yekimov 3. Peace D. Ferenc Krausz 4. Literature 5. Physiology or Medicine. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3, B-4, C-2, D-5
     • bA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
     • cA-4, B-3, C-2, D-1Answer
     • dA-5, B-3, C-1, D-2
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because it correctly pairs each 2023 Nobel laureate with their respective discipline. Jon Fosse: Literature Narges Mohammadi: Peace Aleksey Yekimov: Chemistry Ferenc Krausz: Physics Option A: Incorrectly maps Jon Fosse to Peace and Narges Mohammadi to Literature. Option B: Incorrectly swaps the disciplines for Jon Fosse, Narges Mohammadi, Aleksey Yekimov, and Ferenc Krausz. Option D: Incorrectly assigns Jon Fosse to Physiology or Medicine and Ferenc Krausz to Chemistry.

230. Q230People: appointments, honours and passings

     Arrange the names of the following Nobel laureates in chronological order of their receiving the awards: A. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan B. Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar C. C.V. Raman D. Har Gobind Khorana Choose the correct order :

     • aC, D, B, AAnswer
     • bA, B, D, C
     • cC, B, D, A
     • dA, C, D, B
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because arranging the given laureates by the year they received the Nobel Prize gives the chronological sequence C, D, B, A. C.V. Raman: 1930 in Physics Har Gobind Khorana: 1968 in Physiology or Medicine Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar: 1983 in Physics Venkatraman Ramakrishnan: 2009 in Chemistry Option B: Reverses the chronological order entirely. Option C: Places Chandrasekhar before Khorana, violating the historical timeline. Option D: Places Ramakrishnan first instead of Raman.

231. Q231People: appointments, honours and passings

     Match the Sahitya Akademi 2023 award recipients in poetry with the languages for which they received the award: Award Recipient Language A. Vijay Varma 1. Sanskrit B. Arun Ranjan Mishra 2. Kashmiri C. Mansoor Banihali 3. Gujarati D. Vinod Joshi 4. Dogri Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
     • bA-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
     • cA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3Answer
     • dA-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because matching each poet to the language of their award-winning work yields A-4, B-1, C-2, and D-3. Vijay Varma - Dogri Arun Ranjan Mishra - Sanskrit Mansoor Banihali - Kashmiri Vinod Joshi - Gujarati Option A: Mismatches Arun Ranjan Mishra with Kashmiri and Mansoor Banihali with Gujarati. Option B: Mismatches Vijay Varma with Kashmiri, Arun Ranjan Mishra with Gujarati, Mansoor Banihali with Sanskrit, and Vinod Joshi with Dogri. Option D: Mismatches Vijay Varma with Sanskrit, Arun Ranjan Mishra with Dogri, and Vinod Joshi with Kashmiri.

232. Q232People: appointments, honours and passings

     Who among the following prominent personalities are the recipients of the 58th Jnanpith Award? I. Sampooran Singh Kalra II. Jagadguru Rambhadracharya III. Damodar Mauzo Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

     • aI and II onlyAnswer
     • bII and III only
     • cII only
     • dI and III only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the 58th Jnanpith Award for 2023 was jointly conferred on eminent Urdu poet and lyricist Gulzar, whose original name is Sampooran Singh Kalra, and renowned Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya. Sampooran Singh Kalra: Conferred the 58th Jnanpith Award for Urdu Jagadguru Rambhadracharya: Conferred the 58th Jnanpith Award for Sanskrit Damodar Mauzo: Conferred the preceding 57th Jnanpith Award for Konkani Option B: It erroneously includes Damodar Mauzo, who won the 57th Jnanpith Award, and omits Sampooran Singh Kalra. Option C: It fails to recognise Sampooran Singh Kalra, who was a joint recipient along with Jagadguru Rambhadracharya. Option D: It incorrectly includes Damodar Mauzo instead of Jagadguru Rambhadracharya.

233. Q233People: appointments, honours and passings

     Identify the incorrect pair among the following individuals who received Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards 2023 and their respective fields:

     • aVizzi Gangadhara Sastry - Music
     • bJagadeesh Gangani - Dance
     • cSatish Kumar - Tribal DanceAnswer
     • dParas Giri - Folk and Traditional Music
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the pair is incorrect; Satish Kumar (P. Satish Kumar) received the award for Carnatic Instrumental Music (Mridangam), not for Tribal Dance. Option A: Vizzi Gangadhara Sastry is correctly matched with the Music field for Harikatha. Option B: Jagadeesh Gangani is correctly matched with Dance for his contribution to Kathak. Option D: Paras Giri is correctly matched with Folk and Traditional Music of Uttarakhand.

234. Q234Sports

     Match the following sportspersons with their respective sports: Name of the person A. Pravin Jadhav B. Singhraj Adhana C. Aaryan Davande D. J. Srimathi Name of the sport I. Cycling II. Gymnastics III. Archery IV. Football V. Shooting Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-V; B-I; C-IV; D-II
     • bA-III; B-V; C-II; D-IAnswer
     • cA-IV; B-II; C-III; D-V
     • dA-III; B-V; C-I; D-IV

     Explanation coming soon.

235. Q235Sports

     In the medal tally of Khelo India Para Games 2023, which of the following states topped?

     • aHaryanaAnswer
     • bUttar Pradesh
     • cTamil Nadu
     • dGujarat
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Haryana topped the medal tally at the inaugural Khelo India Para Games held in New Delhi in December 2023, finishing with a total of 105 medals. Haryana: 40 Gold, 39 Silver, 26 Bronze (Total 105) Uttar Pradesh: 25 Gold, 23 Silver, 14 Bronze (Total 62) Tamil Nadu: 20 Gold, 8 Silver, 14 Bronze (Total 42) Option B: Uttar Pradesh finished second in the medal tally with 25 gold medals. Option C: Tamil Nadu finished third in the medal tally with 20 gold medals. Option D: Gujarat finished outside the top three states on the medal table.

236. Q236Events, summits and observances

     In which country did the 8th International Pharmaceutical Quality Conference 2023 take place?

     • aPhilippines
     • bNorway
     • cAustralia
     • dSingaporeAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the 8th International Pharmaceutical Quality Conference 2023 was convened in Singapore, bringing together global regulatory authorities and industry experts to address drug quality and compliance. Option A: Philippines was not the host country for this conference. Option B: Norway was not the venue for this international conference in 2023. Option C: Australia did not host the 8th edition of this event.

237. Q237Events, summits and observances

     Consider the following statements regarding the Conference of Parties on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP14): I. The 14th session of CMS COP14 was held from February 12 to 17, 2024, in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. II. CMS COP14 convened under the slogan "Migratory Species Connect the Planet and We Welcome Them Home". III. CMS COP14 was the first global biodiversity conference held after the adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF)-2022. Which of the above statements are correct?

     • aI and II
     • bI and IIIAnswer
     • cII and III
     • dAll of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements I and III are factually accurate, while statement II carries an incorrect slogan. Host and Dates: Samarkand, Uzbekistan, 12-17 February 2024 Actual Slogan: Nature Knows No Borders Significance: First global biodiversity COP following the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) adoption in 2022 Option A: It incorrectly accepts statement II, which attributes the slogan of COP13 ('Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home') to COP14. Option C: It includes the incorrect statement II and omits the correct statement I. Option D: It assumes all three statements are correct despite statement II being incorrect.

238. Q238Events, summits and observances

     Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with which of the following for innovation and research in the renewable energy sector?

     • aIIT Madras
     • bIIT Guwahati
     • cIIT BhubaneswarAnswer
     • dIIT Bombay
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because IREDA signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with IIT Bhubaneswar in February 2024 to foster innovation, collaborative research, technology transfer, and capacity building in the renewable energy sector. Option A: IIT Madras was not the institution that signed this specific comprehensive renewable energy research MoU with IREDA. Option B: IIT Guwahati did not enter into this specific collaboration with IREDA. Option D: IIT Bombay was not the signatory institution for this collaborative agreement.

239. Q239Events, summits and observances

     Consider the details related to India's National Science Day: A. It is celebrated every year on February 28th. B. It commemorates the announcement of the discovery of the Raman Effect. C. The official theme for the year 2024 is 'Global Science for Global Wellbeing'. D. The official theme for the year 2024 is 'Indigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat'. Which of the above statements are correct?

     • aB, C and D only
     • bA, B and D onlyAnswer
     • cA and C only
     • dA, C and D only
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements A, B, and D are factually accurate, while statement C refers to the theme of 2023 rather than 2024. National Science Day date: 28 February Historical event: C. V. Raman announced the discovery of the Raman Effect on 28 February 1928 National Science Day theme for 2023: Global Science for Global Wellbeing National Science Day theme for 2024: Indigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat Option A: Excludes statement A, which is completely accurate, and incorrectly includes false statement C. Option C: Excludes valid statements B and D, and incorrectly treats statement C as correct. Option D: Erroneously includes statement C, which was the theme for 2023 rather than 2024.

240. Q240Events, summits and observances

     Which of the following is the first country in the world to consider abortion a constitutional right?

     • aNetherlands
     • bFranceAnswer
     • cAustralia
     • dSwitzerland
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because France became the first country in the world to explicitly include a guaranteed freedom to have an abortion in its constitution following an amendment to Article 34 in March 2024. Option A: Netherlands permits abortion under statutory healthcare laws but has not enshrined it into its constitution. Option C: Australia regulates abortion through individual state and territory statutes rather than a constitutional guarantee. Option D: Switzerland permits termination of pregnancy under penal and statutory codes rather than as an explicit constitutional right.