APPSC Group-I Prelims 2023

304 questions from the 2023 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41The Indian National Movement

    Match the following newspapers with the persons associated with them : a. Indian Sociologist I. Virendra Chattopadhyay b. Islamic Fraternity II. Shyamji Krishna Varma c. The Talwar III. Muhammad Barkatullah d. Swadesh Sevak IV. G.D. Kumar Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aII III I IVAnswer
    • bIV III II I
    • cII IV I III
    • dI II III IV
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the journals and their founders align correctly as: The Indian Sociologist was started by Shyamji Krishna Varma, Islamic Fraternity by Muhammad Barkatullah, The Talwar by Virendranath Chattopadhyaya, and Swadesh Sevak by G.D. Kumar. Indian Sociologist: Shyamji Krishna Varma in London Islamic Fraternity: Muhammad Barkatullah in Tokyo The Talwar: Virendranath Chattopadhyaya in Berlin Swadesh Sevak: G.D. Kumar in Vancouver Option B: It mistakenly pairs The Indian Sociologist with G.D. Kumar and Swadesh Sevak with Virendra Chattopadhyay. Option C: It incorrectly links Islamic Fraternity to G.D. Kumar and Swadesh Sevak to Muhammad Barkatullah. Option D: It reverses the connections for all four revolutionary journals.

42. Q42Independence, Partition and the making of the Constitution

    The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the House of Commons by the British Prime Minister Attlee on

    • a2nd July, 1947
    • b3rd July, 1947
    • c4th July, 1947Answer
    • d5th July, 1947
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Prime Minister Clement Attlee introduced the Indian Independence Bill in the British House of Commons on 4th July, 1947. Introduction in the House of Commons: 4th July, 1947 Passed by the House of Commons: 15th July, 1947 Passed by the House of Lords: 16th July, 1947 Royal Assent: 18th July, 1947 Option A: 2nd July, 1947 is incorrect because the final draft was still being prepared for presentation. Option B: 3rd July, 1947 is incorrect as the bill had not yet been formally tabled. Option D: 5th July, 1947 is incorrect because the bill was already presented on the previous day.

43. Q43Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Who was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh after its formation in 1956?

    • aNeelam Sanjiva ReddyAnswer
    • bN. Chandrababu Naidu
    • cTanguturi Prakasam
    • dKasu Brahmananda Reddy
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Neelam Sanjiva Reddy took oath as the first Chief Minister of the unified state of Andhra Pradesh on 1 November 1956. 1 November 1956: Formation of Andhra Pradesh Neelam Sanjiva Reddy: First Chief Minister Option B: N. Chandrababu Naidu became Chief Minister much later, in 1995. Option C: Tanguturi Prakasam was the first Chief Minister of Andhra State in 1953, not Andhra Pradesh in 1956. Option D: Kasu Brahmananda Reddy served as Chief Minister between 1964 and 1971.

44. Q44Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation

    Who was the sixth President of Independent India?

    • aV.V. Giri
    • bNeelam Sanjeeva ReddyAnswer
    • cSankar Dayal Sharma
    • dSarvepalli Radha Krishnan
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as the sixth President of India from 25 July 1977 to 25 July 1982. First President: Dr. Rajendra Prasad (1950 to 1962) Second President: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1962 to 1967) Third President: Dr. Zakir Husain (1967 to 1969) Fourth President: V. V. Giri (1969 to 1974) Fifth President: Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (1974 to 1977) Sixth President: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (1977 to 1982) Option A: V. V. Giri was the fourth President of India. Option C: Sankar Dayal Sharma served as the ninth President of India. Option D: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the second President of India.

45. Q45Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Which of the following is the first pipeline constructed in India for the transportation of crude oil ?

    • aMumbai High-Kayoli
    • bHajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur
    • cNaharkatia-Nunmati-BarauniAnswer
    • dJamnagar - Loni
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Naharkatia-Nunmati-Barauni pipeline was the first major trunk crude oil pipeline built in India, constructed in the early 1960s to transport crude oil from fields in Assam to refineries at Nunmati (Guwahati) and Barauni. Option A: Mumbai High-Koyali pipeline was constructed much later to transport offshore crude after the discovery of the Mumbai High field in the 1970s. Option B: Hazira-Bijaipur-Jagdishpur (HBJ) is India's first cross-country natural gas pipeline, not a crude oil pipeline. Option C: Jamnagar-Loni is a pipeline specifically constructed for transporting liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), not crude oil.

46. Q46Firsts in India: the first university, bank, dam, railway and budget

    Consider the following statements about “National War Memorial” : I. It was inaugurated in 2021. II. The eternal flame of Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate was put out and merged with another eternal flame at the National War Memorial. III. It was built to commemorate all the soldiers who have laid down their lives in the various battles, wars, operations and conflicts of Independent India. IV. The architecture of the memorial is based on four concentric circles. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

    • aI, II and III only
    • bI, III and IV only
    • cII, III and IV onlyAnswer
    • dAll of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements II, III, and IV are accurate, whereas statement I is incorrect because the National War Memorial was inaugurated in February 2019, not 2021. Option A: Incorrect because statement I is false, while statement IV is a correct fact about its design. Option B: Incorrect because statement I is false, which states an incorrect year of inauguration. Option D: Incorrect because statement I wrongly cites 2021 instead of 2019.

47. Q47Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Arrange the following incidents of Rebellion against East India Company in the State of Hyderabad in chronological order : I. Attack of Turrebaz Khan on British Residence in Hyderabad II. Imprisonment of Mubariz-ud-Daula in Golkonda Fort III. In Aurangabad, 1st Contingent Cavalry was suspected, disarmed and arrested IV. The rebellion of Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of Shorapur Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aIV, III, I, II
    • bII, III, I, IVAnswer
    • cII, I, III, IV
    • dI, II, IV, III
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because arranging the incidents chronologically from the Wahhabi conspiracy to the 1857-58 uprisings gives the sequence II, III, I, IV. Imprisonment of Mubariz-ud-Daula in Golkonda Fort occurred in 1839 Disarming of the suspected 1st Cavalry at Aurangabad occurred in June 1857 Attack of Turrebaz Khan on the British Residency took place in July 1857 Rebellion of Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of Shorapur culminated in February 1858 Option A: IV, III, I, II places the 1858 Shorapur rebellion at the beginning instead of the end. Option C: II, I, III, IV reverses the order of the Aurangabad cavalry mutiny and the Residency attack. Option D: I, II, IV, III erroneously places the 1857 Residency attack before the 1839 imprisonment of Mubariz-ud-Daula.

48. Q48Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Part V of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act deals with

    • aHigh Court.
    • bApportionment of Assets and Liabilities.
    • cAuthorisation of Expenditure and Distribution of Revenues.Answer
    • dManagement and Developm Resources.
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Part V of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 covers Sections 44 to 46, which provide for the authorisation of expenditure and the distribution of revenues between the two successor states. Part IV: High Court Part V: Authorisation of Expenditure and Distribution of Revenues Part VI: Apportionment of Assets and Liabilities Part IX: Management and Development of Water Resources Option A: High Court is dealt with separately under Part IV of the Act. Option B: Apportionment of Assets and Liabilities is covered under Part VI of the Act. Option D: Management and Development of Water Resources is addressed in Part IX of the Act.

49. Q49Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    How many Schedules are there in the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act ?

    • a13 SchedulesAnswer
    • b14 Schedules
    • c15 Schedules
    • d16 Schedules
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 comprises 108 sections divided into 12 parts and accompanied by 13 schedules. Total parts: 12 Total sections: 108 Total schedules: 13 Option B: 14 Schedules is incorrect as the Act only contains 13 schedules. Option C: 15 Schedules exceeds the total number of schedules enacted in the law. Option D: 16 Schedules is incorrect as there are only 13 schedules in the statute.

50. Q50Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    The idea of Indian Constituent Assembly was put forward for the first time by

    • aDr. B.R. Ambedkar
    • bC.R. Das
    • cG.B. Pant
    • dM.N. RoyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because M.N. Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India, first conceptualized and put forward the idea of an Indian Constituent Assembly in 1934. 1934: M.N. Roy put forward the idea of a Constituent Assembly 1935: The Indian National Congress officially demanded a Constituent Assembly 1938: Jawaharlal Nehru declared the Constitution must be framed without outside interference 1940: British Government accepted the demand in principle through the August Offer Option A: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar led the drafting of the Constitution in 1947, well after the idea was proposed. Option B: C.R. Das founded the Swaraj Party in 1923 to enter legislative councils, not to propose a Constituent Assembly. Option C: G.B. Pant was a prominent Congress leader and premier of the United Provinces, not the initiator of this idea.

51. Q51The Preamble

    Consider the following statements : I. The Preamble was enacted before the enactment of the entire Constitution. II. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts. III. It is enforceable through Courts of Law. IV. The Objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally became the foundation for the Preamble. Which of the statements given above are incorrect ?

    • a1 and 11 only
    • b11 and IV only
    • cI and III onlyAnswer
    • d1, 11 and III only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements I and III are incorrect: the Preamble was enacted after the rest of the Constitution was already passed, and it is non-justiciable, meaning it is not enforceable through courts of law. Option A: Statement II is correct, as the Supreme Court has held that the Preamble has no legal effect independently of other provisions. Option B: Statements II and IV are both correct, whereas the question asks to identify the incorrect statements. Option D: Statement II is a correct constitutional statement, so including it in the list of incorrect statements makes the option invalid.

52. Q52Fundamental Rights

    The Constitution confers which of the following Articles that denies the rights to aliens (Foreign Citizens) ? I. Articles 29 and 30 II. Article 19 III. Articles 23 and 24 IV. Article 16 Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aII and III only
    • bI, II and IV onlyAnswer
    • cIII and IV only
    • dAll of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Articles 16, 19, 29, and 30 are fundamental rights conferred exclusively on Indian citizens, whereas the protections under Articles 23 and 24 extend to citizens and aliens alike. Rights exclusive to citizens: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 Rights available to both citizens and aliens: Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, and 28 Option A: Excludes Articles 16, 29, and 30, while erroneously claiming Articles 23 and 24 are denied to aliens. Option C: Includes Articles 23 and 24, which protect non-citizens as well as citizens. Option D: Erroneously includes statement III, failing to recognize that foreigners also enjoy the right against exploitation.

53. Q53Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

    Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution ? I. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice. II. To develop scientific temper and spirit of inquiry. III. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. IV. To safeguard public property and adjure violence. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

    • a(1) II and III only
    • b(2) I and III only
    • c(3) II, III and IVAnswer
    • d(4) All of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because developing scientific temper, preserving composite culture, and safeguarding public property are duties under Article 51A, whereas protecting weaker sections from social injustice is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 46. Article 46: State duty to protect weaker sections from social injustice Article 51A(f): to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture Article 51A(h): to develop the scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform Article 51A(i): to safeguard public property and to abjure violence Option A: omits statement IV, which is a duty enacted under Article 51A(i). Option B: includes statement I, which pertains to State policy under Part IV, and omits statements II and IV. Option D: includes statement I, confusing a Directive Principle of State Policy with a Fundamental Duty of citizens.

54. Q54The Union executive

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code: Assertion (A): The President is the executive power of the Union Reason (R): The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Code:

    • aBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Answer
    • bBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    • c(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • d(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Article 53(1) of the Constitution of India directly vests the executive power of the Union in the President, making the President the formal head of the executive, which directly explains the assertion. Article 53(1): The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution. Option B: Reason (R) is not merely true; it serves as the precise constitutional ground that establishes Assertion (A). Option C: Reason (R) is completely true as it reproduces the wording of Article 53(1). Option D: Assertion (A) is completely true under the constitutional framework of India.

55. Q55Parliament and the state legislatures

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : The Parliament of India consists of the President and two Houses. Reason (R) : The President is a part of the legislature even though he does not sit in Parliament except for the purpose of delivering his opening address. Code :

    • a(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Answer
    • b(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    • c(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • d(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

56. Q56The judiciary

    What is/are the provision(s) to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India ? I. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. II. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. III. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India on which the legislature does not have to vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    • aI and III onlyAnswer
    • bI and II only
    • cIII only
    • dI, II and III
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements I and III accurately describe constitutional safeguards, whereas statement II is incorrect because a Supreme Court judge is removed by the President following an address by Parliament, not by the Chief Justice. Article 124(2): Mandatory consultation with the Chief Justice of India for judicial appointments. Article 124(4): Removal of judges by an order of the President passed after an address by Parliament. Article 112(3)(d): Salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and non-votable by Parliament. Option B: Includes statement II, which falsely claims the Chief Justice of India can remove judges. Option C: Omits statement I, which is also a valid constitutional safeguard ensuring judicial independence. Option D: Includes statement II, which contradicts the parliamentary impeachment process under Article 124(4).

57. Q57The judiciary

    Which of the following are not included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court ? I. A dispute between two or more States. II. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State. III. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory. IV. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • a(1) I and II
    • b(2) II and IIIAnswer
    • c(3) I and IV
    • d(4) III and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 131, the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court covers disputes involving the Government of India and States, or between States, but excludes election disputes and disputes involving Union Territories. Article 131 includes: Dispute between Government of India and one or more States. Article 131 includes: Dispute between two or more States. Election disputes to Parliament or State Legislatures are heard first by High Courts under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Disputes with Union Territories do not fall under Article 131 because Union Territories are centrally administered territories, not units on equal footing with States. Option A: Statement I is explicitly included in the original jurisdiction under Article 131. Option C: Both statements I and IV are explicitly covered under Article 131. Option D: Statement IV is an included dispute under the original jurisdiction.

58. Q58The judiciary

    Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct ? I. It is a statutory body. II. Its members are drawn from administrative background only. III. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the Code of Civil Procedure. IV. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All-India services as well as Central services and Central Government posts. V. It was set up in 1985. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aII; III and V
    • bI and IV
    • cI, III, IV and VAnswer
    • dII and III
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements I, III, IV, and V are accurate, while statement II is false because the Central Administrative Tribunal consists of both judicial and administrative members, not administrative members only. Statement I: CAT is a statutory body created under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 pursuant to Article 323A. Statement II: Members are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams, not administrative background only. Statement III: Under Section 22, it is guided by principles of natural justice and not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure. Statement IV: Its jurisdiction covers All-India services, Central civil services, and civil posts under the Union. Statement V: It was established in 1985. Option A: Incorrect because statement II is false. Option B: Incorrect because it leaves out valid statements III and V. Option D: Incorrect because statement II is false.

59. Q59The state government

    Which of the following statements is not one of the powers of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly ?

    • aHe has no veto except in case of a tie.Answer
    • bA Speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the Assembly passed by a majority of all the then members of the Assembly after fourteen days notice of the intention to move such a resolution.
    • cThe Speaker vacates his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly
    • dThe Speaker will preside when a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration of the Assembly.

    Explanation coming soon.

60. Q60Federalism and centre-state relations

    Which of the following entries of the Indian 42 Constitution deals with the institutions for scientific or technical education financed by the Government of India, wholly or in part, and de clared by Parliament, by law to be institutions of national importance ?

    • a(1) Entry 64Answer
    • b(2) Entry 63
    • c(3) Entry 65
    • d(4) Entry 66
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Entry 64 of the Union List specifically deals with institutions for scientific or technical education financed wholly or partly by the Government of India and declared by Parliament by law to be institutions of national importance. Entry 63 of Union List: Specified universities and other institutions declared by Parliament to be of national importance Entry 64 of Union List: Scientific or technical institutions financed by the Union and declared of national importance Entry 65 of Union List: Union agencies for professional, vocational, or technical training and research Entry 66 of Union List: Coordination and determination of standards in higher education or research Option B: Entry 63 covers institutions like Banaras Hindu University, Aligarh Muslim University, and Delhi University. Option C: Entry 65 covers Union agencies and institutions for professional, vocational, or technical training. Option D: Entry 66 deals with the coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research.

61. Q61Federalism and centre-state relations

    Out of the following, which is a recommendations of th M.M.Punchhi Commission on the institutions of Governor?

    • aProvision for impeachment of the Governor may be introduced by the State LegislatureAnswer
    • bThe system of Governor may be abolished
    • cConsent of Chief Minister of a State shall be necessary before appointing Governor of the State
    • dGovernor should be periodically rotated between States
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because the Punchhi Commission recommended that the Governor should be insulated from arbitrary removal by the Union, proposing that removal should be through a process of impeachment by the State Legislature on grounds similar to that of the President. Option B: The commission recommended reforming and safeguarding the office of Governor, not abolishing it. Option C: The commission proposed consultation with the Chief Minister through a committee system, but did not mandate absolute Chief Ministerial consent. Option D: The commission recommended giving the Governor a fixed five-year tenure free from political transfers, rather than rotating them periodically across states.

62. Q62Federalism and centre-state relations

    Apex Council of Godavari and Krishna river water resources and their management consists of Minister of Water resources, Government of India as chairperson and Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as members.

    • aMinister of Water Resources, Government of India as chairperson and Ministers of Irrigation of both Andhra Pradesh and Telengana as members
    • bPrime Minister, Government of India as chairperson and Ministers of Irrigation of both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as members
    • cMinister of water Resources, Government of India as chairperson and Minister of Revenue of both AndhraPrdesh and Telangana as members
    • dMinister of Water resources, Government of India as chairperon and Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh and Telengana as membersAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statutory provisions under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 establish that the Apex Council is headed by the Union Minister of Water Resources as Chairperson, with the Chief Ministers of both successor States serving as members. Section 84 of AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 Chairperson: Union Minister of Water Resources Members: Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh and Chief Minister of Telangana Option A: It specifies the State Ministers of Irrigation rather than the Chief Ministers. Option B: It designates the Prime Minister as chairperson and State Ministers of Irrigation as members instead of the Union Water Resources Minister and Chief Ministers. Option C: It lists State Ministers of Revenue as members rather than the Chief Ministers.

63. Q63Local government and decentralisation

    Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the State Finance Commission ? I. It is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once in five years. II. It recommends the determination of taxes, duties, tolls and fees assigned to the Panchayats and Municipalities. III. Article 243 deals with constitution of finance commission to review financial position of Panchayats. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : I and II

    • aII. I and IV
    • bI,II and III
    • cI and IIAnswer
    • dAll of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Statements I and II are accurate, whereas Statement III is false because Article 243 contains only definitions, while Article 243I specifically provides for the constitution of the State Finance Commission. Article 243: Definitions Article 243I: Finance Commission to review financial position of Panchayats Article 243Y: Application of Finance Commission provisions to Municipalities Option A: it uses invalid numbering and refers to a non-existent fourth statement. Option B: it treats Statement III as correct despite its misattribution of the constitutional article. Option D: it incorrectly includes Statement III as valid.

64. Q64Local government and decentralisation

    Which of the following subjects are listed in the 11th Schedule ? I. Women and Child Development II. Public Distribution System III. Libraries IV. Slum Improvement and Upgradation V. Markets and Fairs Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • a1,II and V
    • bI, II, III and IV
    • cI,II,III and VAnswer
    • dAll of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because subjects I, II, III, and V are listed among the 29 functional items in the Eleventh Schedule under Article 243G, whereas Slum Improvement and Upgradation belongs to the Twelfth Schedule meant for Municipalities. Item 25 of Eleventh Schedule: Women and child development Item 28 of Eleventh Schedule: Public distribution system Item 20 of Eleventh Schedule: Libraries Item 22 of Eleventh Schedule: Markets and fairs Item 10 of Twelfth Schedule: Slum improvement and upgradation Option A: It omits Libraries, which is listed as item 20 in the Eleventh Schedule. Option B: It erroneously includes Slum Improvement and Upgradation, which is an urban subject in the Twelfth Schedule. Option D: It incorrectly includes Slum Improvement and Upgradation alongside the rural subjects.

65. Q65Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The powers of the Election Commission include which of the following ? I. The Election Commission takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of results. II. During the election period, the Election Commission can order the Government to dismiss some government officials. III. When on election duty, Government officers work under the control of the Election Commission. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • aI and II only
    • bI and III onlyAnswer
    • cI only
    • dAll of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Election Commission has plenary powers over all phases of elections and controls deployed officials on election duty, but it cannot order the dismissal of government servants. Option A: Statement II is included, but the power to dismiss civil servants rests solely with their appointing authority under service rules, not the Election Commission. Option C: Statement III is omitted, even though civil servants deputed for election duty work strictly under the superintendence and control of the Commission. Option D: Statement II is included, wrongly attributing the power of dismissal to the Election Commission.

66. Q66Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Which of the following is not a function of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) ?

    • aConduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union
    • bConsultation on all disciplinary matters
    • cMethod of recruitment
    • dManner of reservationAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Union Public Service Commission is not consulted on the manner in which reservations are made for backward classes, Scheduled Castes, or Scheduled Tribes, as explicitly excluded under Article 320(4). Article 320(1): Conduct of examinations for appointments Article 320(3)(a): Matters relating to methods of recruitment Article 320(3)(c): Consultation on disciplinary matters Article 320(4): Excludes UPSC consultation regarding reservations under Article 16(4) and Article 16(4A) Option A: This is a primary constitutional function of the UPSC under Article 320(1). Option B: Consultation on all disciplinary matters affecting a civil servant is mandated under Article 320(3)(c). Option C: Advising on methods of recruitment is an essential advisory role under Article 320(3)(a).

67. Q67Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Which of the bodies recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the States, and allocation between the States, the respective shares of such proceeds ?

    • aNITI Aayog
    • bFinance Commission of IndiaAnswer
    • cInter State Council
    • dNational Development Council
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 280(3)(a) of the Constitution mandates the Finance Commission of India to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and the allocation between the States of their respective shares. Option A: NITI Aayog is a policy think tank and does not possess constitutional authority to recommend statutory tax devolution. Option C: Inter State Council facilitates coordination between States and the Union under Article 263 without dealing with tax division. Option D: National Development Council was established to approve Five-Year Plans and held no constitutional mandate for tax sharing.

68. Q68Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Match the following: List I a. 10th Finance Commission b. 11th Finance Commission c. 12th Finance Commission d. 13th Finance Commission List II I. C. Rangaraja II. K.C.Pant III. Vijay L.Kelkar IV. A.M. Khusro Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: a b c d (1) II I IV III (2) II IV I III (3) IV II III I (4) I IV III II

    • aI II IV III
    • bII IV I IIIAnswer
    • cIV II III I
    • dI IV II III
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Chairmen of the Tenth, Eleventh, Twelfth, and Thirteenth Finance Commissions match K.C. Pant, A.M. Khusro, C. Rangarajan, and Vijay L. Kelkar respectively. Tenth Finance Commission: K.C. Pant Eleventh Finance Commission: A.M. Khusro Twelfth Finance Commission: C. Rangarajan Thirteenth Finance Commission: Vijay L. Kelkar Option A: It incorrectly pairs the Tenth Finance Commission with C. Rangarajan instead of K.C. Pant. Option C: It incorrectly assigns the Tenth Finance Commission to A.M. Khusro. Option D: It assigns C. Rangarajan to the Tenth Commission and Vijay L. Kelkar to the Twelfth Commission.

69. Q69Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    With reference to the National Commission for Minorities, consider the following statements : I. It was set up under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. II. Ministry of Welfare has notified five religious communities under “Minority” status, to date. III. It can make recommendations for the effective implementation of safeguards for the protection of minorities by Central or State Governments. Which of the above statements are correct ?

    • aI and II only
    • bII and III only
    • cI, II and III
    • dI and III onlyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements I and III are accurate, whereas statement II is incorrect. The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body enacted in 1992, and the Central Government has notified six religious minority communities, not five. Originally notified in 1993: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, and Zoroastrians (Parsis) Added in 2014: Jains (making the total six) Option A: Statement II is incorrect because six religious communities have been notified, not five. Option B: Statement I is omitted despite being factually true under the 1992 Act, and statement II is included despite being false. Option C: Statement II is included despite being incorrect regarding the total count of notified minority communities.

70. Q70Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has the powers on the following matters : I. It can receive evidences on affidavits. II. It can requisition any public record from any court or office. III. It can issue summons for the examination of witnesses and documents. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

    • a(1) I and II only
    • b(2) II and III only
    • c(3) I and III only
    • d(4) All of the aboveAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under Article 338(8) of the Constitution, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes possesses all the powers of a civil court trying a suit while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, which includes all three listed powers. Civil court powers under Article 338(8) include: Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining them on oath. Requiring the discovery and production of any document. Receiving evidence on affidavits. Requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office. Issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents. Option A: It excludes power III, which is explicitly vested in the Commission. Option B: It excludes power I, which is a recognized civil court power vested in the Commission. Option C: It excludes power II, which is also an authorized power under Article 338(8).

71. Q71Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Which of the following is not the function of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes ?

    • aProviding constitutional protection to Scheduled Castes.
    • bTo submit the report to the Prime Minister related to the protection of Scheduled Castes.Answer
    • cTo investigate any case that violates the interests of Scheduled Castes.
    • dNone of the above
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because under Article 338(5)(d), the Commission presents its annual and special reports directly to the President of India, not to the Prime Minister. Option A: Providing constitutional protection to Scheduled Castes is wrong because monitoring and inquiring into constitutional safeguards is an authentic statutory and constitutional function of the Commission. Option C: To investigate any case that violates the interests of Scheduled Castes is wrong because inquiring into specific complaints regarding deprivation of rights is a primary mandate under Article 338(5)(b). Option D: None of the above is wrong because statement B is factually incorrect regarding the recipient of the report.

72. Q72Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    With reference to the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) : I. Judge of the Supreme Court can now be appointed as Chairperson of the Commission. II. Term of the Chairperson and members shall be three years. III. Chairperson and members shall be eligible for re-appointment. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

    • aI and II only
    • bII and III only
    • cI, II and IIIAnswer
    • dI only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 made all three changes: allowing a Supreme Court Judge (in addition to Chief Justice of India) to be appointed Chairperson, reducing the term of office from 5 to 3 years, and making the Chairperson and members eligible for reappointment. Section 6 amended: Term reduced from 5 years to 3 years Section 6 amended: Maximum age limit kept at 70 years, 5-year bar on reappointment removed Section 3 amended: A person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court is now also eligible for Chairperson Option A: Incorrect because it omits statement III, which correctly identifies that members and the Chairperson are now eligible for reappointment. Option B: Incorrect because it omits statement I, which is also an explicit provision introduced by the 2019 amendment. Option D: Incorrect because it leaves out statements II and III.

73. Q73Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    With reference to the Competition Commission of India, consider the following statements : I. It is a statutory body established under Competition Act, 2002 as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007. II. It consists of a chairperson and five members appointed by the Central Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

    • aI onlyAnswer
    • bBoth I and II
    • cII only
    • dNeither I nor II
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statement I accurately defines the Competition Commission of India as a statutory body under the Competition Act, 2002 as amended, while statement II misstates the statutory composition. Statutory composition under Section 8 of the Competition Act, 2002: one Chairperson and not less than two and not more than six members Option B: Both I and II is incorrect because statement II wrongly restricts the membership to exactly five members. Option C: II only is incorrect because statement II is inaccurate and statement I is correct. Option D: Neither I nor II is incorrect because statement I is completely accurate.

74. Q74Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

    • aPresident
    • bPrime MinisterAnswer
    • cFinance Minister
    • dVice-President
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog, continuing the institutional convention established under the erstwhile Planning Commission. Option A: The President is the formal head of state and does not hold an executive office within NITI Aayog. Option C: The Union Finance Minister is designated as an ex-officio member, not the Chairperson. Option D: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and has no role in the leadership of NITI Aayog.

75. Q75Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Where is the Headquarters of National Cadet Corps (NCC) located?

    • aAhmedabad
    • bMumbai
    • cNew DelhiAnswer
    • dMussoorie
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Directorate General of the National Cadet Corps (NCC) has its headquarters situated in New Delhi, headed by a Director General of the rank of Lieutenant General. Option A: Ahmedabad houses a state directorate covering Gujarat, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu, not the national headquarters. Option B: Mumbai hosts the Maharashtra State Directorate of the NCC, not the apex headquarters. Option D: Mussoorie is the location of civil services and officer training academies such as LBSNAA, not the headquarters of the NCC.

76. Q76Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 : I. The Act empowers authorities like the Director to attach property believed to be “proceeds of crime”. II. Offences under Part A of the Schedule deal with trans-border crimes and reflect the dedication to tackle money laundering across the global boundaries. III. The Act and the Rules notified thereunder came into force with effect from 2005. IV. The Act has provided for an Appellate Tribunal and Special Court to conduct the trial of the offences of money laundering. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

    • aI, II and III only
    • bI, III and IV onlyAnswer
    • cII, III and IV only
    • dI, II, III and IV
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statements I, III, and IV are accurate provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, whereas statement II is incorrect. Offences under Part A of the Schedule: Listed predicate offences across various domestic laws Offences under Part C of the Schedule: Trans-border crimes tackling money laundering globally Enforcement date of PMLA: 1 July 2005 Option A: excludes statement IV, which correctly notes the establishment of an Appellate Tribunal and Special Courts. Option C: includes statement II, which incorrectly assigns trans-border crimes to Part A instead of Part C. Option D: includes statement II, which erroneously identifies Part A rather than Part C as dealing with trans-border crimes.

77. Q77Rights issues and social justice

    With child labour being made illegal and right to education becoming a fundamental right for children, this right against exploitation has become more meaningful. Which of the following pairs of Articles provide for right to education and prohibition of child labour respectively ?

    • aArticles 214 and 23
    • bArticles 21A and 24Answer
    • cArticles 23 and 24
    • dArticles 14 and 19
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Article 21A guarantees the fundamental right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14, while Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, and other hazardous occupations. Article 21A provides the Right to Education Article 24 prohibits child labour in hazardous work Option A: Article 214 provides for High Courts in States, and Article 23 prohibits human trafficking and forced labour. Option C: Article 23 prohibits human trafficking and begar rather than guaranteeing the right to education. Option D: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and Article 19 protects fundamental freedoms such as speech and assembly.

78. Q78India's foreign policy and international relations

    I2U2 is a new partnership between

    • aIndonesia, India, United Kingdom and United States of America.
    • bIsrael, India, United Arab Emirates and United States of America.Answer
    • cIsrael, India, United Kingdom and United States of America.
    • dIndonesia, India, United Arab Emirates and United States of America.
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the I2U2 grouping is named after the initials of its four member nations: India and Israel (I2), and the United Arab Emirates and the United States of America (U2). Option A: Indonesia and the United Kingdom are not members of the I2U2 grouping. Option C: The United Kingdom is not part of the grouping; the letters U2 stand for the UAE and the USA. Option D: Indonesia is not part of the grouping; the letters I2 stand for India and Israel.

79. Q79STATE POLITY: how the state itself is governed

    The Hon'ble Governor of Andhra Pradesh constituted a State Election Commission for the State of Andhra Pradesh on __________.

    • aJanuary 30, 2018
    • bJanuary 30, 2014
    • cJanuary 30, 2016
    • dJanuary 30, 2012Answer

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

80. Q80What an economy is measured by

    Which of the following is *not* included in the National Income ?

    • aWages and Salaries
    • bTax RevenueAnswer
    • cInterest Receipts from Public Debt
    • dProfits of Public Sector Undertakings

    Explanation coming soon.