APPSC Group-I Prelims 2023

304 questions from the 2023 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

161. Q161Environmental law, institutions and treaties

     Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Green Tribunal ? I. It was set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. II. NGT is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. III. NGT has six places of sitting throughout the country. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

     • aI onlyAnswer
     • bII and III only
     • cI and II only
     • dI, II and I
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because statement I is true, while statements II and III are both factually incorrect. Section 19(1) of NGT Act: The tribunal is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but guided by principles of natural justice. Places of sitting: Five places (Principal Bench at New Delhi, and regional sittings at Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai), not six. Option B: II and III only includes two incorrect statements regarding procedural code adherence and the total number of sittings. Option C: I and II only includes statement II, which erroneously claims NGT is bound by the CPC 1908. Option D: I, II and I is an erroneous grouping containing incorrect assertions.

162. Q162Environmental law, institutions and treaties

     Consider the following statements with reference to Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) : I. The launch of Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) is spearheaded by United Arab Emirates in partnership with Indonesia. II. Australia, Japan, United States, Canada, Sri Lanka and India are members of MAC. III. It was launched at the Conference of Parties (COP27) summit. IV. It is an intergovernmental alliance with no binding targets. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI, II and III only
     • bI, III and IV onlyAnswer
     • cII, III and IV only
     • dNone of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements I, III, and IV are accurate facts regarding the origin, launch, and non-binding nature of the alliance, whereas statement II is incorrect because the founding members alongside UAE and Indonesia included India, Sri Lanka, Australia, Japan, and Spain, but not the United States or Canada. Launch year and summit: COP27 at Sharm El-Sheikh in 2022 Lead nations: UAE and Indonesia Founding partner nations: Australia, India, Japan, Sri Lanka, Spain Option A: It incorrectly includes statement II, which lists Canada and the United States among the alliance members. Option C: It mistakenly includes statement II while omitting statement I, which accurately identifies the founding lead nations. Option D: It wrongly claims none of the statements are correct when statements I, III, and IV are factually sound.

163. Q163Environmental law, institutions and treaties

     Consider the following statements with reference to GloLitter Partnerships Project : I. It is an initiative of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). II. It aims to reduce marine litter, especially plastic litter from all the sources. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor IIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the GloLitter Partnerships Project is an initiative jointly executed by the International Maritime Organization and the Food and Agriculture Organization, focused specifically on sea-based sources of marine plastic litter. Lead implementing agencies: International Maritime Organization and Food and Agriculture Organization Funding partner: Government of Norway Target sources: Maritime transport and fishing sectors only Option A: Statement I is incorrect because the initiative is run by IMO and FAO, not UNEP. Option B: Statement II is incorrect because the project targets marine plastic litter originating specifically from sea-based sectors such as shipping and fisheries, not from all sources. Option C: Both statements contain foundational factual errors regarding the administering agencies and operational scope.

164. Q164STATE ENVIRONMENT: what the two states actually protect and pollute

     Which of the following indicator species are *not* found in Srivenkateshwara National Park of Andhra Pradesh ?

     • aWood productivitystorkAnswer
     • bCycas beddomei
     • cRed sanders
     • dSlender loris
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Wood stork is an American bird species native to the Americas and is not found in Sri Venkateswara National Park or India. Option B: Cycas beddomei is a critically endangered cycad endemic to the Seshachalam Hills of Sri Venkateswara National Park. Option C: Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is a globally recognized endemic plant found extensively within this park. Option D: Slender loris is a nocturnal primate naturally distributed within the moist and dry deciduous forests of the sanctuary.

165. Q165STATE ENVIRONMENT: what the two states actually protect and pollute

     Naupada Coastal and Marine Biodiversity Area (ICMBA) is located in the district of

     • aSrikakulamAnswer
     • bVijayanagaram
     • cAlluri Sitharama Raju
     • dVisakhapatnam
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Naupada swamp and its designated Important Coastal and Marine Biodiversity Area are situated in the Santhabommali mandal of Srikakulam district in Andhra Pradesh. Option B: Vizayanagaram does not contain the Naupada wetland ecosystem. Option C: Alluri Sitharama Raju is an inland tribal district without coastal zones. Option D: Visakhapatnam lies south of Srikakulam and does not encompass Naupada.

166. Q166Structure of Indian society

     Who said "India is not a nation in the tra ditional western sense but a comprehensive culture of continental scope compounded of a very large number of linguistic and religious, entities, highly complex and often strongly antagonistic local cultures"?

     • aCarl FriedrichAnswer
     • bP.H. Appleby
     • cWoodrow Wilson
     • dJawaharlal Nehru
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Carl J. Friedrich, a renowned political scientist and constitutional expert, famously described India in these terms while analyzing its federal structure and constitutional governance. Option B: Paul H. Appleby surveyed Indian public administration and rated it among the top administrative systems, but did not make this specific statement. Option C: Woodrow Wilson was an American president and political theorist whose works primarily focused on administration and American government. Option D: Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized India's emotional and civilizational unity in works like The Discovery of India rather than labeling it purely an antagonistic conglomerate.

167. Q167Welfare mechanism

     According to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976, how many Scheduled Tribes are notified in the State of Andhra Pradesh ?

     • a31
     • b33Answer
     • c35
     • d29
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976 listed exactly 33 communities in the Schedule for the State of Andhra Pradesh. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act was passed in 1976. The Second Schedule, Part I officially enumerated 33 Scheduled Tribes for Andhra Pradesh. Option A: 31 is incorrect because it falls short of the statutory count specified in the 1976 amendment schedule. Option C: 35 is incorrect because it overstates the number of ST communities officially listed under the 1976 enactment. Option D: 29 is incorrect because 29 tribes corresponded to earlier historical classifications prior to the 1976 reorganization.

168. Q168Welfare mechanism

     For the effective implementation of various schemes and programmes of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, all the major schemes of the Ministry have been classified under how many umbrella schemes?

     • aThreeAnswer
     • bFour
     • cFive
     • dSix
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Ministry of Women and Child Development rationalized all its major schemes into three umbrella schemes to ensure optimal resource allocation and better delivery of services. Umbrella schemes of the Ministry: Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 Mission Vatsalya Mission Shakti Option B: Four overstates the number of recognized umbrella schemes. Option C: Five incorrectly counts the umbrella frameworks, which were streamlined into three. Option D: Six is incorrect as the Ministry consolidated its schemes into only three verticals.

169. Q169Welfare mechanism

     Which of the following are the objectives of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao ? I. To provide legal assistance to girls II. To reduce decline in Child Sex Ratio III. To encourage women empowerment IV. To remove gender inequality Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

     • aI, II and III
     • bII, III and IVAnswer
     • cI, II and IV
     • dI, III and IV
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Beti Bachao Beti Padhao focuses on addressing the declining Child Sex Ratio, checking sex-selective elimination, advancing female education, and fostering gender equality and women empowerment. Option A: It incorrectly includes legal assistance, which is not a primary objective of the scheme, and excludes removing gender inequality. Option C: It wrongly lists providing legal aid as a component and omits women empowerment. Option D: It incorporates legal aid as an objective while omitting the central target of curbing the declining Child Sex Ratio.

170. Q170STATE SOCIETY: the society the two states actually have

     One of the following welfare programmes implemented by Government of Andhra Pradesh is *not* part of Navaratnalu.

     • aHousing for all Poor
     • bYSR Jala Yagnam
     • cAarogyasri
     • dVahana MitraAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because YSR Vahana Mitra is an independent welfare scheme that provides annual financial aid to self-employed auto and taxi drivers, rather than one of the nine core schemes formally designated as Navaratnalu. Option A: Housing for all Poor is an integral component of Navaratnalu under the Pedalandariki Illu initiative. Option B: YSR Jala Yagnam is explicitly incorporated as the irrigation vertical of the Navaratnalu framework. Option C: Aarogyasri is the flagship healthcare component of the Navaratnalu.

171. Q171STATE SOCIETY: the society the two states actually have

     Which of the following minorities have been allotted special budget cover (2021 – 22) by the Government of Andhra Pradesh ?

     • aQureshi
     • bGosangi
     • cBorewale
     • dDudekulaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the Government of Andhra Pradesh created a dedicated welfare corporation and designated special budget provisions for the Dudekula community among minority groups in the 2021-22 budget. Option A: This minority community was not designated with a separate specific welfare corporation budget in the 2021-22 budget allocations. Option B: Gosangi is a Scheduled Caste community in Andhra Pradesh, not a religious minority group. Option C: Borewale was not provided an independent special corporate budget under the state minority budget allocations.

172. Q172STATE SOCIETY: the society the two states actually have

     Which of the following statements are valid regarding the initiatives taken by the Andhra Pradesh Government in Women Development and Child Welfare Department ? I. Government in collaboration with PRATHAM organization is building the capacitates of supervisors and anganwadi workers. II. Government in collaboration with UK CATAPULT organization is extending support for funding the YSR Thalli Bidda Express. III. ‘YSR Sampoorna Poshana Plus +’ scheme provides nutritional support to pregnant women and lactating mothers in all the mandals except the 77 Scheduled and Tribals sub-mandals. IV. Poshan Abhiyaan is implemented in the State by a 50% external aid from IBRD.

     • aOnly I and III are correct
     • bOnly II is correct
     • cOnly I, III and IV are correct
     • dOnly I and IV are correctAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the department collaborated with PRATHAM to train Anganwadi personnel, and Poshan Abhiyaan receives 50 percent external funding from the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, while the other two statements are factually incorrect. Option A: Statement III is false because YSR Sampoorna Poshana Plus specifically covers the 77 scheduled and tribal sub-mandals, not the rest of the state. Option B: Statement II is false because the UK Catapult partnership did not provide operational funding for the Thalli Bidda Express ambulance fleet. Option C: It incorrectly includes statement III, which reverses the geographic coverage of YSR Sampoorna Poshana and YSR Sampoorna Poshana Plus.

173. Q173Policy, missions and institutions

     Which of the following Schemes/Programmes are launched with the objective of reversing India's brain drain to brain gain ? I. VAJRA Scheme II. Ramanujan Fellowship Programme III. INSPIRE Scheme IV. ASEAN – India Research Training Fellowship Scheme Select the correct answer from below :

     • aII and III only
     • bI, II and III onlyAnswer
     • cI and II only
     • dI, II, III and IV

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

174. Q174Policy, missions and institutions

     Consider the following statements with reference to Sampurnanand Telescope : I. It is located at Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), Ladakh. II. It has completed 50 years of operations. III. It has been extensively used for optical observations of comets, star forming regions and star clusters. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. I and II only 2. II and III only 3. I and III only 4. All of the above

     • aI and II only
     • bII and III onlyAnswer
     • cI and III only
     • dAll of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements II and III accurately describe the Sampurnanand Telescope, which completed 50 years of operation in 2022 and has been heavily used for optical observations of various astronomical phenomena, whereas statement I is incorrect regarding its location. Sampurnanand Telescope location: Manora Peak, Nainital, Uttarakhand (ARIES) Commissioned: 1972 (completed 50 years in 2022) Primary mirror: 104 cm optical telescope Option A: Incorrect because statement I wrongly locates ARIES in Ladakh instead of Nainital, Uttarakhand. Option C: Incorrect because statement I is false while statement II is true. Option D: Incorrect because statement I contains a geographical error.

175. Q175Policy, missions and institutions

     Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) developed the strategic plan and Vision 2030 document based on the following : I. Strengthen health research capacity in the country II. Leverage traditional medicine III. Well aligned with the National Health Policy NHP-2017 Select the correct answer from below :

     • aII and III only
     • bI and III only
     • cI, II and IIIAnswer
     • dNone of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because ICMR's Strategic Plan and Vision 2030 encompasses all three components: strengthening health research capacity, integrating and leveraging evidence-based traditional medicine, and aligning priorities directly with the targets of the National Health Policy (NHP-2017). Option A: Incorrect because it leaves out statement I, which is a foundational objective of the ICMR vision. Option B: Incorrect because it leaves out statement II, as traditional systems like AYUSH are explicitly included in ICMR's integrated health strategy. Option D: Incorrect because all three statements are valid pillars of the document.

176. Q176Policy, missions and institutions

     With reference to Digital Embossing Technology, consider the following statements : I. It is a printing technology that does not use chemicals, solvents and also emits no pollutants. II. It can be used to produce braille maps for the visually challenged. III. It was introduced in India recently by the National Atlas & Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO) functioning as the Attached Office of the Department of Science & Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bI and II only
     • cII and III only
     • dI, II and IIIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because all three statements are true regarding Digital Embossing Technology, an eco-friendly and solvent-free printing method introduced by NATMO to create braille maps and thematic atlases for visually impaired users. Option A: It excludes statements II and III, both of which are correct descriptions of the technology's application and introducing agency. Option B: It excludes statement III, which accurately identifies NATMO under the Department of Science and Technology as the implementing authority. Option C: It fails to include statement I, which correctly highlights the clean, chemical-free, and solvent-free nature of the printing process.

177. Q177Space technology

     Consider the following statements with reference to "Small satellite launch vehicle". designed by ISRO : I. It can place a 500 kg payload at a height of 500 km in the Low Earth Orbit (LEO). II. It has two solid motor stages with a lift off mass of 100 tonnes. III. It is shorter in length than the PSLV and GSLV. IV. Unlike the PSLV and GSLV, it can be assembled both vertically and horizontally. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. I, II and III only 2. I, III and IV only 3. II, III and IV only 4. All of the above

     • aI, II and III only
     • bI, III and IV only
     • cII, III and IV onlyAnswer
     • dAll of the above

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

178. Q178Space technology

     With reference to ISRO's upcoming mission “Shukrayaan-I”, consider the following statements : I. Shukrayaan is India's first mission to Saturn to study the planet's surface and atmosphere. II. The satellite is planned to be launched onboard the GSLV Mk III rocket. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNone of the aboveAnswer

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

179. Q179Space technology

     Consider the following statements with reference to "Gaganyan": I. Gaganyaan is an Indian crewed orbital spacecraft intended to be the formative spacecraft of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme. II. ISRO announced Vyommitra, a Male Robot who will accompany astronauts in the mission. III. The crewed vehicle is planned to be launched on ISRO's GSLV Mk II.. IV. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) will provide support for critical human-centric systems and technologies in this mission. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. I and II only 2. I and III only 3. II and IV only 4. I and IV only

     • aI and II only
     • bI and III only
     • cII and IV only
     • dI and IV onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because statement I is factually accurate regarding Gaganyaan's role in the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme, and statement IV correctly identifies DRDO as the provider of human-centric survival systems and technologies. Statement II error: Vyommitra is a female-looking humanoid, not a male robot Statement III error: Gaganyaan will launch on LVM3 (GSLV Mk III), not GSLV Mk II Option A: I and II only is incorrect because statement II is false regarding the gender presentation of Vyommitra. Option B: I and III only is incorrect because statement III names the wrong launch vehicle. Option C: II and IV only is incorrect because statement II is erroneous.

180. Q180Space technology

     Digantara Research and Technologies Pvt. Ltd. based at ___, was authorised by IN-SPACe on June 24 to launch their payloads.

     • aNew Delhi
     • bBengaluruAnswer
     • cPune
     • dKochi
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Digantara Research and Technologies is a private space-tech startup headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka. Option A: New Delhi is the national capital, not the operational headquarters of Digantara. Option C: Pune is not the headquarters of this space-tech company. Option D: Kochi is not the city where Digantara was founded or operates.

181. Q181Space technology

     Consider the following statements regarding ExoMars : I. Its rover will be the first mission to combine the capability to move across the surface and to study Mars at depth. II. ExoMars is a joint programme of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Russian Space Agency – Roscosmos. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor IIAnswer

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

182. Q182Space technology

     Consider the following statements with reference to China's Chang'e 5 lunar probe : I. It is named after the Chinese Moon goddess. II. It is China's first attempt at a sample-return mission. III. It will be the first probe to bring back material from the Moon, since NASA's Luna 24 mission. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • a1. I and II onlyAnswer
     • b2. II and III only
     • c3. I and III only
     • d4. I, II and III
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because statements I and II are accurate, whereas statement III is false. Option B: Incorrect because it includes statement III, which wrongly attributes Luna 24 to NASA instead of the Soviet Union. Option C: Incorrect because statement III contains an erroneous agency attribution. Option D: Incorrect because statement III is factually false.

183. Q183Space technology

     Consider the following statements about “Vikram-S” : I. It is India's first privately built rocket. II. It is a single stage suborbital space launch vehicle. III. The mission for the rocket launch has been named as “Prarambh”, meaning beginning. IV. It was developed by space tech startup Agnikul Cosmos. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI, II and III onlyAnswer
     • bI, III and IV only
     • cII, III and IV only
     • dAll of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because statements I, II, and III are accurate, while statement IV is false since Vikram-S was developed by Skyroot Aerospace. Vikram-S developer: Skyroot Aerospace Vehicle type: Single-stage sub-orbital rocket Mission designation: Prarambh Launch date: 18 November 2022 Option B: Statement IV is incorrect because Agnikul Cosmos did not develop Vikram-S. Option C: Statement I is omitted despite being factually true, and statement IV is included despite being false. Option D: Statement IV is false, so all four statements cannot be correct.

184. Q184Defence technology

     A joint programme of DRDO and ISRO, developed highly potent Anti-Satellite Weapons (ASAT) under Mission Shakti. I. ASAT is a missile-based system to attack moving satellites. II. India, using ASAT Missile, destroyed a live satellite in Low Earth Orbit. III. ASAT missile is capable of shooting down targets moving at a speed of 50 km per second at an altitude as high as 2000 km. Which of the statements regarding ASAT are true ?

     • aI and II onlyAnswer
     • bI and III only
     • cI, II and III
     • dII and III only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because ASAT is designed to neutralize moving orbital targets and successfully destroyed a live satellite in Low Earth Orbit during Mission Shakti. Option B: I and III only is incorrect because statement III is false, as Low Earth Orbit speeds are around 7.5 to 8 km per second and the test interception occurred around 300 km, not 2000 km. Option C: I, II and III is incorrect because statement III contains impossible speed and incorrect altitude figures. Option D: II and III only is incorrect because statement III is false and statement I is true.

185. Q185Defence technology

     Consider the following statements regarding India's Anti-Satellite Missile test : I. The test successfully destroyed a live satellite in Low Earth Orbit. II. The test was done in the upper atmosphere to ensure that there is no space debris. III. India is the fourth country in the world to have this kind of missile system. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI and II only
     • bII only
     • cI and III onlyAnswer
     • dII and III only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Anti-Satellite test conducted under Mission Shakti destroyed a satellite in Low Earth Orbit at an altitude of nearly 300 km, making India the fourth country after the US, Russia, and China to possess this capability. Option A: I and II only is incorrect because statement II is false; the test was carried out in outer space within Low Earth Orbit rather than the upper atmosphere. Option B: II only is incorrect because statement II is factually wrong and statements I and III are valid. Option D: II and III only is incorrect because statement II is wrong and statement I is valid.

186. Q186Information and communication technology

     With reference to RFID Technology, consider the following statements : I. Passive RFID tags are powered by an internal circuit and utilize it to send response to the reader. II. Semi-passive RFID tags comprise an internal circuit with power source but rely on radio waves received from the reader to transmit the response. III. Active RFID tags acquire their power from the readers' incoming radio waves. IV. RFID Technology can scan a tag as long as it is within frequency range and it does not have any line-of-sight limitations. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI, II and III only
     • bI, III and IV only
     • cII and IV onlyAnswer
     • dIII and IV only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because statements II and IV accurately state the functionality of semi-passive RFID tags and the non-line-of-sight nature of RFID scanning. Passive RFID tags have no internal battery and rely entirely on the radio waves from the reader for power. Semi-passive RFID tags contain an internal battery to power internal circuits but use the reader signal to transmit. Active RFID tags contain their own battery that actively transmits radio signals to the reader. RFID technology functions across radio frequencies without needing direct optical line of sight. Option A: Statements I and III are incorrect because passive tags lack internal power sources and active tags do not rely on reader waves for operational power. Option B: Statement I incorrectly claims passive tags use internal power, and statement III misstates the power source of active tags. Option D: Statement III is incorrect because active RFID tags draw operating and transmission power from an internal battery.

187. Q187Information and communication technology

     Identify the incorrect statement about the e-Governance programmes in India.

     • aDARPAN is an online tool that can be used to monitor and analyse the implementation of critical projects of the State.
     • bKHAJANE is an e-Governance project for the computerized delivery of land records to farmers of Karnataka.Answer
     • cJeevan Pramaan is an Aadhaar-based Biometric Authentication System for pensioners.
     • de-PRAGATI has been aimed at starting a culture of pro-active governance and timely implementation.
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the statement is incorrect; Khajane is Karnataka's integrated financial management and online treasury system, whereas the computerized delivery of land records in Karnataka is carried out under the Bhoomi project. Option A: DARPAN is an online analytical tool used by Chief Ministers and administrators to monitor the progress of critical state-level projects. Option C: Jeevan Pramaan is indeed the Aadhaar-based digital life certificate biometric system for pensioners. Option D: e-PRAGATI is an enterprise architecture platform aimed at pro-active governance and expeditious project implementation.

188. Q188Information and communication technology

     Recently, NITI Aayog approved a proposal to conduct a study on the use of facial recognition technology in India. In the context of facial recognition technology, consider the following statements : I. A National Automated Facial Recognition System (NAFRS) is being developed by the National Informatics Centre, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. II. The biggest demerit of facial recognition technology is its limitation in identifying people in real-time and not in photos and videos. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor IIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because both statements are factually incorrect. The National Automated Facial Recognition System (NAFRS) is being implemented by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the NIC under MeitY; and facial recognition systems are widely capable of matching faces in both photos and pre-recorded videos as well as real-time feeds. Option A: Incorrect because Statement I misidentifies the implementing agency as NIC under MeitY instead of NCRB under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Option B: Incorrect because Statement II wrongly claims that the technology cannot identify people in photos and videos, which is actually one of its primary capabilities. Option C: Incorrect because both statements are factually erroneous.

189. Q189Energy technology and management

     Identify the incorrect statement about Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus developed in India : I. India's first indigenously developed Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was developed by Veera Vahana Company. II. The fuel cell employed in the Hydrogen-powered Bus will combine Hydrogen and Carbon dioxide to create electricity. III. The effluent from the hydrogen-powered Bus is water and heat instead of smoke.

     • aI and III
     • bII and III
     • cI and IIAnswer
     • dAll of the above

     Explanation coming soon.

190. Q190Energy technology and management

     Identify incorrect the statement about Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus developed in India : I. India's first indigenously developed Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was developed by Veera Vahana Company. II. The fuel cell employed in the Hydrogen and Carbon dioxide to create electricity III. The effluent from the hydrogen-powered Bus is water and heat instead of smoke.

     • aI and III
     • bII and III
     • cI and IIAnswer
     • dAll of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because statements I and II contain factual errors, whereas statement III is scientifically accurate. First indigenous hydrogen fuel cell bus: Developed jointly by CSIR and KPIT Technologies in Pune, not Veera Vahana. Fuel cell electrochemical inputs: Hydrogen and oxygen from air, not carbon dioxide. Fuel cell exhaust products: Pure water vapor and heat. Option A: It incorrectly identifies statement III as false, whereas the emission of water and heat instead of smoke is true. Option B: It incorrectly treats statement I as true while labeling the correct statement III as false. Option D: It mistakenly groups statement III among the incorrect statements.

191. Q191Nuclear technology

     With reference to a mega project pertaining to Nuclear Fusion research that is being built in Southern France, International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER), consider the following statements : I. It was designed to demonstrate the scientific and technological feasibility of fusion power for peaceful use. II. Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Gandhinagar is the Nodal agency for the project ITER. III. ADITYA is a medium size Tokamak fusion reactor installed at IPR, Gandhinagar as part of ITER. IV. EU, India, China, Japan, South Korea, Russia and US are the members of ITER. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI and II only
     • bII and III only
     • cI, II and III only
     • dI, II, III and IVAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because all four statements accurately describe the ITER project: it aims to demonstrate the feasibility of commercial fusion, the Institute for Plasma Research in Gandhinagar is India's domestic agency, ADITYA is an operational tokamak at IPR contributing to fusion diagnostics and research, and the project is an international consortium of seven members comprising the EU, India, China, Japan, South Korea, Russia, and the US. Option A: It excludes statements III and IV, which are factually correct regarding the ADITYA tokamak and the seven participating ITER member entities. Option B: It erroneously leaves out statement I, which defines the foundational mandate of the ITER project. Option C: It fails to include statement IV, which lists the exact founding and participating members of ITER.

192. Q192Nuclear technology

     Consider the following statements regarding Fast Breeder Reactors : I. Fast Breeder Reactors are designed to breed more fuel than they consume. II. In this reactor, Plutonium-239 undergoes fission to produce energy, while the Uranium-238 present in the fuel transmutes to additional Plutonium-239. III. It is a part of stage 1 of India's Nuclear power programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • a1. I only
     • b2. I and II onlyAnswer
     • c3. II and III only
     • d4. III and III
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Fast Breeder Reactors produce more fissile material than they consume by converting fertile Uranium-238 into fissile Plutonium-239 while Plutonium-239 undergoes fission to generate power. Stage 1: Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors using natural Uranium Stage 2: Fast Breeder Reactors using Plutonium-239 and Uranium-238 Stage 3: Advanced Heavy Water Reactors utilising Thorium-232 and Uranium-233 Option A: It omits statement II, which accurately details the core fissile and fertile reactions inside a fast breeder reactor. Option C: It includes statement III, which incorrectly places the fast breeder reactor in stage 1 rather than stage 2 of India's nuclear programme. Option D: It includes statement III and repeats it in place of statement I, making the selection entirely invalid.

193. Q193Nuclear technology

     Consider the following statements with reference to the enrichment of Uranium : I. Uranium enrichment refers to increasing the percentage of U-238 (the fissile isotope) through the process of isotope separation. II. Weapons-grade Uranium has to be enriched to a maximum of 20 percent of the fissile isotope. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor IIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because neither statement is true. Enrichment increases the concentration of the fissile isotope Uranium-235 rather than Uranium-238, and weapons-grade uranium typically requires an enrichment level of at least 90 percent, whereas 20 percent marks the upper limit for low-enriched uranium. Option A: Statement I incorrectly identifies Uranium-238 as the fissile isotope being enriched. Option B: Statement II incorrectly defines weapons-grade uranium as having a maximum of 20 percent fissile material. Option C: Both statements contain fundamental factual errors regarding uranium enrichment and isotope classification.

194. Q194Nuclear technology

     Consider the following statements reference to Dirty Bomb: I. It is a bomb that contains radioactive. material, such as uranium, which is scattered through the air when its. conventional explosive detonates. II. It creates city-flattening explosion and less toxic waste atomic III. Manufacturing dirty bombs is costlier than nuclear weapons.. Which of the statements given above are incorrect? 1. I and II only 2. II and III only 3. I and III only 4. None of the above

     • aI and II only
     • bII and III onlyAnswer
     • cI and III only
     • dNone of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements II and III are both incorrect descriptions of dirty bombs, which is what the question asks for. A dirty bomb uses conventional explosives to disperse radioactive material, producing localized contamination rather than a massive nuclear detonation, and it is vastly cheaper and simpler to make than a true nuclear weapon. Option A: Statement I is correct since a dirty bomb combines conventional explosives with radioactive material. Option C: Statement I is an accurate statement, while III is incorrect. Option D: Statements II and III are clearly false, so none of the above cannot be the answer.

195. Q195Nuclear technology

     Which of the following is used as a trigger in a nuclear bomb?

     • a1. KrytronAnswer
     • b2. MOSFET
     • c3. Solid State Relay
     • d4. Solenoid
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because a krytron is a high-speed, high-voltage gas-discharge switch designed to deliver precise, synchronized high-current pulses to detonators, making it a critical component used to trigger the implosion in nuclear weapons. Option B: MOSFET switches generally lack the ultra-fast switching speed and high-voltage discharge capability required to trigger a nuclear implosion simultaneously. Option C: Solid State Relays are too slow in switching time to achieve the microsecond synchronization needed for nuclear detonation. Option D: Solenoids are electromechanical actuators that operate far too slowly to serve as nuclear triggers.

196. Q196Nuclear technology

     Which of the following events has delayed the commissioning of the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant ? I. Disintegration of the USSR II. India's economic crisis of 1991 III. Protests by Civil Society Select the correct answer from below :

     • aIII only
     • bI only
     • cI, II and III
     • dI and III onlyAnswer

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

197. Q197Nuclear technology

     Where is the Headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) located?

     • aMoscow
     • bWashington D.C.
     • cViennaAnswer
     • dGeneva
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the International Atomic Energy Agency, established in 1957, has its headquarters at the Vienna International Centre in Vienna, Austria. Option A: Moscow does not host the headquarters of the IAEA. Option B: Washington D.C. hosts institutions like the World Bank and IMF, not the IAEA. Option D: Geneva hosts several UN agencies such as WHO and WTO, but not the IAEA.

198. Q198Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     A fermentation process that uses ultrasound to safely generate Xylitol from Sugarcane bagasse is created by

     • aIndian Institute of Technology, Delhi
     • bIndian Institute of Sugarcane Research, Lucknow
     • cSugarcane Breeding Institute, Coimbatore
     • dIndian Institute of Technology, GuwahatiAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati developed an ultrasound-assisted fermentation technique to safely and efficiently synthesize xylitol from sugarcane bagasse. Option A: Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi was not the institution that developed this ultrasound-assisted xylitol production process. Option B: Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research, Lucknow concentrates on sugarcane agronomy and protection rather than this ultrasonic bio-refinery method. Option C: Sugarcane Breeding Institute, Coimbatore specializes in developing sugarcane varieties and genetics, not this acoustic fermentation technology.

199. Q199Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     In India 3D-Printed Cornea and 3D-Printed. Liver Tissue were developed respectively by

     • aAravind Eye Hospital and Panacea Biotec Ltd
     • bL.V. Prasad Eye Institute and Biocon Limited
     • cL.V. Prasad Eye Institute Pandorum TechnologiesAnswer
     • dCentre for Sight and SIRO Clinpharm
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because researchers at the L.V. Prasad Eye Institute, along with IIT Hyderabad and the biotechnology company Pandorum Technologies, collaborated to pioneer 3D-printed human cornea and 3D-printed liver tissue constructs in India. Option A: Aravind Eye Hospital and Panacea Biotec Ltd were not the developers of these 3D-bioprinted corneal and hepatic constructs. Option B: Biocon Limited focuses on biopharmaceuticals and biosimilars, and did not co-develop the 3D-printed liver tissue with LVPEI. Option D: Centre for Sight and SIRO Clinpharm were not associated with these tissue-engineering innovations.

200. Q200Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Which IIT developed a robot that can clean septic tanks without the need for humans in June 2022?

     • aIIT Kharagpur
     • bIIT New Delhi
     • cIIT Gauahati
     • dIIT MadrasAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras developed the HomSEP robot, a ten-blade mechanized device designed to clean septic tanks without requiring manual scavenging. Option A: IIT Kharagpur did not develop the HomSEP robotic system. Option B: IIT New Delhi was not involved in the design or launch of this septic-cleaning robot. Option C: IIT Gauahati had no role in creating the HomSEP platform.