APPSC Group-I Prelims 2023

304 questions from the 2023 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

121. Q121STATE ECONOMY: agriculture, industry and services

     Which of the following statements are correct regarding status of Andhra Pradesh Aquaculture ? I. ‘YSR Matsyakara Bharosa’ relief is provided to marine fishermen families during fishing ban period. II. Andhra Pradesh Fisheries University is to be established in East Godavari District. III. The Diesel Oil Subsidy for fishermen boats is associated with exemption of sales tax on HSD oil. IV. The Government has enhanced the financial benefit to deceased fishermen (while fishing) family from < 5 lakhs to < 10 lakhs.

     • aOnly I, II and III are correct
     • bOnly I and II are correct
     • cOnly III and IV are correct
     • dOnly 1, III and IV are correctAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because statements I, III, and IV are factual government measures, whereas statement II is incorrect since the Andhra Pradesh Fisheries University was sanctioned to be established in West Godavari district at Narsapuram, not in East Godavari district. Option A: Includes statement II, which incorrectly assigns the location of the fisheries university to East Godavari district. Option B: Excludes statements III and IV, which are verified welfare measures implemented by the state government. Option C: Omits statement I, which accurately identifies the relief provided under YSR Matsyakara Bharosa during the marine fishing ban.

122. Q122STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

     Polavaram Project

     • aState project with Central Government funds
     • bState project funded by Andhra Pradesh state funds
     • cState project funded by Andhra Pradesh and Telangana states
     • dNational ProjectAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Section 90 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 formally designated the Polavaram Project as a National Project. Option A: It is not merely a state project with central funds, but carries the distinct statutory status of a National Project. Option B: Post-bifurcation, its irrigation component is funded by the Central Government, not by state funds. Option C: It is not funded jointly by the Andhra Pradesh and Telangana state governments.

123. Q123STATE ECONOMY: bifurcation and the Reorganisation Act 2014

     Which of the following statements are correct about Visakhapatnam-Chennai Industrial Corridor Development Program (VCICDP) ? I. It is partly funded by loan from Asian Development Bank (ADB). II. It is aligned with the Golden Quadrilateral and covers more than 800 km of the State of Andhra Pradesh's coastline. III. It is a node-centric development platform comprising four nodes. IV. Donakonda is recognized as one of the nodes.

     • aOnly I and II are correct
     • bOnly II and III are correct
     • cOnly I, II and IV are correctAnswer
     • dOnly I, III and IV are correct

     Explanation coming soon.

124. Q124The Earth in the solar system

     There is a place A with longitude 060° West. There is another place B with longitude 090° East. If, local time at place A is 10 a.m, what would be local time at place B ? 8 p.m.

     • a8 PMAnswer
     • b10 PM
     • c12 PM
     • d6 PM
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the longitudinal difference of 150° between 60° W and 90° E equals a 10-hour difference, making the local time at Place B 8 PM when Place A is at 10 AM. Total longitudinal difference: 60° plus 90° equals 150° Time difference: 150 multiplied by 4 minutes equals 600 minutes or 10 hours Direction: Place B is east of Place A, so time is ahead Local time at B: 10:00 AM plus 10 hours equals 8:00 PM Option B: 10 PM is wrong because it incorrectly adds twelve hours instead of ten. Option C: 12 PM is wrong because it adds only two hours to the time at Place A. Option D: 6 PM is wrong because it miscalculates the longitudinal difference and the resulting time offset.

125. Q125The Earth in the solar system

     Seasonal differences are maximum in

     • aMid LatitudesAnswer
     • bHigh Latitudes
     • cLow Latitudes
     • dSubtropics
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because mid-latitude temperate zones experience the most pronounced seasonal contrast between warm summers and cold winters due to substantial variations in solar insolation and day length throughout the year. Option B: High latitudes experience extreme cold for most of the year, preventing the occurrence of a warm, distinct summer season. Option C: Low latitudes receive consistently high solar insolation and nearly equal day length throughout the year, resulting in minimal seasonal temperature variation. Option D: Subtropics retain relatively high temperatures across the year, exhibiting far less annual thermal variation than the temperate mid-latitudes.

126. Q126Atmosphere, weather and climate

     Arrange the following constituents of the atmosphere in descending order (in terms of their quantity) :

     • aNitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, CO₂Answer
     • bCO₂, Argon, Oxygen, Nitrogen
     • cOxygen, Nitrogen, CO₂, Argon
     • dArgon, CO₂, Nitrogen, Oxygen
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the atmospheric gases arranged in decreasing order of their volumetric abundance are nitrogen, oxygen, argon, and carbon dioxide. Nitrogen: approximately 78.08% Oxygen: approximately 20.95% Argon: approximately 0.93% Carbon dioxide: approximately 0.04% Option B: Carbon dioxide is listed first despite being a trace gas compared to nitrogen, oxygen, and argon. Option C: Oxygen is placed ahead of nitrogen, whereas nitrogen constitutes the vast majority of the air. Option D: Argon and carbon dioxide are placed ahead of the primary atmospheric constituents.

127. Q127Soils, vegetation and wildlife

     Which of the following type of grassland separates Cold Asia from Dry Asia ?

     • aSteppeAnswer
     • bTaiga
     • cTundra
     • dPrairie
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Steppe is a vast temperate grassland belt across Eurasia that serves as an ecological transition separating the cold northern boreal zones of Cold Asia from the arid desert basins of Dry Asia. Option B: Taiga is a biome dominated by boreal coniferous forests, not a grassland. Option C: Tundra is a cold, treeless polar and subpolar ecosystem characterized by permafrost, not a temperate grassland. Option D: Prairie refers specifically to the temperate grassland ecosystem of North America, not Asia.

128. Q128India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Match the following Geographic Sites with the States (location): Geographical Heritage Sites States a. Lonar Lake I. Odisha b. Siwalik Fossil Park II. Rajasthan c. Akal Wood Fossil Park III. Maharashtra d. Pillow Lava at Nomira IV. Himachal Pradesh Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: a b c d (1) I II III IV (2) III IV II I (3) II IV III I (4) III IV I II

     • aa-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
     • ba-III, b-IV, c-II, d-IAnswer
     • ca-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
     • da-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because matching each listed national geological monument to its respective state yields the sequence a-III, b-IV, c-II, and d-I. Lonar Lake: Maharashtra Siwalik Fossil Park: Himachal Pradesh Akal Wood Fossil Park: Rajasthan Pillow Lava at Nomira: Odisha Option A: It incorrectly pairs Lonar Lake with Odisha instead of Maharashtra. Option C: It incorrectly pairs Lonar Lake with Rajasthan and Akal Wood Fossil Park with Maharashtra. Option D: It reverses the locations of Akal Wood Fossil Park and Pillow Lava at Nomira.

129. Q129India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Which of the following geographical series is not related to the Vindhyan system?

     • aBhander Series
     • bBijawar Series
     • cKhondalite SeriesAnswer
     • dKaimur Series
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Khondalite Series consists of ancient Archean high-grade metamorphic rocks found in the Eastern Ghats mobile belt, rather than sedimentary formations of the Vindhyan Supergroup. Option A: Bhander Series forms the uppermost stratigraphic stage of the Upper Vindhyan system. Option B: Bijawar Series consists of volcano-sedimentary rocks associated with the basement of the Vindhyan basin. Option D: Kaimur Series forms the lowermost stratigraphic division of the Upper Vindhyan system.

130. Q130India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Consider the following statements regarding India : I. India has an area of 3·28 million sq km, and accounts for about 2·4 percent of the total geographical area of the world. II. The mainland of India extends between latitudes 8°4' N and 37°6' N and longitude 68°7' E and 97°25' E. III. Presently India has 28 States and 8 Union Territories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bI and II only
     • cI and III only
     • dI, II and IIIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because all three statements accurately reflect standard NCERT geographical and political facts regarding India. Total geographic area: 3.28 million square kilometres (2.4 percent of global land) Mainland latitudes: 8°4' N to 37°6' N Mainland longitudes: 68°7' E to 97°25' E Administrative divisions: 28 States and 8 Union Territories Option A: I only ignores statements II and III, which are both entirely accurate. Option B: I and II only omits statement III, which correctly gives the current tally of states and union territories. Option C: I and III only omits statement II, which correctly defines the latitudinal and longitudinal limits of the mainland.

131. Q131India: physiography, drainage and climate

     What is the proper river order from North to South ?

     • aChenab, Jhelum, Ravi, Sutlej, Beas
     • bJhelum, Chenab, Beas, Ravi, Sutlej
     • cJhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, SutlejAnswer
     • dChenab, Jhelum, Beas, Ravi, Sutlej
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the geographic layout of these five Indus tributaries arranged from north to south places Jhelum uppermost and Sutlej lowermost. Jhelum Chenab Ravi Beas Sutlej Option A: places Chenab to the north of Jhelum and Sutlej to the north of Beas. Option B: places Beas to the north of Ravi. Option D: places Chenab to the north of Jhelum and Beas to the north of Ravi.

132. Q132Natural resources and their distribution

     Phlogopite and Pegmatite minerals are related to

     • aPetroleum
     • bMicaAnswer
     • cIron ore
     • dGold
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because phlogopite is a magnesium-rich species of mica, and pegmatites are coarse-grained igneous rocks that serve as the primary geological host for commercial sheet mica deposits. Option A: Petroleum is a liquid hydrocarbon found in sedimentary rock basins, bearing no connection to mica minerals or pegmatites. Option C: Iron ore occurs primarily as hematite and magnetite in banded iron formations, not as phlogopite or in pegmatitic bodies. Option D: Gold deposits occur chiefly in hydrothermal quartz veins and alluvial placers rather than as mica varieties like phlogopite.

133. Q133Natural resources and their distribution

     Match the following Coal-based Therma Power Stations and their States: List I (Thermal Power Station) a. Kudgi b. Kahalgaon c. Sipat d. Dadri List II (State) I. Chhattisgarh II. Karnataka III. U.P IV. Bihar Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: a b c d

     • aI II III IV
     • bII IV I IIIAnswer
     • cIV II III I
     • dII IV III I
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because all four thermal power stations are accurately matched to their corresponding states. Kudgi Super Thermal Power Project is in Karnataka Kahalgaon Super Thermal Power Station is in Bihar Sipat Super Thermal Power Plant is in Chhattisgarh National Capital Power Station Dadri is in Uttar Pradesh Option A: Kudgi is located in Karnataka, not Chhattisgarh, and Kahalgaon is in Bihar, not Karnataka. Option C: Kudgi is situated in Karnataka, not Bihar, and Dadri is in Uttar Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh. Option D: Sipat is located in Chhattisgarh, not Uttar Pradesh, and Dadri is situated in Uttar Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh.

134. Q134Natural resources and their distribution

     Which of the following is currently the biggest Thermal Power Plant (with an installed capacity of 4,760 MW) in India ?

     • aMundra Thermal Power Station, Gujarat
     • bThe Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station, Madhya PradeshAnswer
     • cSasan Ultra Mega Power Plant, Madhya Pradesh
     • dTalcher Super Thermal Power Station, Odisha
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Vindhyachal Super Thermal Power Station in the Singrauli district of Madhya Pradesh is India's largest coal-fired power station, having a total installed capacity of 4,760 MW. Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station: 4,760 MW Mundra Thermal Power Station: 4,620 MW Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant: 3,960 MW Talcher Super Thermal Power Station: 3,000 MW Option A: Mundra Thermal Power Station has an installed capacity of 4,620 MW, which is lower than Vindhyachal. Option C: Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant has a lower capacity of 3,960 MW. Option D: Talcher Super Thermal Power Station operates at 3,000 MW.

135. Q135Natural resources and their distribution

     Match the following traditional water harvesting systems with the region in which they are followed: A. Zing I. Tamil Nadu B. Zabo II. Rajasthan C. Johads III. Ladakh D. Phad IV. Maharashtra E. Yeri V. Nagaland

     • aA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
     • bA-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-III
     • cA-III, B-IV, C-V, D-II, E-I
     • dA-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-IAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because it correctly matches each traditional water harvesting system with the state or region where it is traditionally practiced. Zing: Ladakh Zabo: Nagaland Johads: Rajasthan Phad: Maharashtra Yeri: Tamil Nadu Option A: It incorrectly pairs Zing with Tamil Nadu and Zabo with Rajasthan. Option B: It incorrectly pairs Zing with Nagaland and Zabo with Tamil Nadu. Option C: It incorrectly pairs Zabo with Maharashtra and Phad with Rajasthan.

136. Q136Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Match the following Irrigation Projects and their States (location): Irrigation Projects states a. Parwan Multipurpose Project I. Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh b. Renukaji Dam Project II. Uttarkhand c. Lakhwar Multipurpose Project III. Himachal Pradesh d. Ken-Betwa Link Project IV. Rajasthan Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: a b c d 1. I II III IV 2. IV III II I 3. II IV III I 4. III IV II I

     • aa-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
     • ba-IV, b-III, c-II, d-IAnswer
     • ca-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
     • da-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Parwan Multipurpose Project is located in Rajasthan, Renukaji Dam on the Giri river is in Himachal Pradesh, Lakhwar Multipurpose Project on the Yamuna is in Uttarakhand, and the Ken-Betwa Link Project is a joint inter-river linking project between Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. Option A: It incorrectly pairs the Parwan Project with Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh and Lakhwar with Himachal Pradesh. Option C: It incorrectly places Parwan in Uttarakhand and Lakhwar in Himachal Pradesh. Option D: It incorrectly assigns Parwan to Himachal Pradesh and Renukaji to Rajasthan.

137. Q137Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Match the following:(Sex Ratio): Methods of Agricultural Regionalisation Agricultural Geographer a. Crop combination I. Weaver, Doi b. Crop diversification II. Bhatia, Jasbir Singh c. Crop concentration III. Chisholm, Bhatia d. Agricultural productivity IV. Kendall, Majid Husain, Jasbir Singh Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

     • aa b c d III II IV I
     • ba b c d I II III IVAnswer
     • ca b c d III II I IV
     • da b c d I II IV II
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the listed methods of agricultural regionalisation correspond in direct sequential order to the prominent geographers who formulated or applied them in India. Crop combination: J. C. Weaver and Kikukazu Doi Crop diversification: S. S. Bhatia and Jasbir Singh Crop concentration: Michael Chisholm and S. S. Bhatia Agricultural productivity: M. G. Kendall, Majid Husain, and Jasbir Singh Option A: It incorrectly attributes the crop combination index to Chisholm and Bhatia. Option C: It interchanges the pioneers of crop combination with those of crop concentration. Option D: It wrongly associates agricultural productivity methods with Bhatia and Jasbir Singh.

138. Q138Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Which of the following factors are responsible for the higher Sugarcane production in tropical regions as compared to sub-tropical regions of India ? I. Cool nights with clear skies II. Latitudinal position III. Long hours of sunshine IV. High temperature disparity Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

     • aI and II only
     • bI, II and III onlyAnswer
     • cI, III and IV only
     • dI, II and IV only
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the peninsular tropical climate provides clear skies, long sunlight hours, and moderate temperatures with cool nights that promote vegetative growth and sucrose accumulation, whereas high temperature disparity is a feature of northern sub-tropical zones that hampers yield. Option A: It excludes long hours of sunshine, which is a major factor driving photosynthetic efficiency and high tonnage in tropical sugarcane. Option C: It erroneously includes high temperature disparity, which causes frost hazards in winter and dry heat in summer, reducing sucrose content. Option D: It includes high temperature disparity while omitting long hours of sunshine.

139. Q139Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     Who among the following made the first attempt to demarcate Indian Agriculture into 4 macro regions ?

     • aSengupta
     • bSdasyuk
     • cJasbir Singh
     • dSengupta and SdasyukAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because P. Sengupta and Galina Sdasyuk jointly proposed a detailed regionalisation framework in their 1968 publication Economic Regionalization of India, classifying the country into 4 macro, 25 meso, and 60 micro agricultural regions. Macro agricultural regions: 4 Meso agricultural regions: 25 Micro agricultural regions: 60 Option A: P. Sengupta did not publish this framework alone, but in collaboration with Galina Sdasyuk. Option B: Galina Sdasyuk was a co-researcher on the joint project rather than the sole author. Option C: Jasbir Singh developed agricultural regionalisation models later, using different methodology and delineations.

140. Q140Industrial location and industrial regions

     Match the following: List I List II a. Iron and Steel Industry I.Perambur b. Jute Industry II.Jamshedpur C. Oil Refinery III. Kolkata D. Integral Coach Factory IV. Barauni Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: a b c d

     • aa-II, b-III, c-IV, d-IAnswer
     • ba-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
     • ca-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III
     • da-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Jamshedpur is a premier center of the iron and steel industry, Kolkata is the foremost hub of the jute manufacturing industry, Barauni operates a major oil refinery, and Perambur is the location of the Integral Coach Factory. Iron and Steel Industry matches Jamshedpur Jute Industry matches Kolkata Oil Refinery matches Barauni Integral Coach Factory matches Perambur Option B: It mistakenly pairs the iron and steel industry with Kolkata and the jute industry with Barauni. Option C: It incorrectly connects the iron and steel industry with Barauni and the jute industry with Jamshedpur. Option D: It wrongly associates the jute industry with Perambur and the Integral Coach Factory with Jamshedpur.

141. Q141Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     What percentage of rail routes were electrified in India by March 2019 ?

     • a45%
     • b50-91%Answer
     • c75-90%
     • d62-12%
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because by March 31, 2019, Indian Railways had electrified 35,488 route kilometres out of a total broad-gauge network of about 67,368 route kilometres, which works out to approximately 50.91 percent. Electrified broad-gauge route kilometres by March 2019: 35,488 km Total broad-gauge route kilometres by March 2019: 67,368 km Percentage electrified: 50.91% Option A: 45% reflects the electrification coverage achieved in earlier financial years prior to 2018. Option C: 75-90% represents targets planned for later years under the mission for 100 percent electrification. Option D: 62-12% overstates the progress achieved by March 2019.

142. Q142Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     Consider the following statements with reference to Vande Bharat Express : I. It is semi-high speed electric multiple unit train operated by Indian Railways. II. The first Vande Bharat train was manufactured by Integral Coach Factory, Chennai. III. It can achieve maximum speed of 250 kmph, reducing journey time. IV. It was previously known as Train 18. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI, II and III only
     • bI, III and IV only
     • cI, II and IV onlyAnswer
     • dII, III and IV only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because statements I, II, and IV accurately describe the Vande Bharat Express, whereas statement III gives an incorrect maximum operating speed. Designed operational speed limit: 160 to 180 kmph Statement III stated speed: 250 kmph Option A: It includes statement III, which is wrong because the train is not capable of reaching 250 kmph. Option B: It incorrectly omits statement II and includes the incorrect speed limit in statement III. Option D: It omits statement I while erroneously retaining the incorrect speed claim in statement III.

143. Q143Population, settlement and human geography

     Match the following (Sex Ratio) : List I List II a. Puducherry I. 993 b. Tamil Nadu II. 1037 c. Lakshadweep III. 996 d. Andhra Pradesh IV. 946 Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

     • aa b c d I II IV III
     • ba b c d II I IV III
     • ca b c d II III IV IAnswer
     • da b c d I II III IV
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because it accurately pairs each state and union territory with its corresponding sex ratio according to the 2011 Census. Puducherry: 1037 Tamil Nadu: 996 Lakshadweep: 946 Andhra Pradesh: 993 Option A: It mistakenly assigns 993 to Puducherry and 1037 to Tamil Nadu. Option B: It incorrectly associates Tamil Nadu with 993 instead of 996, and Andhra Pradesh with 996 instead of 993. Option D: It reverses the values between Puducherry and Tamil Nadu and mismatches Lakshadweep and Andhra Pradesh.

144. Q144World regional geography

     Kiev city is located on which of the following rivers ?

     • aDon
     • bDanube
     • cDniester
     • dDnieperAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Kiev, the capital city of Ukraine, is situated on the banks of the Dnieper River, which flows through Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine into the Black Sea. Option A: Don River is located in southwestern Russia and empties into the Sea of Azov, well to the east of Kiev. Option B: Danube River flows through central and southeastern Europe, passing cities such as Vienna, Bratislava, Budapest, and Belgrade, but not Kiev. Option C: Dniester River flows through Ukraine and Moldova to the Black Sea, lying southwest of the region where Kiev is situated.

145. Q145Mapping India: the Survey of India, remote sensing and applied geography

     Who first coined the phrase geographic information system?

     • aRoger TomlinsonAnswer
     • bCharles Picquet
     • cJames Hutton
     • dCharles Lyell
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Dr. Roger Tomlinson coined the phrase 'geographic information system' in the 1960s while developing the Canada Geographic Information System (CGIS). Option B: Charles Picquet was a French geographer known for early disease mapping in the 19th century, not for coining the term GIS. Option C: James Hutton was an 18th-century Scottish geologist known as the father of modern geology. Option D: Charles Lyell was a 19th-century geologist famous for his work on uniformitarianism.

146. Q146Mapping India: the Survey of India, remote sensing and applied geography

     GIS uses the information from which of the following sources?

     • aNon-spatial information system
     • bSpatial information systemAnswer
     • cGlobal information system
     • dPosition information system
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because a Geographic Information System functions specifically by processing, storing, and manipulating spatial data, which contains geographic coordinates that tie attributes to physical locations on Earth. Option A: Non-spatial information system is incorrect because non-spatial data lacks geographical coordinates, which are essential for GIS functioning. Option C: Global information system is incorrect because it refers generally to international computing and telecommunication networks rather than spatial frameworks. Option D: Position information system is incorrect because it refers narrowly to point navigation coordinates rather than full spatial data structures.

147. Q147India state by state: capitals, districts and where places are

     Which of the following Southern States shares boundaries with maximum number of Indian States ?

     • aTelangana
     • bKarnatakaAnswer
     • cAndhra Pradesh
     • dTamil Nadu
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Karnataka shares boundaries with six Indian states, which is more than any other southern state. Karnataka: 6 bordering states (Goa, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala) Andhra Pradesh: 5 bordering states (Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu) Telangana: 4 bordering states (Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh) Tamil Nadu: 3 bordering states (Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh) Option A: Telangana shares boundaries with only 4 states. Option C: Andhra Pradesh shares boundaries with only 5 states. Option D: Tamil Nadu shares boundaries with only 3 states.

148. Q148ANDHRA PRADESH ONLY: the coast and what bifurcation left it

     Which of the following statements are correct about the Sea Ports in the State of Andhra Pradesh ? I. GoAP has recently declared Krishnapatnam Port as a Major Port. II. Kakinada SEZ Port is being converted from captive port to commercial port through Swiss Challenge Approach. III. GoAP has declared Nakkapalli Port as a Minor Port. IV. Vodarevu Port is being developed on Build, Own, Operate and Transfer (BOOT) basis.

     • aOnly 1, III and IV are correct
     • bOnly II, III and IV are correctAnswer
     • cOnly II and III are correct
     • dOnly III and IV are correct
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements II, III, and IV accurately state Andhra Pradesh maritime developments, whereas statement I is incorrect because Major Ports can only be notified and declared by the Union Government under the Major Port Authorities Act, not by a state government. Option A: It includes statement I, which is legally impossible since state governments cannot declare a Major Port. Option C: It omits statement IV, which correctly describes the development model of Vodarevu Port. Option D: It omits statement II, which correctly describes the Swiss Challenge Approach adopted for Kakinada SEZ Port.

149. Q149ANDHRA PRADESH ONLY: the coast and what bifurcation left it

     The construction of which major infrastructure project in the 19th century helped facilitate transportation and trade in Andhra Pradesh, particularly for agricultural products?

     • aVisakhapatnam PortAnswer
     • bKakinada Port
     • cMachilipatnam Port
     • dNizampatnam Port

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

150. Q150ANDHRA PRADESH ONLY: the coast and what bifurcation left it

     Areawise, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh is the smallest ?

     • aParvathipuram ManyamAnswer
     • bPalnadu
     • cAnnamayya
     • dKurnool
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because among the listed options, Parvathipuram Manyam covers the smallest geographical area at approximately 3,656 square kilometres. Parvathipuram Manyam area: 3,656 sq km Palnadu area: 7,298 sq km Annamayya area: 7,951 sq km Kurnool area: 7,980 sq km Option B: Palnadu has an area of roughly 7,298 square kilometres, nearly double that of Parvathipuram Manyam. Option C: Annamayya spans approximately 7,951 square kilometres, making it substantially larger. Option D: Kurnool covers around 7,980 square kilometres, which is far larger in size.

151. Q151Ecology and ecosystems

     The greatest variety (diversity) of animal and plant species can be found in

     • aTropical Moist ForestsAnswer
     • bTemperate Deciduous Forests
     • cTaiga Region
     • dDeserts and Savannas
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because tropical moist forests receive high solar radiation and heavy rainfall year-round, supporting optimal conditions for the highest species richness and biodiversity on Earth. Option B: Temperate deciduous forests have harsh winter seasons and lower solar insolation, limiting species richness. Option C: Taiga regions experience extreme cold and short growing seasons, leading to low diversity dominated by conifers. Option D: Deserts and savannas suffer from severe moisture stress, severely restricting the variety of species compared to tropical moist forests.

152. Q152Ecology and ecosystems

     Consider the following statements about International Nitrogen Initiative (INI) : I. It is set up under sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). II. Its key objective is to optimize nitrogen's beneficial role in sustainable food production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bII onlyAnswer
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor II
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the International Nitrogen Initiative was established under the joint sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and the International Geosphere-Biosphere Programme (IGBP), not UNEP, while optimizing nitrogen for sustainable food production is indeed a core objective. Option A: It incorrectly identifies statement I as true, ignoring that IGBP, not UNEP, co-sponsored INI alongside SCOPE. Option C: It assumes statement I is correct, which is historically inaccurate regarding the founding partner organization. Option D: It incorrectly rejects statement II, which accurately articulates one of INI's main stated goals.

153. Q153Wildlife and forest conservation

     Match the following Tiger Reserves with their States (location): Tiger Reserves States a. Periyar I. Chhattisgarh b. Sariska II. Rajasthan c. Buxa III. West Bengal d. Indravati IV. Kerala Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: a b c d 1. I II III IV 2. IV II I III 3. IV II III I 4. IV III II I

     • aa-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
     • ba-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
     • ca-IV, b-II, c-III, d-IAnswer
     • da-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because it correctly matches each tiger reserve with its corresponding Indian state. Periyar Tiger Reserve is located in Kerala Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in Rajasthan Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in West Bengal Indravati Tiger Reserve is located in Chhattisgarh Option A: Misidentifies Periyar with Chhattisgarh and Indravati with Kerala. Option B: Misidentifies Sariska with West Bengal and Buxa with Chhattisgarh. Option D: Misidentifies Sariska with West Bengal and Buxa with Rajasthan.

154. Q154Wildlife and forest conservation

     Consider the following statements : I. Dark Reserve is a public or private land with a distinguished nocturnal environment and starry nights that has been developed responsibly to prevent light pollution. II. World's 1st International Dark Sky Reserve is Mont-Megantic, located in Russia. III. The International Dark-Sky Association (IDSA) is a EU-based non-profit organisation that designates sites as international dark sky places. IV. The Department of Science & Technology (DST) has announced the setting up of India's 1st Dark-Sky Reserve in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI, II and III only
     • bI, III and IV only
     • cII, III and IV only
     • dNone of the aboveAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because statements II, III, and IV are all factually incorrect, meaning none of the given combinations of correct statements is valid. Mont-Megantic is located in Canada, not Russia International Dark-Sky Association is based in the United States, not the European Union Indias first Dark-Sky Reserve is set up at Hanle in Ladakh, not Himachal Pradesh Option A: Incorrectly assumes statements II and III are factual. Option B: Incorrectly assumes statements III and IV are factual. Option C: Incorrectly assumes statements II, III, and IV are factual.

155. Q155Wildlife and forest conservation

     Consider the following statements with respect to the “Satkosia Tiger Reserve” : I. It is a Tiger Reserve located in Odisha. II. It comprises two adjoining Sanctuaries of Central Odisha, named the Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and the Debrigarh Sanctuary. III. It is located in the Eastern Ghats where Mahanadi river flows through a deep gorge. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI and II only
     • bII and III only
     • cI and III onlyAnswer
     • dI, II and III
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Satkosia Tiger Reserve is situated in Odisha along the Mahanadi gorge in the Eastern Ghats, comprising Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary, not Debrigarh Sanctuary. Statement I: True, Satkosia was notified as a Tiger Reserve in Odisha in 2007. Statement II: False, it comprises Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Wildlife Sanctuary. Statement III: True, the reserve spans the Eastern Ghats where the Mahanadi cuts a fourteen-mile gorge. Option A: It incorrectly accepts statement II, which erroneously substitutes Baisipalli Sanctuary with Debrigarh Sanctuary. Option B: It incorrectly rejects statement I while accepting the erroneous statement II. Option D: It includes statement II, which contains the incorrect adjoining sanctuary name.

156. Q156Wildlife and forest conservation

     “Cheetahs have been reintroduced in India.” Which of the following connected to the above statement are correct ? I. Cheetahs will help in the restoration of open forest and grassland system. II. Project Cheetah is the world's first inter-continental large wild carnivore translocation project. III. Out of 8 Namibian wild Cheetahs reintroduced into Kuno National Park, 5 are male and 3 are female. IV. The Cheetahs indigenous to India that went extinct, are African Cheetahs. V. Author of “The End of a Trail – The Cheetah in India” is Divyabhanusinh.

     • aI, III and IV
     • bI, II and IV
     • cI, II and VAnswer
     • dI, II, IV and V
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because statements I, II, and V are true, whereas statement III misstates the sex ratio of the imported cheetahs and statement IV misidentifies the subspecies that went extinct in India. Namibian cheetah cohort: 3 males and 5 females Extinct indigenous subspecies: Asiatic cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus) Author of The End of a Trail: Divyabhanusinh Option A: Includes statement III, which reverses the count of males and females, and statement IV, which confuses Asiatic cheetahs with African cheetahs. Option B: Includes statement IV, incorrectly claiming that the cheetah indigenous to India was the African subspecies. Option D: Includes statement IV, falsely identifying the extinct Indian native cheetah as an African cheetah.

157. Q157Wildlife and forest conservation

     Consider the following statements with reference to the “Crimson Rose Butterfly” : I. It is categorised as ‘Endangered’ as per the IUCN Red List. II. It is most common in the Himalayan regions, like Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor IIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because neither statement is correct; the Crimson Rose butterfly is assessed as Least Concern by the IUCN and is native to peninsular India and Sri Lanka rather than the Himalayas. Option A: Statement I is incorrect because the Crimson Rose is categorized as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List. Option B: Statement II is incorrect because the butterfly is predominantly found in southern peninsular India and Sri Lanka, not high-altitude Himalayan regions. Option C: Both statements contain factual errors regarding the butterfly's conservation status and geographic distribution.

158. Q158Wildlife and forest conservation

     According to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, which of the following is the most appropriate sequence which shows the degree of protection between different forest types ?

     • aReserved Forest > Protected Forest > Village ForestAnswer
     • bProtected Forest > Reserved Forest > Village Forest
     • cReserved Forest > Village Forest > Protected Forest
     • dVillage Forest > Protected Forest > Reserved Forest
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Indian Forest Act, 1927 confers the highest level of legal protection to Reserved Forests, followed by Protected Forests, and then Village Forests. Reserved Forests: All activities are prohibited unless explicitly permitted. Protected Forests: Activities are permitted unless explicitly prohibited. Village Forests: State governments assign rights to village communities, giving them the lowest degree of state protection among the three. Option B: It places Protected Forests above Reserved Forests, which is incorrect since Reserved Forests enjoy stricter statutory safeguards. Option C: It places Village Forests above Protected Forests, whereas Protected Forests possess higher state control and conservation restrictions. Option D: It reverses the correct sequence of regulatory control entirely.

159. Q159Climate change: policy and response

     Consider the following statements with reference to Conference of Parties (COP27) : I. COP27 was held in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt. II. COP27 reiterated the goal set by the Paris Agreement at COP21 which was to keep global warming from rising more than 1.5 degrees Celsius from the 2000s. III. The previous Conference of Parties (COP26) was held in Glasgow, Scotland. IV. COP27 reached agreement to provide “loss and damage” funding for vulnerable countries hit hard by climate disasters. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

     • aI, II and III only
     • bI, III and IV onlyAnswer
     • cII, III and IV only
     • dNone of the above
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because statements I, III, and IV accurately describe the location of COP27, the venue of COP26, and the landmark decision to establish a Loss and Damage Fund, whereas statement II incorrectly defines the baseline. COP26 venue: Glasgow, Scotland (2021) COP27 venue: Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt (2022) Paris Agreement baseline: pre-industrial levels, not the 2000s Option A: Erroneously incorporates statement II, which provides an incorrect historical temperature baseline. Option C: Retains the flawed statement II while omitting the historically accurate statement I. Option D: Rejects valid statements despite I, III, and IV being entirely factual.

160. Q160Climate change: policy and response

     Consider the following statements regarding the Nationally Determined Contributions Transport Initiative for Asia (NDCTIA): I. It is an ASEAN initiative that aims to facilitate a paradigm shift to zero emission transport across Asia. II. The Indian component of the initiative is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in partnership with the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Which of the statements given given above is/are correct?

     • aI only
     • bII only
     • cBoth I and II
     • dNeither I nor IIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because both statements are factually incorrect regarding the Nationally Determined Contributions Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA). NDC-TIA is funded by the International Climate Initiative of Germany, not ASEAN. Participating countries are India, China, and Vietnam. The Indian component is led and implemented by NITI Aayog along with a consortium of partner organizations. Option A: It falsely accepts statement I, which incorrectly attributes the initiative to ASEAN instead of the German Federal Ministry for the Environment (BMU). Option B: It falsely accepts statement II, which names the wrong implementing bodies instead of NITI Aayog. Option C: It erroneously considers both incorrect statements to be correct.