TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2022

247 questions from the 2022 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

41. Q41Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Which of the following books is not written by Jilani Bano?

    • aNagma Ka Safar
    • bAivan-e-Ghazal
    • cPinjarAnswer
    • dPattharon Ki Barish
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Pinjar is a famous partition novel written in Punjabi by Amrita Pritam, not by the Urdu writer Jeelani Bano. Option A: Nagma Ka Safar is an authentic work written by Jeelani Bano. Option B: Aiwan-e-Ghazal is a celebrated Urdu novel authored by Jeelani Bano depicting feudal Hyderabad. Option D: Pattharon Ki Barish is a well-known short story collection written by Jeelani Bano.

42. Q42Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Regarding Sammakka-Saralamma Jatara, which of the following are correct? A. Sammakka-Saralamma Jatara starts in Medaram. B. It commemorates the struggle of Sammakka Saralakka, two sisters. C. Jampanna is Sammakka's brother. D. The actual festival begins on Shuddha Pournami in Magha month. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB & C only
    • bA, B & C only
    • cB, C & D only
    • dA & D onlyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements A and D accurately describe the location and the traditional lunar timing of the Sammakka-Saralamma Jatara. Statement A is factually correct because Medaram in Mulugu district is the venue of the Jatara. Statement B is factually incorrect because Sammakka and Saralamma are mother and daughter, not sisters. Statement C is factually incorrect because Jampanna is the son of Sammakka, not her brother. Statement D is factually correct because the biennial festival commences on Magha Shuddha Pournami. Option A: Includes B and C, both of which misstate the family relationships of the deities. Option B: Includes B and C, both of which misstate the family relationships of the deities. Option C: Includes B and C, both of which misstate the family relationships of the deities.

43. Q43Telangana: the Nizam's state, the armed struggle and statehood

    Match the following films with their directors: Film Director A. Dorasani 1. Nimmala Shankar B. Matti Manushulu 2. K.V.R. Mahendra C. Jai Bolo Telangana 3. Raj Rachakonda D. Mallesham 4. B. Narsing Rao 5. Shyam Benegal Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
    • bA-5; B-3; C-4; D-1
    • cA-4; B-5; C-1; D-2
    • dA-2; B-4; C-1; D-3Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because it correctly matches each film with its respective director: Dorasani was directed by K.V.R. Mahendra, Matti Manushulu by B. Narsing Rao, Jai Bolo Telangana by Nimmala Shankar, and Mallesham by Raj Rachakonda. Dorasani was directed by K.V.R. Mahendra. Matti Manushulu was directed by B. Narsing Rao. Jai Bolo Telangana was directed by Nimmala Shankar. Mallesham was directed by Raj Rachakonda. Option A: Incorrectly pairs Dorasani with Raj Rachakonda and Jai Bolo Telangana with K.V.R. Mahendra. Option B: Incorrectly pairs Dorasani with Shyam Benegal, who was not among the matched directors. Option C: Incorrectly pairs Dorasani with B. Narsing Rao and Mallesham with K.V.R. Mahendra.

44. Q44Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Match the following authors with their literary texts: Author Literary Text A. Vallabhacharya 1. Prataparudra-charitamu B. Ekamranatha 2. Simhasana Dwatrimsika C. Kase Sarvappa 3. Ganapathi-devacharitamu D. Koravi Goparaju 4. Kreedabhi-ramamu 5. Siddheswara-charitramu Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-4; B-1; C-5; D-2.Answer
    • bA-5; B-3; C-4; D-1
    • cA-2; B-4; C-1; D-5
    • dA-3; B-5; C-1; D-3
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because matching the respective authors to their works gives Vallabhacharya with Kreedabhiramamu (attributed to Vinukonda Vallabharaya/Vallabhacharya), Ekamranatha with Prataparudra-charitamu, Kase Sarvappa with Siddheswara-charitramu, and Koravi Goparaju with Simhasana Dwatrimsika. Vallabhacharya composed Kreedabhiramamu (A-4) Ekamranatha composed Prataparudra-charitamu (B-1) Kase Sarvappa composed Siddheswara-charitramu (C-5) Koravi Goparaju composed Simhasana Dwatrimsika (D-2) Option B: Incorrectly pairs Vallabhacharya with Siddheswara-charitramu and Ekamranatha with Ganapathi-devacharitamu. Option C: Incorrectly pairs Vallabhacharya with Simhasana Dwatrimsika and Ekamranatha with Kreedabhiramamu. Option D: Incorrectly pairs Vallabhacharya with Ganapathi-devacharitamu and Ekamranatha with Siddheswara-charitramu.

45. Q45Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Match the following books and authors: Book Author A. Tokkudu banda 1.Annavaram Devendar B. Mankamma Thota 2. Gogu Shyamala Labour Adda C. Jeevitam Oka 3. T.Krishna Murthy Udyamam Yadav D. Enuganta 4. S.V.Satya- narayana Tandrikanna Yekulabuttanta Talli Nayam 5. Joopaka Subhadra Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-5; B-1; C-2; D-3
    • bA-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
    • cA-4; B-2; C-1; D-5Answer
    • dA-3; B-1; C-4; D-2

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

46. Q46Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Match the following authors with their literary works: Author - Literary Work A. Vallabhacharya 1. Prataparudra Charitamu B. Vikramanathudu 2. Simhasana Dvatrimsika C. Kase Sarvappa 3. Ganapatideva Charitamu D. Koravi Goparaju 4. Kreedabhiramamu 5. Siddheshwara Charitramu Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-4; B-1; C-5, D-2Answer
    • bA-5; B-3; C-4, D-1
    • cA-2; B-4; C-1, D-5
    • dA-3; B-5; C-1, D-3
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because each author correctly matches their respective historical and literary text. Vinukonda Vallabharaya: Kreedabhiramamu Ekamranatha: Prataparudra Charitamu Kase Sarvappa: Siddheshwara Charitramu Koravi Goparaju: Simhasana Dvatrimsika Option B: It erroneously pairs Vallabhacharya with Siddheshwara Charitramu instead of Kreedabhiramamu. Option C: It incorrectly attributes Simhasana Dvatrimsika to Vallabhacharya and Siddheshwara Charitramu to Koravi Goparaju. Option D: It wrongly links Vallabhacharya with Ganapatideva Charitamu and repeats the index for the final match.

47. Q47Telugu language and literature, from the Kavitrayam to the moderns

    Match the following books with their authors: Book - Author A. Tokkadu Banda 1. Annavaram Devender B. Manjeeralota Leather 2. Gogu Shyamala C. Jeevitam Oka Udyamam 3. T. Krishnamurthy Yadav D. Enuganta Tandri Kanna Yekulabuttanta Talli Nayam 4. S.V. Satyanarayana 5. Jupaka Subhadra Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-5; B-1; C-2, D-1
    • bA-1; B-2; C-3, D-4
    • cA-4; B-2; C-1, D-5
    • dA-3; B-1; C-4, D-2Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because it correctly matches each Telugu literary work with its respective modern author. Tokkadu Banda: T. Krishnamurthy Yadav Manjeeralota Leather: Annavaram Devender Jeevitam Oka Udyamam: S.V. Satyanarayana Enuganta Tandri Kanna Yekulabuttanta Talli Nayam: Gogu Shyamala Option A: it incorrectly pairs Tokkadu Banda with Jupaka Subhadra and Manjeeralota Leather with Annavaram Devender but misassigns the rest. Option B: it wrongly attributes Tokkadu Banda to Annavaram Devender. Option C: it wrongly attributes Tokkadu Banda to S.V. Satyanarayana.

48. Q48Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Consider the following statements regarding the Cripps Mission proposals. A. The Constituent Assembly also included members nominated by provincial assemblies and princely states. B. Any princely state or province unwilling to accept the new Constitution had the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future. Which of the above are correct?

    • aA only
    • bB onlyAnswer
    • cA, B
    • dNone
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Cripps Mission of 1942 included a non-accession clause permitting any province or princely state unwilling to join the new Union of India to draft a separate constitution through direct agreement with the British Crown. Option A: Statement A is incorrect because provincial representatives were to be elected by lower house members, not nominated. Option C: Statement A contains an inaccurate description of how provincial members were to be chosen. Option D: Statement B correctly reflects the proposal that led to objections from the Indian National Congress.

49. Q49Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Who among the following were members of the Constituent Assembly? A. Annie Mascarene B. Dakshayani Velayudhan C. Ammu Swaminathan D. Sucheta Pandit Choose the correct answer.

    • aC & D only
    • bA, B & C onlyAnswer
    • cB, C & D only
    • dA, C & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Annie Mascarene, Dakshayani Velayudhan, and Ammu Swaminathan were among the 15 women members of the Constituent Assembly, while Sucheta Pandit is an incorrect name conflating Sucheta Kripalani and Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit. Option A: It omits Annie Mascarene and Dakshayani Velayudhan and includes Sucheta Pandit, who was not a member. Option C: It includes Sucheta Pandit, who was never a member of the Constituent Assembly. Option D: It omits Dakshayani Velayudhan and includes the non-existent Sucheta Pandit.

50. Q50Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Who among the following were members of the Constituent Assembly of India ? A. Annie Mascarene B. Dakshayani Velayudhan C. Ammu Swaminathan D. Sucharita Pandit ve Choose the correct answer:

    • aC & D only
    • bA, B & C onlyAnswer
    • cB, C & D only
    • dA, C & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because Annie Mascarene, Dakshayani Velayudhan, and Ammu Swaminathan were members of the Constituent Assembly, whereas Sucharita Pandit was not. Annie Mascarene represented Travancore and Cochin Union Dakshayani Velayudhan represented Madras and was the only Dalit woman member Ammu Swaminathan represented Madras Option A: It excludes Annie Mascarene and Dakshayani Velayudhan, while incorrectly including Sucharita Pandit. Option C: It incorrectly includes Sucharita Pandit instead of Annie Mascarene. Option D: It incorrectly includes Sucharita Pandit and excludes Dakshayani Velayudhan.

51. Q51Constitutional development and the making of the Constitution

    Using the powers enshrined in Articles 2 and 3 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament can do which of the following? A. Admit new territories as new state of India. B. Split or merge existing Indian states. C. Transfer and exchange of territories to neighbouring countries. D. Alter the names and boundaries of existing Indian States. Choose the correct option :

    • aA, B, C & D
    • bA, B & C only
    • cA, B & D onlyAnswer
    • dA, C & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Supreme Court held in the Berubari Union Case (1960) that Parliament cannot cede Indian territory to a foreign country under Article 3; such a transfer requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368. Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit or establish new states Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states by separation or union, and alter state boundaries or names Cession of Indian territory requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368 Option A: It erroneously includes statement C, which cannot be carried out under ordinary legislative power under Articles 2 and 3. Option B: It includes statement C and leaves out statement D. Option D: It incorrectly includes statement C and omits statement B.

52. Q52The Union executive

    Consider the following statements regarding the responsibilities of the Council of Ministers: A. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. B. The Council of Ministers meets at least once a month. C. The entire Council of Ministers must resign immediately upon losing confidence in the Lok Sabha. D. Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, C & D onlyAnswer
    • bA, B & C only
    • cB, C & D only
    • dA, B & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements A, C, and D accurately reflect constitutional principles and conventions, whereas statement B has no constitutional or statutory basis. Article 75(3): Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha Article 75(2): Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President Convention: loss of confidence in the Lok Sabha necessitates the immediate resignation of the entire Ministry Option B: It erroneously includes statement B, as there is no constitutional rule requiring the Council of Ministers to meet at least once a month. Option C: It erroneously includes statement B and omits statement A, which is explicitly laid down in Article 75(3). Option D: It erroneously includes statement B while omitting statement C, which defines collective responsibility.

53. Q53The Union executive

    Consider the following statements relevant to the Principles of Ministerial Responsibility : A. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. B. The Council of Ministers shall meet at least once in a month. C. Ministry as a body shall resign as soon as it loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha. D. The Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. Choose the correct answer :

    • aA, C & D onlyAnswer
    • bA, B & C only
    • cB, C & D only
    • dA, B & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because statements A, C, and D accurately state the constitutional principles of collective and individual ministerial responsibility, whereas the Constitution mentions no mandatory monthly meeting frequency for the Council of Ministers. Article 75(3): Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Article 75(2): Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. Loss of Lok Sabha confidence requires the entire ministry to resign. Option B: Statement B is incorrect because there is no constitutional rule stipulating that the Council of Ministers must meet at least once a month. Option C: It includes statement B, which is not a constitutional requirement, and omits statement A. Option D: It incorrectly includes statement B while omitting statement C.

54. Q54Parliament and the state legislatures

    Which of the following Lok Sabhas were able to continue for their maximum term of five years? A. Tenth B. Eleventh C. Twelfth D. Thirteenth Choose the correct answer:

    • aA & D onlyAnswer
    • bA & B only
    • cB & C only
    • dC & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because both the Tenth and Thirteenth Lok Sabhas successfully completed their full five-year terms. Tenth Lok Sabha: 1991 to 1996 Eleventh Lok Sabha: 1996 to 1997 Twelfth Lok Sabha: 1998 to 1999 Thirteenth Lok Sabha: 1999 to 2004 Option B: Includes the Eleventh Lok Sabha, which was dissolved prematurely in 1997 after about eighteen months. Option C: Includes both the Eleventh and Twelfth Lok Sabhas, neither of which completed its five-year tenure. Option D: Includes the Twelfth Lok Sabha, which collapsed in 1999 after approximately thirteen months.

55. Q55Parliament and the state legislatures

    Which of the following Lok Sabhas were NOT completed their five-year term of existence ? A. Tenth B. Eleventh C. Twelfth D. Thirteenth Choose the correct answer :

    • aA & D only
    • bA & B only
    • cB & C onlyAnswer
    • dC & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because both the Eleventh Lok Sabha and the Twelfth Lok Sabha were dissolved prematurely and did not complete their full five-year terms. Tenth Lok Sabha: 1991 to 1996 (completed full term of 5 years) Eleventh Lok Sabha: 1996 to 1997 (dissolved after about 1.5 years) Twelfth Lok Sabha: 1998 to 1999 (dissolved after about 13 months) Thirteenth Lok Sabha: 1999 to 2004 (completed full term of nearly 5 years) Option A: Both Tenth and Thirteenth Lok Sabhas completed their five-year terms. Option B: Tenth Lok Sabha completed its full five-year term. Option D: Thirteenth Lok Sabha completed its full term.

56. Q56Parliament and the state legislatures

    The Union Budget for Financial Year 2022-23 aims to strengthen the infrastructure with its focus on which of the following priorities ? A. Inclusive Development B. PM Gati Shakti C. MGNREGP D. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Choose the correct answer :

    • aA, B, C & D
    • bA, B & C only
    • cC & D only
    • dA & B onlyAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Union Budget 2022-23 outlined four core priorities, which explicitly included PM GatiShakti and Inclusive Development, while MGNREGP and ICT were not listed as distinct standalone priority pillars. Four priorities of Union Budget 2022-23: 1. PM GatiShakti 2. Inclusive Development 3. Productivity Enhancement and Investment, Sunrise Opportunities, Energy Transition, and Climate Action 4. Financing of Investments Option A: MGNREGP and ICT are not among the four specified pillars of the 2022-23 budget. Option B: MGNREGP is a statutory rural employment scheme, not one of the budget's four core priorities. Option C: ICT was not classified as an independent priority pillar in this budget.

57. Q57The state government

    Which of the following is NOT an essential qualification for the appointment of a Governor?

    • aHe/She should not hold any office of profit under the Central, State or local governments.
    • bHe/She should not be a member of the Legislature or Parliament.
    • cHe/She must be a citizen of India and have attained the age of 35 years.
    • dHe/She must be a resident of the state to which he/she is appointed.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because being a resident of the state is not a constitutional qualification; in fact, an established convention encourages appointing an outsider to ensure political neutrality. Article 157: Citizen of India Article 157: Completed the age of 35 years Article 158(1): Must not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a State Legislature Article 158(2): Must not hold any other office of profit Option A: Barring from holding an office of profit is an express condition laid down under Article 158(2). Option B: Prohibiting membership in Parliament or a state legislature is an express condition under Article 158(1). Option C: Indian citizenship and attaining 35 years of age are mandatory qualifications under Article 157.

58. Q58The state government

    Which of the following is NOT an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor ?

    • aHe/She shall not be holding any office of profit under Central, State or Local Government.
    • bHe/She must not be a member of Legislature or Parliament.
    • cHe/She should be a citizen of India and completed 35 years of age.
    • dHe/She should have a domicile of the state to which he/she is being appointed.Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because being a resident or having domicile in the State of appointment is not an essential qualification under the Constitution; by political convention, the appointee is generally an outsider. Option A: Holding an office of profit under any government is a disqualification under the conditions of office. Option B: Prohibiting membership in Parliament or a State Legislature is an established condition under Article 158. Option C: Being an Indian citizen and having completed 35 years of age are explicit constitutional qualifications under Article 157.

59. Q59Federalism and centre-state relations

    Using the powers enshrined in Articles 2 and 3 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following can the Parliament do? A. Incorporating new territories into India as a new state. B. Dividing or merging existing Indian states. C. Exchanging and transferring territories to neighboring countries. D. Changing the names and boundaries of existing Indian states. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, C & D
    • bA, B, & C only
    • cA, B & D onlyAnswer
    • dB, C & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because Parliament can admit or establish new States under Article 2, and alter names, boundaries, or merge existing States under Article 3, but ceding Indian territory requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368. Article 2: Admission or establishment of new States Article 3: Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing States Berubari Union case (1960): Ceding Indian territory to a foreign state cannot be done under Article 3 and requires an Article 368 amendment Option A: Statement C cannot be carried out through simple legislation under Articles 2 and 3. Option B: Excludes statement D, which is expressly permitted under Article 3. Option D: Excludes statement A, which is expressly authorized under Article 2.

60. Q60Federalism and centre-state relations

    Who were the other members of the Justice R.S. Sarkaria Commission constituted on Centre-State relations?

    • aV.K. Duggal, Vijay Shankar, S.R. Madhavan
    • bB. Sivaraman, Dr. S.R. SenAnswer
    • cM.M. Punchhi, V.K. Duggal
    • dDhirendra Singh, S.R. Madhavan
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Sarkaria Commission was a three-member commission headed by Justice R.S. Sarkaria, with B. Sivaraman (former Cabinet Secretary) and Dr. S.R. Sen (former Executive Director of IBRD) serving as its two members. Option A: V.K. Duggal, Vijay Shankar, and N.R. Madhava Menon (not S.R. Madhavan) were members of the Punchhi Commission set up in 2007. Option C: Justice M.M. Punchhi was not a member of the Sarkaria Commission; he chaired his own commission on Centre-State relations in 2007. Option D: Dhirendra Singh was a member of the Punchhi Commission, not the Sarkaria Commission.

61. Q61Federalism and centre-state relations

    Effects of the Proclamation of National Emergency: A. The executive powers of the Central Government are expanded. B. The law-making powers of Parliament are expanded. C. The federal features of the Constitution continue to function. D. Restriction on fundamental freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B & D onlyAnswer
    • bA & B only
    • cA & C only
    • dA, B & C only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because during a National Emergency, the federal structure transforms into a unitary one, expanding central executive and parliamentary legislative powers and restricting fundamental freedoms, meaning federal features do not continue normally. Option B: It ignores statement D, which is an established constitutional effect under Articles 358 and 359. Option C: It incorrectly includes statement C and omits statement B, ignoring Parliament's expanded legislative scope under Article 250. Option D: It incorrectly includes statement C, which falsely claims that normal federal features continue to function.

62. Q62Federalism and centre-state relations

    The effects of the Proclamation of National emergency are: A. Extension of the Executive Powers of the Union Government. B. Extension of the Parliament's law making powers. C. The federal provisions of the Constitution will continue to function. D. Restriction on fundamental freedoms guaranteed in the Constitution. Choose the correct answer :

    • aA, B & D onlyAnswer
    • bA & B only
    • cA & C only
    • dA, B & C only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because during a National Emergency, the Centre's executive and legislative powers extend to State subjects, and fundamental freedoms under Article 19 are restricted, while normal federal autonomy is suspended rather than continued. Statement A: Executive power of the Union extends to directing any state on how its executive power is exercised. Statement B: Parliament gains power to make laws for the entire country or any part on matters in the State List. Statement C: Normal federal distribution of powers is modified, not continued intact. Statement D: Fundamental freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 can be suspended under Article 358. Option B: It omits statement D, which is also a true effect of a National Emergency. Option C: It includes statement C, which incorrectly states that federal provisions continue normally. Option D: It includes statement C, which is false as the federal structure is converted into a unitary one.

63. Q63Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Among the following Prime Ministers, who appointed the Mandal Commission and who implemented its report?

    • aIndira Gandhi, Rajiv Gandhi
    • bChandrashekhar, Deve Gowda
    • cMorarji Desai, Vishwanath Pratap SinghAnswer
    • dIndira Gandhi, Vishwanath Pratap Singh
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Second Backward Classes Commission (Mandal Commission) was appointed in 1979 by the Janata Party government headed by Prime Minister Morarji Desai, and its recommendation for 27 percent reservation for OBCs in central government jobs was implemented in 1990 by Prime Minister Vishwanath Pratap Singh. Appointment of Mandal Commission: 1979 under Prime Minister Morarji Desai Submission of report: December 1980 Implementation of recommendations: August 1990 under Prime Minister V. P. Singh Option A: Indira Gandhi did not appoint the Mandal Commission, nor did Rajiv Gandhi implement its report. Option B: Chandrashekhar and H. D. Deve Gowda were neither the appointing nor the implementing Prime Ministers. Option D: Indira Gandhi did not appoint the Mandal Commission; it was appointed by Morarji Desai.

64. Q64Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Central government anti-corruption measures are the responsibility of: A. Central Vigilance Commission B. Administrative Vigilance Division (AVD) in the Department of Personnel and Training C. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) D. Intelligence Bureau (IB) Choose the correct answer:

    • aC & D only
    • bA, B & C onlyAnswer
    • cA & B only
    • dA, B & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the institutional framework for fighting corruption at the Centre comprises the Central Vigilance Commission, the Administrative Vigilance Division in the DoPT, and the Central Bureau of Investigation. Option A: It excludes the primary vigilance bodies (CVC and AVD) while incorrectly including the IB. Option C: It omits the CBI, which is the chief investigating agency for anti-corruption cases. Option D: It incorrectly includes the Intelligence Bureau, which is primarily an internal intelligence and security agency rather than an anti-corruption body.

65. Q65Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Anti-corruption measures of the Central Government are the responsibility of : A. The Central Vigilance Commission B. Administrative Vigilance Division [AVD] in the Department of Personnel &Training C. Central Bureau of Investigation [CBI] D. Intelligence Bureau [IB] Choose the correct answer :

    • aC & D only
    • bA, B & C onlyAnswer
    • cA & B only
    • dA, B & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Central Vigilance Commission, the Administrative Vigilance Division of the Department of Personnel and Training, and the Central Bureau of Investigation constitute the core anti-corruption machinery of the Central Government. Option A: It excludes the Central Vigilance Commission and the Administrative Vigilance Division, which are key vigilance bodies, and includes the Intelligence Bureau. Option C: It omits the Central Bureau of Investigation, which serves as the primary investigative arm for central anti-corruption cases. Option D: It mistakenly includes the Intelligence Bureau, which is responsible for national intelligence and security rather than vigilance and anti-corruption administration.

66. Q66Constitutional, statutory and regulatory bodies

    Examples of Voluntary Standards (Indian Standards) adopted based on International Codex Alimentarius with suitable modifications.

    • aStandards Weights & Measures Act
    • bBureau of Indian Standards & AGMARKAnswer
    • cFruit Product Order
    • dMilk & Milk Product Order
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Bureau of Indian Standards and AGMARK formulate voluntary grading and quality standards for agricultural and food products harmonised with the international Codex Alimentarius. Option A: Standards of Weights and Measures Act enforced mandatory metrological standards rather than voluntary food standards. Option C: Fruit Products Order, 1955 was a mandatory regulatory order promulgated under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Option D: Milk and Milk Product Order, 1992 was a mandatory regulatory order promulgated under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.

67. Q67Parties, elections and representation

    According to the Election and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003: A. A 50% tax exemption to individuals and corporates on all contributions to political parties. B. Disclosure of party finances and contributions over RS.20,000. C. Equitable sharing of time by the recognized political parties on the cable television network and other electronic media (public and private). D. Expenditure by third parties and political parties comes under ceiling limits, and only travel expenditure of leaders of parties is exempted. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, C & D
    • bA, B & C only
    • cB, C & D onlyAnswer
    • dA, C & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Election and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003 provides a 100 percent tax deduction under Sections 80GGB and 80GGC of the Income Tax Act, making statement A incorrect while statements B, C, and D accurately reflect the provisions. Option A: includes statement A, which wrongly states a 50 percent tax exemption instead of a full 100 percent deduction. Option B: includes incorrect statement A and excludes statement D regarding expenditure limits. Option D: includes incorrect statement A while omitting the reporting requirement in statement B.

68. Q68Parties, elections and representation

    According to the Election and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003: A. 50% tax exemption on financial assistance given by individuals and corporates to political parties. B. Disclosure of financial assistance of Rs. 20,000 and above to parties, and related details. C. Recognized political parties sharing equally the campaign time on cable television networks and other electronic media (print, private). D. Expenditure incurred by political parties and others, excluding travel expenses of party leaders, comes under the election expenditure ceiling limit. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, C & D
    • bA, B & C only
    • cB, C & D onlyAnswer
    • dA, C & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Election and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003 established requirements B, C, and D, while allowing a 100 percent tax deduction rather than a 50 percent exemption for political donations. Section 80GGB and Section 80GGC provide 100 percent tax deduction for political contributions. Section 29C requires political parties to declare donations above twenty thousand rupees. Option A: Statement A is incorrect because the tax exemption on contributions to registered political parties is 100 percent. Option B: It incorrectly includes statement A with its flawed 50 percent figure and omits statement D. Option D: It includes the incorrect tax exemption rate mentioned in statement A.

69. Q69Public policy and governance

    What is the reconfigured pedagogical structure of school education system in the New Education Policy - 2020? A. Replacement of present 10+2 system with 5+3+3+4 system. B. Replacement of present 10+2 system with 4+4+3+4 system. C. The system consists of foundational, preparatory, middle and high school stages. D. The high school stage is subdivided into two: 9 & 10 in the first and 11 & 12 in the second. E. There is an option of exiting at Class 10 and re-entering in the next phase. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB, C, D & E only
    • bA, C & D only
    • cB, C & D only
    • dA, C, D & E onlyAnswer

    Explanation coming soon.

70. Q70Public policy and governance

    Which of the following aspects are considered as the social accountability initiatives? A. Centralised bureaucratic planning and policy formulation. B. Citizen's Charters. C. Community score cards. D. Participatory expenditure tracking. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, C & D
    • bA, B & C only
    • cB, C & D onlyAnswer
    • dA, B & D only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because social accountability relies on citizen-led and participatory mechanisms such as Citizen's Charters, community score cards, and participatory public expenditure tracking. Option A: Incorrectly includes centralised bureaucratic planning (A), which is a top-down administrative approach rather than a citizen-driven social accountability mechanism. Option B: Omits participatory expenditure tracking (D) while incorrectly including centralised planning (A). Option D: Includes top-down bureaucratic planning (A) and excludes community score cards (C), a classic social accountability tool.

71. Q71Public policy and governance

    The goal of good governance is to reduce the gap between people and power. A key aspect in this direction is government responsiveness. Which of the following strengthen responsiveness? A. Developing and adhering to a Citizens' Charter. B. Resolving public grievances. C. Reviewing laws, rules, and policies. D. Competitiveness in politics and electoral processes. E. Transparency and Right to Information. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, C, D & E only
    • bA, B & C only
    • cA, B, C & E onlyAnswer
    • dA, B, D & E only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because administrative responsiveness directly relies on mechanisms that connect citizens to the public administration, namely Citizens' Charters, grievance redressal systems, policy reviews, and transparency via RTI. Option A: Excludes public grievance redressal (B), which is a cornerstone of responsive governance. Option B: Omits transparency and RTI (E), which are fundamental tools for enforcing administrative responsiveness. Option D: Includes competitiveness in electoral processes (D), which pertains to political competition rather than direct administrative responsiveness of governance machinery.

72. Q72Public policy and governance

    Which of the following are considered ways to prevent abuse of power and resolve its problems? A. Subjecting power to restrictions and threats. B. Strict measures to implement power transparently. C. Strengthening power for the effectiveness of actions. D. Allowing media into policy formulation and decision-making meetings. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB, C & D onlyAnswer
    • bA & B only
    • cC & D only
    • dA, B & C only

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

73. Q73Public policy and governance

    Good governance aims to bridge the gap between power and people. An important aspect in this direction is the responsiveness of the government. Which of the following strengthens responsiveness ? A. Evolving and abiding by a Citizens' Charter B. Redressal of Public Grievances C. Review of Laws, Regulations and Procedures D. Competitiveness in politics and electoral process E. Transparency and Right to Information Choose the correct answer 1. A, B & C only 2. A, B, C & E only 3. A, B, D & E only 4. A, C, D & E only

    • aA, C, D & E only
    • bA, B & C only
    • cA, B, C & E onlyAnswer
    • dA, B, D & E only
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because administrative responsiveness requires clear service delivery standards through Citizens' Charters, swift grievance redressal, streamlining cumbersome laws and procedures, and ensuring open information access via RTI, whereas electoral competition is a systemic political attribute. Option A: It omits Public Grievances redressal, which is the most direct mechanism for an administration to respond to public concerns. Option B: It omits Transparency and Right to Information, which are essential prerequisites for making public authorities answerable. Option D: It excludes the procedural review of outdated laws while including electoral competitiveness.

74. Q74Central laws outside the Constitution: PMLA, UAPA, NSA and AFSPA

    Consider the following statements. A. The Contempt of Court Act, 1971 was introduced based on the H.S. Sanyal Committee report. B. The Indian Constitution has empowered the Supreme Court and High Courts to punish themselves for contempt of court offenses. C. The Indian Constitution has separately defined 'Civil Contempt' and 'Criminal Contempt'. D. In our country, the power to make laws regarding contempt of court has been given to the Parliament. Which of the above are correct?

    • aA, B
    • bA, B, DAnswer
    • cC, D
    • dD only
    ›Explanation

    Option B is correct because statements A, B, and D are factually accurate, whereas statement C is incorrect. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: recommended by the H.N. Sanyal Committee (1963) Supreme Court and High Courts contempt powers: Article 129 and Article 215 of the Constitution Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt: defined in Section 2 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, not in the Constitution Parliamentary legislative power on contempt: Entry 77 of the Union List and Entry 14 of the Concurrent List Option A: excludes statement D, which is correct regarding Parliament's legislative competence over contempt. Option C: includes statement C, which falsely claims that the Constitution defines civil and criminal contempt. Option D: excludes valid statements A and B.

75. Q75Rights issues and social justice

    Which of the following was caring for the wounded soldiers on the battlefield, and was later amended to cover warfare at sea and prisoners of war?

    • aLondon Protocols
    • bRome Protocols
    • cNuremburg Conventions
    • dGeneva ConventionsAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the First Geneva Convention of 1864 was originally created for the amelioration of the condition of the wounded in armies in the field, and subsequent conventions expanded protections to maritime warfare and prisoners of war. Option A: The London Protocols were 19th-century diplomatic agreements on territorial boundaries, notably regarding Greece. Option B: The Rome Protocols refers to treaties in 1934 between Austria, Hungary, and Italy, not humanitarian battlefield protections. Option C: The Nuremberg Charter and trials prosecuted war criminals after World War II rather than establishing rules for caring for the wounded and POWs.

76. Q76Rights issues and social justice

    Women won a greater number of seats in the following state legislative assemblies when compared to other states (as on 31st December, 2021). Arrange them in descending order based on the number of seats women occupy in the respective assemblies: A. West Bengal B. Bihar C. Jharkhand D. Chhattisgarh E. Rajasthan Choose the correct answer:

    • aD, A, C, E, B
    • bC, A, D, B, EAnswer
    • cB, D, A, E, C
    • dA, C, B, D, E

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

77. Q77Rights issues and social justice

    The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 defines a transgender person as: A. Trans-men and Trans-women B. Trans-women only C. Persons with intersex variations D. Genderqueers E. Persons with socio-cultural identities, such as Kinnar and Hijra Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, C, D & E onlyAnswer
    • bA, C & E only
    • cB, C, D & E only
    • dA, D & E only
    ›Explanation

    Option A is correct because Section 2(k) of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 defines a transgender person to include trans-men, trans-women, persons with intersex variations, genderqueers, and individuals with socio-cultural identities such as Kinnar and Hijra. Option B: A, C & E only is incorrect because it omits genderqueers, who are explicitly included in Section 2(k) of the Act. Option C: B, C, D & E only is incorrect because the definition includes trans-men alongside trans-women rather than trans-women only. Option D: A, D & E only is incorrect because it omits persons with intersex variations, which is an integral component of the statutory definition.

78. Q78India's foreign policy and international relations

    Match the following UN Secretary Generals (present/past) with their respective countries: Secretary General Country A. Javier Perez de 1. Egypt Cuellar B. Boutros-Boutros 2. Portugal Ghali C. Kofi Annan 3. South Korea D. Ban Ki-Moon 4. Peru E. Antonio Guterres 5. Ghana 6. France

    • aA-2; B-4; C-1; D-3; E-6
    • bA-6; B-5; C-4; D-1; E-2
    • cA-4; B-1; C-5; D-3; E-2Answer
    • dA-2; B-1; C-3; D-5; E-4
    ›Explanation

    Option C is correct because it correctly matches every Secretary-General with their country of origin. Javier Perez de Cuellar: Peru Boutros-Boutros Ghali: Egypt Kofi Annan: Ghana Ban Ki-Moon: South Korea Antonio Guterres: Portugal Option A: is wrong because it wrongly attributes Portugal to Cuellar, Peru to Boutros-Ghali, and France to Guterres. Option B: is wrong because it assigns France to Cuellar, Ghana to Boutros-Ghali, and Peru to Annan. Option D: is wrong because it incorrectly links Cuellar to Portugal, Annan to South Korea, and Guterres to Peru.

79. Q79India's foreign policy and international relations

    Match the following UN Conventions with their respective subjects: Convention Subject A. Convention on the 1. Law of theSeas Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide. B. Convention on the 2. Disarmament Reduction of Statelessness. C. Convention on the 3. Human Rights Continental Shelf. D. Convention on Cluster Munitions. 4. Health & Environment 5. Refugees Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-3; B-2; C-5; D-4
    • bA-5; B-3; C-4; D-2
    • cA-4; B-2; C-5; D-1
    • dA-3; B-5; C-1; D-2Answer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because the Genocide Convention falls under human rights, the Reduction of Statelessness falls under refugee and nationality protections, the Continental Shelf Convention is part of the law of the sea, and the Cluster Munitions convention belongs to disarmament. Genocide Convention: Human Rights Reduction of Statelessness: Refugees Continental Shelf Convention: Law of the Seas Convention on Cluster Munitions: Disarmament Option A: Incorrectly pairs the Continental Shelf Convention with refugees and Cluster Munitions with health and environment. Option B: Incorrectly pairs the Genocide Convention with refugees and the Statelessness Convention with human rights. Option C: Incorrectly pairs the Genocide Convention with health and environment and the Continental Shelf Convention with refugees.

80. Q80India's foreign policy and international relations

    Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. A. A coastal state has the right to determine the width of the sea in its coastal area not exceeding 12 nautical miles. According to the above agreement, this measurement must be calculated from the baseline. B. Ships of all countries (coastal states and landlocked states alike) have the right to free passage through maritime boundary areas. C. The exclusive economic zones of the respective countries cannot extend beyond 200 nautical miles from their baseline. Which of the above are correct?

    • aA, B
    • bB, C
    • cA, C
    • dA, B, CAnswer
    ›Explanation

    Option D is correct because under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, the territorial sea limit extends up to 12 nautical miles, ships of all states possess the right of innocent passage, and the exclusive economic zone extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline. Article 3: Territorial sea breadth limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles from baselines Article 17: Right of innocent passage through territorial waters for coastal and landlocked states Article 57: Exclusive economic zone breadth not exceeding 200 nautical miles from baselines Option A: It is incorrect because statement C is also correct regarding the 200 nautical mile exclusive economic zone limit. Option B: It is incorrect because statement A is also correct regarding the 12 nautical mile territorial sea limit. Option C: It is incorrect because statement B is also correct regarding passage rights across territorial waters.