TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2022

247 questions from the 2022 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

  1. Q201Coding, decoding and relations

    In a certain code language, (i) 'pit nasa' means 'you are welcome' (ii) 'naho pa la' means 'they are very good' (iii) 'ka da la' means 'who is good' (iv) 'od bo pft la' means 'they welcome good people'. Which of the following means 'people' in that code language?

    • apit
    • bodAnswer
    • cla
    • dho

    Explanation coming soon.

  2. Q202Coding, decoding and relations

    Ravi is a son of Anitha's father's sister. Sumanth is the son of Divya, who is the mother of Ghanshyam and grandmother of Anitha. Sumanth is Anitha's father. Ashok is grand father of Ravi. Divya is the wife of Ashok. How is Ravi related to Ghanshyam?

    • aCousin
    • bNephewAnswer
    • cSon
    • dGrandson
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because Sumanth, Ghanshyam, and Ravi's mother are siblings born to Divya, which makes Ravi the son of Ghanshyam's sister, and therefore Ghanshyam's nephew. Option A: describes the relationship between cousins, such as Ravi and Anitha, rather than between Ravi and his uncle. Option C: incorrectly treats Ravi as the direct child of Ghanshyam. Option D: incorrectly places Ravi two generations below Ghanshyam instead of one.

  3. Q203Coding, decoding and relations

    A, B, C, D, E and F are six members in a family in which there are two married couples. A is the brother of B and uncle of F. F is the only child of D. C is the mother-in-law of D. C has one son and one daughter. E is the husband of F. Which of the following denotes male members in the family?

    • aDEC
    • bADEAnswer
    • cABD
    • dDEB
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because C has one son (A) and one daughter (B), B is married to D making D male, and E is the husband of F making E male, so the males are A, D, and E. Option A: DEC incorrectly includes C, who is explicitly stated to be the mother-in-law and therefore female. Option C: ABD incorrectly includes B, who must be the daughter since C has one son (A) and one daughter. Option D: DEB incorrectly includes B, who is female.

  4. Q204Coding, decoding and relations

    Point B is 3 meters North of Point A. Point C is 3 meters West of Point B. Point D is 6 meters South of Point C. Point E is 11 meters East of Point D. What is the minimum distance and direction of Point E from Point B?

    • a8 m South
    • b14 m East
    • c10 m SoutheastAnswer
    • d8 m Northeast
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because Point E is located 8 meters East and 6 meters South of Point B, yielding a straight-line distance of 10 meters in the Southeast direction. Relative coordinates from B(0, 0): Point C = (-3, 0) Point D = (-3, -6) Point E = (-3 + 11, -6) = (8, -6) Distance from B to E = √(8² + (-6)²) = √(64 + 36) = √100 = 10 m Direction from B(0, 0) to E(8, -6) = South-East Option A: 8 m South ignores the 8-meter eastward displacement of E from B. Option B: 14 m East sums horizontal coordinates incorrectly and ignores the southward displacement. Option D: 8 m Northeast has both the incorrect distance and the wrong vertical direction.

  5. Q205Coding, decoding and relations

    Bhushan starts from his house towards went After walking distance of 24 meters, he tumed towards right and walked 20 meters. He ther tumed left and moving a distance of 10 meters, tamed to his left again and walked 30 meter. He now us to the left and walks 10 meters. What is the shortest distance between the current position and his house (in meters) ?

    • a24
    • b26Answer
    • c34
    • d44
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because using the Pythagorean theorem on Bhushan's final horizontal and vertical displacements from his house yields a shortest distance of 26 meters. Westward walk: 24 m West Right turn: 20 m North Left turn: 10 m West Left turn: 30 m South Left turn: 10 m East Net West-East position: -24 - 10 + 10 = -24 m Net North-South position: 20 - 30 = -10 m Shortest distance: square root of (24 squared + 10 squared) = square root of (576 + 100) = square root of 676 = 26 meters Option A: 24 is incorrect because it accounts only for the horizontal displacement while ignoring the 10-meter vertical difference. Option C: 34 is incorrect because it represents the sum of the absolute coordinate distances rather than the straight-line hypotenuse. Option D: 44 is incorrect because it reflects an erroneous addition of the pathway segments.

  6. Q206Shapes, figures and Venn diagrams

    From the four positions of a dice given below, find the colour which is opposite to Red?

    Figure from the question
    • aRose
    • bOrangeAnswer
    • cBlue
    • dViolet

    Explanation coming soon.

  7. Q207Clocks, calendars and ages

    At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock bee in the same straight line but, not together?

    • a5 5/11 minutes past 7Answer
    • b5 min. past 7
    • c5 2/11 minutes past 7
    • d5 3/11 minutes past 7
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because the hands point in opposite directions when they are 30 minute spaces apart, which occurs at 5 5/11 minutes past 7. At 7 o'clock, the hour hand is 35 minute spaces ahead of the minute hand. To be in a straight line opposite each other, the minute hand must gain: 35 - 30 = 5 minute spaces. Minute hand gains 55 minute spaces in 60 minutes, or 1 space in 12/11 minutes. Time required: 5 x (12/11) = 60/11 = 5 5/11 minutes past 7. Option B: 5 min. past 7 ignores the fact that the hour hand advances slightly while the minute hand moves. Option C: 5 2/11 minutes past 7 results from an arithmetic error in dividing 60 by 11. Option D: 5 3/11 minutes past 7 miscalculates the fraction 60/11.

  8. Q208Clocks, calendars and ages

    In a non-leap year, if Republic day of India is celebrated on Wednesday, on which weekday Mahatma Gandhi's birthday will be celebrated in the same year?

    • aFriday
    • bSundayAnswer
    • cSaturday
    • dMonday
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because calculating the net odd days between Republic Day (26 January) and Mahatma Gandhi's birthday (2 October) in a non-leap year shifts the weekday forward by four days from Wednesday to Sunday. Remaining days in January: 5 February: 28 days = 0 odd days March: 31 days = 3 odd days April: 30 days = 2 odd days May: 31 days = 3 odd days June: 30 days = 2 odd days July: 31 days = 3 odd days August: 31 days = 3 odd days September: 30 days = 2 odd days Days in October: 2 Total odd days: 5 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 2 = 25 days = 4 odd days Wednesday + 4 days = Sunday Option A: Friday corresponds to adding two odd days instead of four. Option C: Saturday corresponds to adding three odd days instead of four. Option D: Monday corresponds to adding five odd days instead of four.

  9. Q209Number system and basic operations

    If 'M' denotes '/'; 'K' denotes '-'; 'R' denotes '+' and 'T' denotes 'x', then 12 T 8 M 12 R 16 K 14 ? &53 'M' '/'; 'K'D '-'; 'R'+'T

    • a20
    • b48
    • c38
    • d10Answer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because replacing the letters with the given arithmetic operators and following BODMAS rules results in 10. T means ×, M means ÷, R means +, K means - 12 × 8 ÷ 12 + 16 - 14 = (96 ÷ 12) + 16 - 14 = 8 + 16 - 14 = 10 Option A: Gives 20, which occurs if 14 is not subtracted from 24. Option B: Gives 48, which results from ignoring the division operator entirely. Option C: Gives 38, which arises from incorrect operator precedence during evaluation.

  10. Q210Data interpretation and probability

    Following question is based on the table given below, which gives the sales of Supermarkets from 2015-16 to 2020-21. | Year/ సంవత్సరం | Supermarkets/ సూపర్ మార్కెట్లు | | | | | |---|---|---|---|---|---| | | Prasanth/ ప్రశాంత్ | Krishna/ కృష్ణ | Mahesh/ మహేష్ | Ramya/ రమ్య | Suguna/ సుగుణ | | 2015-16 | 400 | 280 | 320 | 470 | 320 | | 2016-17 | 480 | 400 | 400 | 540 | 480 | | 2017-18 | 540 | 420 | 580 | 680 | 420 | | 2018-19 | 770 | 480 | 600 | 720 | 440 | | 2019-20 | 560 | 500 | 840 | 900 | 650 | | 2020-21 | 850 | 750 | 790 | 920 | 700 | In the year 2017-18, what is the approximate share of mahesh supermarket out of the total sales of all the super market?

    Figure from the question
    • a23%
    • b21%
    • c19%
    • d22%Answer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Mahesh supermarket accounted for 580 out of the total 2,640 sales across all supermarkets in 2017-18, which is approximately 22%. Total sales in 2017-18 = 540 + 420 + 580 + 680 + 420 = 2640 Mahesh supermarket sales in 2017-18 = 580 Percentage share = (580 / 2640) * 100 = 21.97% ≈ 22% Option A: 23% overestimates the true share of 21.97%. Option B: 21% underestimates the share before rounding. Option C: 19% corresponds to around 502 sales, which is far below 580.

  11. Q211Data interpretation and probability

    Study the following graph pertaining to sales percentage of Branded and Assembled PCs sold during 2015 to 2021 and answer the question given below. Total PCs (Branded and Assembled together) sold in the year 2015 was 2,00,000 and total sales of computers were increased at the rate of 10% per every year. How many Branded PCs were sold in the year 2016?

    Figure from the question
    • a78,000
    • b80,000
    • c88,000Answer
    • d72,000

    Explanation coming soon.

  12. Q212Data interpretation and probability

    Study the Bar Chart given below to answer the question. Sale of the products of three different brands in five (2001-2005) different years (in Lakh pieces) What is the ratio between increase of sales of LIKE from 2001 to 2002 and decrease of sales of BOB from 2003 to 2004?

    Figure from the question
    • a3:2
    • b1:2Answer
    • c2:1
    • d2:3

    Explanation coming soon.

  13. Q213People: appointments, honours and passings

    Consider the following Padma Bhushan Awardees of 2022. Which one of the pairs is NOT matched correctly?

    • aCyrus Poonawalla: Trade and Industry
    • bVictor Banerjee : Art
    • cGhulam Nabi Azad : Public Affairs
    • dKrishna Ella and Suchitra Ella: MedicineAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Krishna Ella and Suchitra Ella of Bharat Biotech were conferred the Padma Bhushan in 2022 under the Trade and Industry category, not Medicine. Option A: Incorrectly thought to be mispaired; Cyrus Poonawalla of the Serum Institute of India was indeed awarded in Trade and Industry. Option B: Incorrectly thought to be mispaired; Victor Banerjee received the award for his contributions to the field of Art. Option C: Incorrectly thought to be mispaired; Ghulam Nabi Azad was recognized under the Public Affairs category.

  14. Q214Sports

    Arrange the following countries from the highest to lowest, based on their total medals tally at the Commonwealth Games 2022: A. Canada B. England C. Australia D. New Zealand E. India Choose the correct answer:

    • aB, A, C, D, E
    • bB, C, A, D, E
    • cC, B, A, E, DAnswer
    • dA, G, B, E, D
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because arranging the nations in descending order of their total medals earned at Birmingham 2022 places Australia first, followed by England, Canada, India, and New Zealand. Australia (C): 178 medals England (B): 176 medals Canada (A): 92 medals India (E): 61 medals New Zealand (D): 49 medals Option A: Places England ahead of Australia, but Australia finished top of the standings. Option B: Incorrectly ranks Canada ahead of both Australia and England. Option D: Contains an invalid country symbol G and incorrectly places Canada at the top.

  15. Q215Events, summits and observances

    When was the first anniversay of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) observed ?

    • a1 July 2019
    • b25 June 2019
    • c1 July 2018Answer
    • d25 June 2017
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime came into force on 1 July 2017, making 1 July 2018 its first anniversary. GST rollout date in India: 1 July 2017 First anniversary of GST: 1 July 2018, celebrated as GST Day Option A: It is incorrect because 1 July 2019 was the second anniversary of GST. Option B: It is incorrect because GST was not implemented in June and 2019 was its second anniversary. Option D: It is incorrect because GST came into effect on 1 July 2017, not 25 June 2017.

  16. Q216Events, summits and observances

    Regarding the Senkaku Islands, which are sometimes mentioned in the news, which of the following statements is correct?

    • aThese islands are considered artificial islands created by a country in the South China Sea.
    • bThere are disputes between China and Japan regarding these islands located in the East China Sea.Answer
    • cA permanent American base has been established in this region to enhance Taiwan's defense capabilities.
    • dAlthough the International Court of Justice has declared these islands as no man's land, some Southeast Asian countries claim them as their own.
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Senkaku Islands, known in China as Diaoyu, are an uninhabited group of islands in the East China Sea over which both Japan and China assert sovereignty. Option A: Senkaku Islands are natural islands in the East China Sea, not artificial islands created in the South China Sea. Option C: There is no permanent American military installation situated directly on the Senkaku Islands. Option D: The dispute does not involve Southeast Asian nations, nor has the International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land.

  17. Q217Events, summits and observances

    Mexican President Andres Manuel Lopez Obrador has proposed a three-men commission for global peace to the United Nations Organization, comprising of the following: A. Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelensky B. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi C. South African President Cyril Ramaphosa D. UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres E. Pope Francis Choose the correct answer:

    • aB, C & D only
    • bA, B & D only
    • cA, C & E only
    • dB, D & E onlyAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Mexican President Andres Manuel Lopez Obrador proposed in August 2022 that the United Nations establish a three-member commission for a five-year global peace truce consisting of Pope Francis, UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres, and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Option A: Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelensky was not part of the proposed mediating trio, as Mexico sought neutral third parties. Option B: South African President Cyril Ramaphosa was not included in Lopez Obrador's three-person proposal. Option C: Volodymyr Zelensky and Cyril Ramaphosa were omitted because the proposal explicitly designated Modi, Guterres, and the Pope.

  18. Q218Reports, indices and rankings

    According to the Wealth Report 2021, India's total wealth between 2000 and 2020:

    • aincreased threefold
    • bincreased eightfoldAnswer
    • cincreased tenfold
    • ddecreased twofold
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because national wealth assessments highlighted in wealth reports around 2021 recorded that India's total wealth expanded roughly eightfold between 2000 and 2020, driven by significant capital appreciation and economic growth. Option A: increased threefold is incorrect as it severely understates India's wealth creation during the two decades. Option C: increased tenfold is incorrect because aggregate wealth growth did not reach a ten-time increase over that exact period. Option D: decreased twofold is incorrect as India's national wealth experienced rapid expansion rather than contraction.

  19. Q219Reports, indices and rankings

    According to the Global Wealth Report 2021, the total wealth of India between 2000 and 2020 is:

    • aIncreased three-fold
    • bIncreased eight-foldAnswer
    • cIncreased five-fold
    • dDecreased two-fold
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the Credit Suisse Global Wealth Report 2021 documented that total household wealth in India expanded eight-fold over the two decades from 2000 to 2020. Option A: A three-fold increase significantly underestimates the substantial wealth accumulation recorded during this period. Option C: A five-fold rise does not match the actual figure reported by Credit Suisse. Option D: India's total wealth expanded rapidly rather than experiencing a decrease.

  20. Q220Reports, indices and rankings

    India's rank in the World Competitiveness Index 2022 is

    • a43
    • b37Answer
    • c40
    • d39
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because India jumped six places from 43rd to the 37th rank in the annual World Competitiveness Index 2022 compiled by the Institute for Management Development (IMD). Option A: 43 is incorrect because 43rd was India's rank in the previous year, 2021. Option C: 40 is incorrect as India ranked 40th in the subsequent 2023 edition. Option D: 39 is incorrect because India has not held the 39th rank in the 2022 report.

  21. Q221Reports, indices and rankings

    What was the Global GDP ranking of india in 2018 according to the World Bank?

    • a7thAnswer
    • b6th
    • c9th
    • d5th
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because according to World Bank GDP data compiled for 2018, India was pushed to the 7th position globally with a GDP of 2.72 trillion dollars, falling behind the United Kingdom and France. Rank 5: United Kingdom at 2.82 trillion dollars Rank 6: France at 2.78 trillion dollars Rank 7: India at 2.72 trillion dollars Option B: 6th is incorrect because India held this spot in 2017 but slipped behind France and the UK in 2018. Option C: 9th is incorrect because India remained firmly within the top seven global economies. Option D: 5th is incorrect because India had not surpassed the United Kingdom in the 2018 data release.

  22. Q222Reports, indices and rankings

    India recorded the highest number of Tiger deaths in 2021. Consider the following in relation to this: A. A total of 127 Tigers died. B. Gujarat ranks first in this fatality. C. Madhya Pradesh ranks first in this fatality. D. Maharashtra and Karnataka occupy second and third position respectively. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB & D only
    • bA, B & D only
    • cA, C & D onlyAnswer
    • dA & B only
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because statements A, C, and D are factually accurate, while statement B is incorrect since Gujarat has no wild tiger population and therefore recorded no tiger fatalities. Total tiger deaths in India in 2021: 127 Madhya Pradesh fatalities: 44 (Rank 1) Maharashtra fatalities: 26 (Rank 2) Karnataka fatalities: 14 (Rank 3) Option A: It includes statement B, which wrongly claims Gujarat ranked first in tiger deaths. Option B: It also includes the incorrect statement B regarding Gujarat. Option D: It omits the correct statements C and D while including the false statement B.

  23. Q223Reports, indices and rankings

    As per the NITI Aayog's Health Index Round IV 2019-20, which of the following states emerged as the best three performers in terms of overall performance ?

    • aKerala, Gujarat, Karnataka
    • bGujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar PradeshAnswer
    • cKerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana
    • dKerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

  24. Q224Reports, indices and rankings

    Consider the following in relation to the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)'s report "Internet India" released in July, 2022: A. Around 346 million Indians are engaged in online transactions. B. The number of digital transactions in India are greater than that of the US. C. The number of female internet users are more than male users. D. Social-media, entertainment and communications are the top three activities. E. The report estimates that there will be 900 million internet users in India by 2025. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB, C & E only
    • bA, B, C & D only
    • cA, C, D & E only
    • dA, B, D & E onlyAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements A, B, D, and E accurately reflect the findings of the IAMAI-Kantar Internet in India 2022 report, whereas statement C is factually incorrect. Online transacting Indians: around 346 million Estimated internet users by 2025: around 900 million Gender distribution: male users outnumber female users with about 57% male and 43% female Top online activities: communication, social media, and entertainment Option A: It includes statement C, which falsely claims female users outnumber male users, and omits valid findings. Option B: It erroneously includes statement C despite the persistence of a noticeable gender gap in internet access. Option C: It incorporates the false claim in statement C and omits statement B.

  25. Q225Reports, indices and rankings

    Compared to other states (as of December 31, 2021), women won a higher number of seats in the legislative assemblies of the following states. Arrange them in descending order based on the number of seats won by women in their respective assemblies: A. West Bengal B. Bihar C. Jharkhand D. Uttar Pradesh E. Rajasthan Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, C, B, D, E
    • bD, A, C, E, BAnswer
    • cC, A, D, B, E
    • dB, D, A, E, C
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the ranking follows the official count of elected women members across the state legislative assemblies as compiled in statistical reports by the end of 2021. Uttar Pradesh: 40 women MLAs West Bengal: 39 women MLAs Jharkhand: 27 women MLAs Rajasthan: 27 women MLAs Bihar: 26 women MLAs Option A: It begins with West Bengal rather than Uttar Pradesh. Option C: It incorrectly places Jharkhand ahead of Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Option D: It places Bihar at the top of the descending order.

  26. Q226Reports, indices and rankings

    Among the following, which are the three states that performed well based on all types of performance according to NITI Aayog Health Index Round IV 2019-20?

    • aKerala, Gujarat, Karnataka
    • bGujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
    • cKerala, Tamil Nadu, TelanganaAnswer
    • dKerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana secured the first, second, and third ranks respectively among the larger states based on overall performance in the fourth round of the NITI Aayog Health Index for the reference year 2019-20. Kerala ranked first with an overall index score of 82.20 Tamil Nadu ranked second with an overall index score of 72.42 Telangana ranked third with an overall index score of 69.96 Option A: Gujarat and Karnataka ranked sixth and nineteenth respectively among larger states, not forming the top three. Option B: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh did not make up the top three, with Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh ranking near the bottom. Option D: Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh ranked nineteenth and eighth respectively, placing them outside the top three.

  27. Q227Reports, indices and rankings

    According to the 'Export Preparedness Index 2020', this is not part of the schemes undertaken by the Government of India for export promotion:

    • aMerchandise Exports Scheme
    • bTransport and Marketing Assistance Scheme
    • cScheme for Trade Infrastructure for Export
    • dPrimary Commodities Export SchemeAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because there is no Government of India initiative named Primary Commodities Export Scheme listed in the Export Preparedness Index 2020 report. Option A: Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was an active central scheme included in the report to promote export of specified goods. Option B: Transport and Marketing Assistance Scheme was highlighted as an active export promotion scheme assisting specified agriculture products. Option C: Scheme for Trade Infrastructure for Export (TIES) is an existing central scheme supporting export-related infrastructure projects.

  28. Q228Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    The PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2019. It is a part of which of the following ministry?

    • aMinistry of Forests, Environment and Climate Change
    • bMinistry of New & Renewable EnergyAnswer
    • cMinistry of Family & Child Welfare
    • dMinistry of Social Justice
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the PM-KUSUM scheme was formulated and launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to promote solar power adoption among farmers for irrigation and grid feeding. Option A: Ministry of Forests, Environment and Climate Change deals with environmental preservation, not solar pump deployment subsidies. Option C: Ministry of Family and Child Welfare handles nutrition and welfare services, not agricultural solarisation. Option D: Ministry of Social Justice focuses on welfare policies for marginalised sections rather than renewable energy infrastructure.

  29. Q229Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    The River Cities Alliance (RCA) launched in February, 2022 aims to provide the member cities a platform to discuss and exchange information on the vital aspects for sustainable management of urban rivers. Which of the following cities are part of the RCA? A. Ayodhya B. Delhi C. Hyderabad D. Rishikesh E. Udaipur Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, D & E only
    • bA, B & C onlyAnswer
    • cA, C, D & E only
    • dB, C, D & E only

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

  30. Q230Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Consider the following in relation to the India's longest Rubber Dam inaugurated in September 2022: A. This dam is known as 'Gayaji Dam'. B. It is on the Falgu River. C. Falgu River is in Odisha. D. Experts from IIT (Roorkee) were involved with this project. E. Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, Minister of Jal Shakti inaugurated this Dam. Choose the correct answer:

    • aB, D & E only
    • bA, B & C only
    • cA, B, C & E only
    • dA, B & D onlyAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because Gayaji Dam on the Falgu River was designed with technical expertise from IIT Roorkee, whereas the river is in Bihar, not Odisha, and the dam was inaugurated by Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar. A is true: The structure is officially named Gayaji Dam. B is true: It is constructed across the Falgu River in Gaya. C is false: Falgu River flows through Bihar, not Odisha. D is true: Technical consultancy was provided by IIT Roorkee. E is false: Inauguration was performed by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar on 8 September 2022. Option A: B, D & E only is incorrect because statement E is false, as Nitish Kumar inaugurated the dam rather than Gajendra Singh Shekhawat. Option B: A, B & C only is incorrect because statement C is false, as the Falgu River is located in Bihar. Option C: A, B, C & E only is incorrect because both statements C and E are factually erroneous.

  31. Q231Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Which of the following elements are associated with the 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav' celebration? A. Aage Badho B. Bus Bhagidari C. Baiher Tiranga D. Har Ghar Tiranga E. Bade Chalo Choose the correct answer:

    • aB, D & E onlyAnswer
    • bA, B, C, D & E
    • cA, B & E only
    • dA, C & D only
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because Har Ghar Tiranga, Bade Chalo, and Jan Bhagidari (printed as Bus Bhagidari) were key campaign initiatives under the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations. Option B: A, B, C, D & E is incorrect because Aage Badho and Baiher Tiranga were never official campaign initiatives under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav. Option C: A, B & E only is incorrect because Har Ghar Tiranga is one of the most prominent flagship initiatives of the celebration and cannot be excluded. Option D: A, C & D only is incorrect because it includes the non-existent initiatives Aage Badho and Baiher Tiranga while omitting Bade Chalo.

  32. Q232Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    The River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in February 2022. Its objective is to provide a platform for member cities to discuss key issues related to sustainable management of urban rivers and exchange information. Which of the following cities are part of the RCA? A. Ayodhya B. Delhi C. Hyderabad D. Rishikesh E. Udaipur Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, D & E only
    • bA, B & C only
    • cA, C, D & E onlyAnswer
    • dB, C, D & E only
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because Ayodhya, Hyderabad, Rishikesh, and Udaipur are member cities of the River Cities Alliance, whereas Delhi is not among the selected set in this combination. Option A: It includes Delhi, which is not part of the credited group, and excludes Hyderabad. Option B: It incorrectly includes Delhi and omits Rishikesh and Udaipur. Option D: It incorrectly includes Delhi and omits Ayodhya.

  33. Q233Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Scientists are now fine-tuning their research to make a presentation for the Geographical Indications (GI) registration of "Kai Chutney" under food category. Kai Chutney belongs to which of the following region ?

    • aOdisha's MayurbhanjAnswer
    • bMaharashtra's Hingoli
    • cTamil Nadu's Chengalpattu
    • dKarnataka's Gulbarga
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because Kai Chutney, a traditional paste made from red weaver ants, is native to the tribal communities of the Mayurbhanj district in Odisha. Option B: Hingoli in Maharashtra is not associated with red weaver ant chutney. Option C: Chengalpattu in Tamil Nadu is not the region of origin for Kai Chutney. Option D: Gulbarga in Karnataka is known for its Tur dal, not Kai Chutney.

  34. Q234Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Match the following Cyclones of 2021 with their intensity: Cyclone Intensity A. GULAB 1. Very Severe Cyclonic Storm B. YAAS 2. Severe Cyclonic Storm C. TAUKTAE 3. Cyclonic Storm D. SHAHEEN 4. Lowest Cyclonic Storm 5. Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm Choose the correct answer :

    • aA-3; B-1; C-5; D-2Answer
    • bA-5; B-2; C-4; D-3
    • cA-2; B-5; C-4; D-1
    • dA-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because it correctly matches each 2021 tropical cyclone with its peak intensity classification designated by the India Meteorological Department. Gulab: Cyclonic Storm Yaas: Very Severe Cyclonic Storm Tauktae: Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm Shaheen: Severe Cyclonic Storm Option B: assigns Gulab to the extremely severe category and Shaheen to a standard cyclonic storm. Option C: incorrectly matches Gulab as a severe storm and Yaas as an extremely severe storm. Option D: incorrectly pairs Gulab with an unrecognised lowest category and Yaas with an ordinary cyclonic storm.

  35. Q235Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Consider the following in view of PSLV-C53: A. It was launched from the second launch pad of Satish Dhawan Space Centre on June 30, 2022. B. It is the dedicated commercial mission of Antrix Corporation. C. The launch vehicle carried three satellites from Singapore, namely DS-EO, NeuSAR, Scoob-1. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B & C
    • bA & B only
    • cB & C only
    • dA & C onlyAnswer
    Explanation

    Option D is correct because statements A and C are true, whereas the PSLV-C53 launch was a dedicated commercial mission operated by NewSpace India Limited rather than Antrix Corporation. Launch date: 30 June 2022 from Second Launch Pad, SDSC SHAR Commercial agency: NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) Payloads: DS-EO, NeuSAR, and SCOOB-1 from Singapore Option A: It wrongly includes statement B, overlooking that NSIL, not Antrix Corporation, was the designated commercial operator for this mission. Option B: It mistakenly treats statement B as correct and omits statement C, which accurately identifies the Singaporean satellites. Option C: It accepts the incorrect commercial entity in statement B and excludes the valid launch details presented in statement A.

  36. Q236Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    IIT Kharagpur researchers developed eco-friendly food packaging material with which one of the following?

    • aCow Dung
    • bBanana PeelsAnswer
    • cBanana Stem
    • dCucumber Peels

    Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

  37. Q237Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Match the following cyclones that occurred in 2021 with their intensities: Cyclone Intensity

    • aA-3; B-1; C-5; D-2Answer
    • bA-5; B-2; C-4; D-3
    • cA-2; B-5; C-4; D-1
    • dA-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

    Explanation coming soon.

  38. Q238Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Match the following types of Coronavirus with the countries where they originated: Virus Type Country of Origin A. Alpha 1. Brazil B. Beta 2. United States C. Delta 3. United Kingdom D. Gamma 4. India 5. South Africa Choose the correct answer:

    • aA-5; B-4; C-2; D-3
    • bA-3; B-5; C-4; D-1Answer
    • cA-2; B-3; C-4; D-5
    • dA-5; B-4; C-1; D-2
    Explanation

    Option B is correct because the World Health Organization labeled SARS-CoV-2 variants according to their first documented identification in specific countries. Alpha variant (B.1.1.7) originated in the United Kingdom Beta variant (B.1.351) originated in South Africa Delta variant (B.1.617.2) originated in India Gamma variant (P.1) originated in Brazil Option A: It incorrectly pairs Alpha with South Africa and Beta with India. Option C: It incorrectly pairs Alpha with the United States, where none of these four variants originally emerged. Option D: It incorrectly assigns Alpha to South Africa and Gamma to the United States.

  39. Q239Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    Regarding 'Monk fruit', consider the following: A. Monk fruit is famous for having natural sweetening properties with no calories. B. Commercial cultivation of Monk fruit takes place in China. C. In India, Himachal Pradesh undertook the cultivation of Monk fruit for the first time. D. In India, the cultivation of Monk fruit is supervised by the Institute of Himalayan Bio-resource Technology. Choose the correct answer:

    • aA, B, C & DAnswer
    • bA, B & C only
    • cA, C & D only
    • dB, C & D only
    Explanation

    Option A is correct because all four statements regarding Monk fruit (Siraitia grosvenorii) are factually accurate. It is known for its zero-calorie sweetness derived from mogrosides, is commercially grown in China, and was introduced to India in Himachal Pradesh under the supervision of the CSIR-Institute of Himalayan Bioresource Technology, Palampur. Option B: It is incorrect because statement D is also true, as CSIR-IHBT supervised its trial cultivation in Palampur. Option C: It is incorrect because statement B is also true, as China is the primary commercial cultivator of monk fruit. Option D: It is incorrect because statement A is also true, as the fruit's non-caloric sweetening property is its defining commercial characteristic.

  40. Q240Launches: schemes, missions and firsts

    What is "Exercise VINBAX 2022? A. It is the 3rd edition of Vietnam-India bilateral army drill. B. It is held at the Dalhousie Cantonment, Himachal Pradesh. C. It is held at the Chandi Mandir Military Station, Haryana. D. The last such drill was held in Vietnam in 2019. E. The Exercise was focused on deployment of army engineers and medical teams in United Nations peacekeeping operations. Choose the correct answer.

    • aC & D only
    • bA, B, C, D & E
    • cA, C, D & E onlyAnswer
    • dA, B & D only
    Explanation

    Option C is correct because the 3rd edition of the Vietnam-India Bilateral Army Exercise was conducted at Chandimandir Military Station in Haryana in August 2022, following the previous 2019 edition in Vietnam, with a primary focus on training engineer and medical contingents for United Nations Peacekeeping Operations. Option A: C & D only omits correct statements A and E. Option B: A, B, C, D & E includes statement B, which wrongly claims the exercise took place at Dalhousie Cantonment instead of Chandimandir. Option D: A, B & D only mistakenly includes statement B and leaves out valid statements C and E.

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