TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2022

247 questions from the 2022 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

161. Q161Information and communication technology

     Which of the following organization/s formulate/s the standards and rules to be followed regarding the Internet? A. The Internet Society B. International Organization for Internet Standards (IOIS) C. American Association for Internet Protocols D. The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names & Numbers (ICANN) Choose the correct answer:

     • aA & D onlyAnswer
     • bA, C & D only
     • cA, B & C only
     • dB & D only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Internet Society (ISOC), which oversees the Internet Engineering Task Force, and the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN), which coordinates IP addresses and DNS, are the recognized international bodies governing standards and naming on the Internet. Option B: It incorrectly includes the American Association for Internet Protocols, which is a fictitious entity. Option C: It includes both International Organization for Internet Standards and American Association for Internet Protocols, neither of which exists as a standard-setting body. Option D: It omits the Internet Society while including the non-existent International Organization for Internet Standards.

162. Q162Nuclear technology

     Regarding isotopes of elements, consider the following statements: A. Cobalt isotopes are used in cancer treatment. B. Iron isotopes are used in anemia testing. C. Uranium isotopes are used as fuel in nuclear reactors. D. Iodine isotopes are used in hyperthyroid-A treatment. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C & DAnswer
     • bA & B only
     • cB & C only
     • dA, B & C only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because all four statements accurately describe medical and industrial applications of specific radioisotopes. Cobalt-60 is used in radiotherapy for cancer treatment Iron-59 is used in studies of iron metabolism to diagnose anemia Uranium-235 is used as a fissile fuel in nuclear reactors Iodine-131 is used to treat hyperthyroidism and thyroid cancer Option B: Excludes statements C and D, which are also scientifically accurate. Option C: Excludes statements A and D, which are well-established medical uses. Option D: Omits statement D, which correctly identifies the role of Iodine-131.

163. Q163Nuclear technology

     What is the implication for India of ratifying the *Additional Protocol' with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?

     • aIndia gets permission to import nuclear weapons technology from nuclear weapon countries.
     • bThe Indian civilian nuclear power establishments come under IAEA safeguards.Answer
     • cIndia gets access to nuclear technology trade with the Nuclear Supplier Group countries.
     • dIndia gets access to import of uranium from the Nuclear Supplier Group countries.
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the ratification of the Additional Protocol with the IAEA brings India's designated civilian nuclear facilities under IAEA monitoring and safeguards. Option A: The Additional Protocol is non-proliferation monitoring and prohibits weapons technology transfers to non-NPT states. Option C: Access to nuclear trade with the NSG was enabled by the 2008 NSG waiver, not directly by the Additional Protocol. Option D: Uranium imports were facilitated by bilateral agreements following the NSG waiver, not the Additional Protocol itself.

164. Q164Nuclear technology

     What was the agreement reached by India's adoption of the "Additional Protocol" with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?

     • aIndia will be allowed to import nuclear weapons technology from nuclear weapon states.
     • bIndian civilian nuclear facilities will come under IAEA safeguards.Answer
     • cIndia will gain ease in nuclear technology trade with Nuclear Supplier Group countries.
     • dIndia will gain ease in uranium import from Nuclear Supplier Group countries.
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Additional Protocol to India's safeguards agreement allows the IAEA to verify that civilian nuclear facilities and materials are used solely for peaceful purposes. Option A: Nuclear weapons technology transfers are barred under international non-proliferation norms. Option C: Trade access with NSG members was granted via the 2008 NSG waiver, not the Additional Protocol itself. Option D: Bilateral civilian nuclear agreements and the NSG waiver opened uranium imports, not the Additional Protocol.

165. Q165Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Match the below products of biotechnology with their application for treatment of various diseases/disorders. A. Interleukins 1. Treating Haemophilia B. Insulin 2. Treating cancer C. Tissue plasminogen Activator 3. Treating diabetes D. Blood factor VIII 4. Treating heart attacks and stroke 5. Treating leprosy Choose the correct answer :

     • aA-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
     • bA-5, B-3, C-2, D-4
     • cA-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
     • dA-2, B-3, C-4, D-1Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Interleukins are cytokine molecules used in cancer immunotherapy, Insulin is used to manage diabetes, Tissue Plasminogen Activator dissolves clots during heart attacks and strokes, and Factor VIII replaces missing clotting proteins in hemophilia. Interleukins: Treating cancer Insulin: Treating diabetes Tissue plasminogen Activator: Treating heart attacks and stroke Blood factor VIII: Treating Haemophilia Option A: It pairs Insulin with stroke treatment and Factor VIII incorrectly. Option B: It incorrectly links Interleukins to leprosy and Insulin to cancer. Option C: It misattributes Interleukins to cardiovascular events and Factor VIII to oncology.

166. Q166Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     The biotechnological products and the types of diseases they help prevent are given below. Match them correctly. A. Interleukin 1. Hemophilia treatment B. Insulin 2. Cancer treatment C. Tissue Plasminogen Activator 3. Diabetes treatment D. Blood Factor VIII 4. Heart attack treatment 5. Leprosy treatment Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-2; B-4; C-3, D-1
     • bA-5; B-3; C-2, D-4
     • cA-4; B-3; C-1, D-2
     • dA-2; B-3; C-4, D-1Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because each therapeutic agent corresponds accurately to its specific clinical application in medical biotechnology. Interleukin matches with Cancer treatment Insulin matches with Diabetes treatment Tissue Plasminogen Activator matches with Heart attack treatment Blood Factor VIII matches with Hemophilia treatment Option A: Incorrectly pairs Insulin with heart attack treatment and Tissue Plasminogen Activator with diabetes. Option B: Incorrectly pairs Interleukin with leprosy and Blood Factor VIII with heart attack treatment. Option C: Incorrectly pairs Interleukin with heart attack treatment and Blood Factor VIII with cancer.

167. Q167Biotechnology and genetic engineering

     Match the following COVID-19 vaccines based on their nature. List-1 List-2 A. Pfizer 1. Spiked DNA B. Covaxin 2. Inactivated vaccine C. Sputnik-V 3. RNA vaccine D. ZyCoV-D 4. Adenovirus-based vaccine Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3; B-4; C-1, D-2
     • bA-4; B-3; C-2, D-1
     • cA-4; B-2; C-1, D-3
     • dA-3; B-2; C-4, D-1Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Pfizer is an mRNA vaccine, Covaxin is an inactivated whole-virion vaccine, Sputnik-V uses an adenovirus vector delivery system, and ZyCoV-D is a plasmid DNA vaccine. Pfizer: RNA vaccine Covaxin: Inactivated vaccine Sputnik-V: Adenovirus-based vaccine ZyCoV-D: Spiked DNA vaccine Option A: It incorrectly pairs Pfizer with an adenovirus vector and Covaxin with DNA technology. Option B: It misclassifies Pfizer as an adenovirus vaccine and Sputnik-V as an inactivated virus vaccine. Option C: It inaccurately attributes a DNA platform to Sputnik-V and an RNA platform to ZyCoV-D.

168. Q168Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     'eVTOL Technology' is related to which field?

     • aAviationAnswer
     • bBiofuel Production
     • cSemi-conductor manufacturing
     • dMicrobiology
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because eVTOL stands for electric Vertical Takeoff and Landing, an advanced air mobility technology used to develop urban air taxis and next-generation aircraft. Option B: Biofuel Production relates to biomass-derived energy sources rather than electric aerial vehicle technology. Option C: Semi-conductor manufacturing refers to microchip fabrication rather than vertical takeoff aviation platforms. Option D: Microbiology is the study of microscopic organisms and has no connection to aviation engineering.

169. Q169Nanotechnology and the emerging technologies

     Who were the other members of Justice R.S. Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations ?

     • aB. Sivaraman & Dr. S.R. SenAnswer
     • bM.M. Punchi & V.K. Duggal
     • cDhirendra Singh & N.R. Madhavan
     • dV.K. Duggal, Vijai Shankar & N.R. Madhavan
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, constituted in 1983 under Justice R.S. Sarkaria, had B. Sivaraman and Dr. S.R. Sen as its other two members. Commission constituted: June 1983 Chairman: Justice R.S. Sarkaria Member: B. Sivaraman Member: Dr. S.R. Sen Report submitted: October 1987 Option B: Justice M.M. Punchhi chaired a later commission in 2007, of which V.K. Duggal was also a member. Option C: Dhirendra Singh and N.R. Madhava Menon were members of the Punchhi Commission. Option D: V.K. Duggal, Vijai Shankar, and N.R. Madhava Menon all served on the second Centre-State Relations Commission headed by Justice M.M. Punchhi.

170. Q170SCHOOL BIOLOGY: life sciences as the papers actually ask them

     Which of the following insect species is suitable for growing fungus?

     • aAntAnswer
     • bCockroach
     • cDung
     • dSpider
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because several ant species, most notably leafcutter ants of the tribe Attini, practice obligate agriculture by cutting leaves, masticating them into substrate, and actively cultivating fungal gardens for food. Option B: Cockroaches are omnivorous scavengers that do not cultivate or farm fungal crops. Option C: Dung is organic waste matter and not an insect species at all. Option D: Spiders belong to the class Arachnida, not Insecta, and are predatory rather than fungus-farming organisms.

171. Q171HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Using the codes given below, match List-1 with List-2 and choose the correct answer: List-1 (Vision Defect) A. Myopia B. Hypermetropia C. Presbyopia D. Astigmatism List-2 (Corrective Lens) 1. Bi-convex lens 2. Bi-concave lens 3. Cylindrical lens 4. Concavo-convex lens

     • aA-4; B-2; C-1, D-4
     • bA-1; B-2; C-3, D-4
     • cA-4; B-3; C-2, D-1
     • dA-2; B-1; C-4, D-3Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the combination pairs each vision defect with its appropriate corrective optical element: myopia with a bi-concave lens, hypermetropia with a bi-convex lens, presbyopia with a concavo-convex lens, and astigmatism with a cylindrical lens. Myopia: Bi-concave lens (2) Hypermetropia: Bi-convex lens (1) Presbyopia: Concavo-convex lens (4) Astigmatism: Cylindrical lens (3) Option A: Inaccurately assigns a concavo-convex lens to myopia and a bi-concave lens to hypermetropia. Option B: Inaccurately assigns a converging bi-convex lens to myopia and a diverging bi-concave lens to hypermetropia. Option C: Reverses the pairings by assigning a concavo-convex lens to myopia and a bi-convex lens to astigmatism.

172. Q172HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     'Graves disease' is caused due to excess production of which of the following hormone?

     • aGrowth hormone
     • bParathormone
     • cInsulin
     • dThyroxinAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Graves disease is an autoimmune condition characterized by hyperthyroidism resulting from the uncontrolled, excessive secretion of thyroxin by the thyroid gland. Option A: Excessive production of growth hormone leads to pituitary gigantism or acromegaly. Option B: Excessive secretion of parathormone causes hyperparathyroidism, leading to bone resorption and hypercalcemia. Option C: Excessive production of insulin causes severe hypoglycemia.

173. Q173HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Excessive production of which of the following hormones causes 'Graves' disease'?

     • aGrowth hormone
     • bParathormone
     • cInsulin
     • dThyroxineAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder where stimulating autoantibodies trigger the thyroid gland to produce excessive amounts of thyroxine, resulting in hyperthyroidism. Option A: Excessive growth hormone results in gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults. Option B: Excessive parathormone leads to hyperparathyroidism and elevated blood calcium levels. Option C: Excessive insulin causes hypoglycemia rather than thyroid-associated disorders.

174. Q174HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Mother's breast milk provides immunity to new-born babies because it contains:

     • aImmunoglobulin G
     • bImmunoglobulin E
     • cImmunoglobulin M
     • dImmunoglobulin AAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because colostrum and mature breast milk are rich in secretory Immunoglobulin A (sIgA), which coats the infant's mucosal surfaces and protects the digestive and respiratory tracts against pathogens. Option A: Immunoglobulin G is the primary antibody transferred across the placenta during pregnancy, not the principal immunoglobulin provided through breast milk. Option B: Immunoglobulin E mediates allergic reactions and anti-parasitic responses, and is present only in trace amounts in breast milk. Option C: Immunoglobulin M is the first antibody produced by the body during an acute infection and is not the predominant protective antibody found in breast milk.

175. Q175HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Mother's breast milk provides immunity to newborns because it contains:

     • aImmunoglobulin G
     • bImmunoglobulin E
     • cImmunoglobulin M
     • dImmunoglobulin AAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because mother's milk, particularly the early colostrum, is rich in Secretory Immunoglobulin A, which protects the neonate's gastrointestinal and respiratory mucosa from pathogens. Option A: Immunoglobulin G provides passive immunity by crossing the human placenta during gestation rather than being the dominant antibody in breast milk. Option B: Immunoglobulin E primarily functions in mediating allergic responses and defending against parasitic worms, occurring only in minute amounts in breast milk. Option C: Immunoglobulin M is the first antibody synthesized by the adaptive immune system during an infection and is present in breast milk in much smaller quantities than IgA.

176. Q176HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     What is 'Happy Hypoxia'?

     • aA condition where you cannot notice that your blood sugar levels are falling.
     • bA hormone released by the brain when you experience immense joy.
     • cThe feeling the mind gets when you unexpectedly escape death.
     • dA condition where you cannot notice that your oxygen levels are falling.Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because happy hypoxia, or silent hypoxia, describes a condition where blood oxygen saturation drops to critically low levels without the patient feeling the expected shortness of breath. Option A: The inability to recognize falling blood glucose is known clinically as hypoglycaemia unawareness, not happy hypoxia. Option B: Hormones such as dopamine and oxytocin mediate feelings of joy and attachment, which are unrelated to hypoxia. Option C: A psychological sense of relief or adrenaline rush following escape from danger is not a hypoxia-related condition.

177. Q177HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Before transfusion of blood, every unit of donor blood, is NOT tested for one of the following diseases:

     • aSyphilis
     • bHepatitis B & C
     • cHIV
     • dCancerAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because cancer is not an infectious disease transmissible through blood, so standard blood bank pre-transfusion protocols do not include mandatory testing for cancer. Option A: Syphilis is routinely tested because Treponema pallidum can be transmitted to the recipient via infected donor blood. Option B: Hepatitis B and C are mandatorily tested using serological and nucleic acid methods to prevent post-transfusion viral hepatitis. Option C: HIV is universally tested using antibody and antigen assays to prevent transfusion-transmitted AIDS.

178. Q178HUMAN BODY, NUTRITION AND DISEASE

     Before blood transfusion, for which of the following diseases is every unit of blood donated by the donor not tested?

     • aSyphilis
     • bHepatitis B & C
     • cHIV
     • dCancerAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because cancer is not a communicable infection transmissible via blood transfusion, so donated blood is routinely screened only for transfusion-transmissible infectious pathogens. Mandatory screening tests for donor blood in India include: HIV Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Syphilis Malaria Option A: Syphilis is a mandatory screening test carried out on every unit of donor blood to prevent Treponema pallidum transmission. Option B: Hepatitis B and C are viral infections that must be screened in all blood units to prevent post-transfusion hepatitis. Option C: HIV is a fatal blood-borne viral infection for which testing of every blood unit is strictly mandatory.

179. Q179SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Match the following bases as per their usage: A. Ammonium Hydroxide 1. Fire extinguisher B. Sodium Hydroxide 2. Bleaching powder C. Calcium Hydroxide 3. Soap preparation D. Aluminium Hydroxide 4. Removing grease stains Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
     • bA-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
     • cA-4 B-3 C-1 D-2Answer
     • dA-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

180. Q180SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Match the following bases based on their usage. A. Ammonium Hydroxide 1. Fire extinguisher B. Sodium Hydroxide 2. Bleaching powder C. Calcium Hydroxide 3. Soap manufacturing D. Aluminum Hydroxide 4. Grease stain removal Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-4; B-1; C-3, D-2
     • bA-4; B-1; C-2, D-3
     • cA-4; B-3; C-1, D-2
     • dA-4; B-3; C-2, D-1Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because it correctly matches each chemical base with its standard commercial or industrial application. Ammonium Hydroxide: Grease stain removal Sodium Hydroxide: Soap manufacturing Calcium Hydroxide: Bleaching powder manufacture Aluminum Hydroxide: Fire extinguisher foaming agent Option A: It incorrectly pairs sodium hydroxide with fire extinguishers and calcium hydroxide with soap. Option B: It incorrectly matches sodium hydroxide with fire extinguishers and swaps aluminum hydroxide with bleaching powder. Option C: It misattributes calcium hydroxide to fire extinguishers and aluminum hydroxide to bleaching powder.

181. Q181SCHOOL CHEMISTRY

     Consider the following statements regarding the rusting of jute. A. Its chemical name is Iron Oxide. B. Rusting is considered a chemical change. C. Zinc coating is applied on iron objects to prevent rusting. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B & CAnswer
     • bA & B only
     • cB & C only
     • dA & C only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because all three statements accurately describe the rusting process, which chemically alters iron into iron oxide and can be prevented by applying a protective zinc layer. Option B: It omits statement C, which is a correct fact regarding galvanization. Option C: It omits statement A, which correctly identifies the chemical identity of rust as iron oxide. Option D: It omits statement B, which correctly classifies rusting as an irreversible chemical change.

182. Q182SCHOOL PHYSICS

     What would happen to earth if the sun suddenly disappears? A. The earth immediately experiences the lack of sun light. B. The earth experiences the lack of sun light after about eight minutes. C. The earth immediately experiences the lack of gravitation. D. The earth experiences the lack of gravitation after about eight minutes. Choose the correct answer:

     • aB & D onlyAnswer
     • bA & C only
     • cA & D only
     • dB & C only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because both sunlight and gravitational effects propagate at the speed of light in a vacuum, meaning the Earth continues to receive light and experience solar gravity for about eight minutes after the Sun's disappearance. Speed of light and gravitational waves: approximately 300,000 km/s Distance between Sun and Earth: approximately 150 million km Propagation time: 150,000,000 km divided by 300,000 km/s equals about 8 minutes and 20 seconds Option B: Sunlight does not reach Earth instantaneously because light has a finite propagation velocity, and gravitational changes also propagate at the speed of light under general relativity. Option C: Sunlight takes roughly eight minutes to travel from the Sun to Earth, making an immediate loss of sunlight physically impossible. Option D: Gravitational influences do not propagate instantaneously; according to general relativity, changes in gravity propagate at the speed of light.

183. Q183SCHOOL PHYSICS

     On a cold day, during an early breakfast of bread with Ketchup, one would have noticed that the ketchup barely moves out of the bottle. A little warming of the Ketchup would solve the problem. Which of the following statement makes sense in the above context? A. Liquids become less viscous during high temperature. B. Kinetic energy of the molecules increases with temperature. C. Liquid resistance to flow increases with increasing temperature. D. Kinetic energy counteracts the intermolecular forces. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C & D
     • bA & B only
     • cA, C & D only
     • dA, B & D onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because warming the ketchup increases molecular kinetic energy, which overcomes the attractive intermolecular forces and decreases viscosity, thereby lowering the liquid's resistance to flow. Option A: It is incorrect because statement C is false, as viscosity and resistance to flow decrease rather than increase with rising temperature. Option B: It is incorrect because it omits statement D, which accurately describes the physical mechanism where kinetic energy counteracts intermolecular forces. Option C: It is incorrect because statement C wrongly claims that liquid resistance to flow increases with temperature.

184. Q184SCHOOL PHYSICS

     One day, during breakfast, it was observed that ketchup was not coming out of the bottle easily. However, the problem can be solved by heating the ketchup slightly. In the above context, which of the following statements would be meaningful? A. At high temperatures, liquids become less viscous. B. With temperature, the kinetic energy of molecules increases. C. With increasing temperature, the flow resistance of a liquid increases. D. Kinetic energy opposes intermolecular forces. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C & D
     • bA & B only
     • cA, C & D only
     • dA, B & D onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because warming the ketchup increases the kinetic energy of its molecules, which counteracts intermolecular attractive forces, leading to lower viscosity and easier flow. Option A: Statement C is incorrect because resistance to liquid flow decreases, rather than increases, with rising temperature. Option B: It omits statement D, which correctly explains the molecular mechanism of how increased thermal energy overcomes cohesive forces. Option C: It incorrectly includes statement C, which falsely claims that flow resistance increases upon heating.

185. Q185SCHOOL PHYSICS

     Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-1 (Defect of vision) A. Myopia B. Hypermetropia C. Presbyopia D. Astigmatism List-2 (Corrective lens) 1. Bi-convex lens 2. Bi-concave lens 3. Cylindrical lens 4. Concave-convex lens

     • aA-4; B-2; C-1; D-4
     • bA-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
     • cA-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
     • dA-2; B-1; C-4; D-3.Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because myopia requires a diverging bi-concave lens, hypermetropia requires a converging bi-convex lens, presbyopia is corrected using a bifocal or concave-convex lens, and astigmatism requires a cylindrical lens. Myopia: Bi-concave lens Hypermetropia: Bi-convex lens Presbyopia: Concave-convex lens Astigmatism: Cylindrical lens Option A: It incorrectly pairs myopia with a concave-convex lens and hypermetropia with a bi-concave lens. Option B: It inverts the corrective lenses for myopia and hypermetropia. Option C: It incorrectly matches myopia to a concave-convex lens and astigmatism to a bi-convex lens.

186. Q186SCHOOL PHYSICS

     The correct order of speed of sound in the mediums of water, iron, water vapor, and air is:

     • aIron > Air > Water vapor > Water
     • bWater > Iron > Water vapor > Air
     • cIron > Water > Water vapor > AirAnswer
     • dWater > Water vapor > Air > Iron
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because sound travels fastest in solids due to high elasticity, followed by liquids, and slowest in gases; among gases, sound travels slightly faster in water vapor than in dry air because water vapor has a lower molecular mass and density. Speed in iron is approximately 5120 meters per second Speed in water is approximately 1480 meters per second Speed in water vapor is approximately 400 meters per second Speed in dry air is approximately 343 meters per second Option A: It incorrectly places air and water vapor before water. Option B: It incorrectly claims sound travels faster in water than in a dense solid like iron. Option D: It places iron as the slowest medium instead of the fastest.

187. Q187STATE SCIENCE: what the two states run

     Genome Valley in Hyderabad is a :

     • aTextile park
     • bAmusement Park
     • cBiotech /life science clusterAnswer
     • dEcotourism site
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Genome Valley, situated in the Shamirpet area of Hyderabad, is India's first organized, world-class cluster dedicated to life sciences and biotechnology research, training, and manufacturing. Option A: Textile activities in Telangana are centered around hubs like Sircilla and Warangal, not Genome Valley. Option B: It is a specialized life sciences industrial zone, not an entertainment or amusement facility. Option D: It is a research and manufacturing cluster for pharmaceuticals and vaccines, not an ecotourism destination.

188. Q188STATE SCIENCE: what the two states run

     Through which of the following elements does the Telangana Social Innovation Policy operate?

     • aCollaborate, Innovate, TransformAnswer
     • bEncourage, Incubate, Empower
     • cInnovate, Produce, Market
     • dEducate, Innovate, Enterprise

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

189. Q189STATE SCIENCE: what the two states run

     What is TS Globallinker? A. It is a digital networking platform. B. It is an initiative of T-Hub. C. It helps MSMEs contact global buyers and sellers. D. As per Socio Economic Outlook - 2022, a total of 7,000 SMEs from Telangana have registered on the platform. E. It collaborates with the Confederation of All India Traders (CAIT). Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C, D & E
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B, C & D only
     • dA, C, D & E onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because TS GlobalLinker was launched by the Telangana Commerce and Industries Department in collaboration with GlobalLinker and CAIT, not by T-Hub, making statement B incorrect. A is a feature of TS GlobalLinker as an AI-powered networking platform. B is incorrect because it was initiated by the Industries and Commerce Department of Telangana, not T-Hub. C is correct as it enables micro, small, and medium enterprises to connect with international markets. D is correct according to Telangana Socio Economic Outlook 2022 figures. E is correct because GlobalLinker partners with CAIT to digitize Indian traders. Option A: Includes statement B, which incorrectly attributes the initiative to T-Hub. Option B: Includes statement B and omits valid statements D and E. Option C: Includes statement B, which is factually incorrect.

190. Q190Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     The symbols a, f, #, *and on are used with the following meanings: R a S implies that R is greater than S. R f S implies that R is lesser than S. R # S implies that R is equal to S. R * S implies that R is either greater than or equal to S. RS implies that R is either lesser than or equal to S. Based on the above statements, answer following: Statements MaN, OfM, MP Conclusions: I. M*P II. Orp

     • aNeither I nor II is true
     • bConclusion is true but it is false..
     • cConclusion II is true but I is false.Answer
     • dBoth the conclusions are true.

     Explanation coming soon.

191. Q191Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     A statement followed by two assumptions A and B are given below. An assumption is 'something supposed or taken for granted, i.e. a fact that can be accepted as true on considering the contents of the given statement.' You are required to assess the given statement and decide which of the given assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement and choose the appropriate option. Statement Transfer of Employees within the state should be taken up for every three years. Assumptions: A: Transfer is one of the best tools available for controlling the employees. B: Employees overstayed may involve in the corruption.

     • aNeither Assumption A nor Assumption B is implicit.
     • bOnly Assumption A is implicit.Answer
     • cOnly Assumption B is implicit.
     • dBoth Assumptions A and B are implicit.

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

192. Q192Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Read the following two statements carefully and select the right conclusion, which follows the statements. Statements: i. All pens are Buses. ii. Some Buses are jeeps. Conclusions: I. All jeeps are pens. II. Some pens are jeeps.

     • aNeither conclusion I nor II follows.Answer
     • bOnly conclusion I follows.
     • cOnly conclusion II follows.
     • dBoth conclusions I and II follow.
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the middle term buses is not distributed across both premises, meaning no definite connection can be established between pens and jeeps. Option B: Conclusion I cannot follow because jeeps merely intersect with buses and might have no overlap with pens at all. Option C: Conclusion II is only a possibility, not a logical necessity. Option D: It incorrectly validates conclusions that lack an undistributed middle term.

193. Q193Logical reasoning and analytical ability

     Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, Asha, Bheem, Chelsi and Deep are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. In row-2, Preet, Qureshi, Raunit and Sana are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. Raunit sits second to left of the person who faces Asha. Sana is an immediate neighbour of Raunit. Only one person sits between Asha and Deep. One of the immediate neighbours of Chelsi faces Qureshi Bheem does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. Who amongst the following faces Bheem?

     • aSanaAnswer
     • bPreet
     • cQureshi
     • dRaunit
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because solving the two-row arrangement places Deep, Bheem, Asha, and Chelsi facing South at positions 1 to 4, directly opposite Raunit, Sana, Qureshi, and Preet facing North, meaning Sana faces Bheem. Option B: Preet sits at the extreme eastern end of row-2 and faces Chelsi. Option C: Qureshi sits at position 3 facing North and directly faces Asha. Option D: Raunit sits at the extreme western end of row-2 and faces Deep.

194. Q194Series, analogy and odd man out

     Identify the wrong fraction in the following series : 2/3 4/7 7/13 12/23 16/31 22/43

     • a7/13
     • b22/43
     • c12/23Answer
     • d16/31
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the numerators increase by +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and the denominators increase by +4, +6, +8, +10, +12, meaning the fourth fraction must be 11/21 rather than 12/23. Numerators: 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, 22 Denominators: 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43 Correct fourth term: 11/21 Given fourth term: 12/23 Option A: 7/13 is correct as it follows 4 + 3 = 7 and 7 + 6 = 13. Option B: 22/43 is correct as it follows 16 + 6 = 22 and 31 + 12 = 43. Option D: 16/31 is correct as it follows 11 + 5 = 16 and 21 + 10 = 31.

195. Q195Series, analogy and odd man out

     What will be the next letter in the following series? Z, X, S, I, R, R, G, ?

     • aM
     • bH
     • cK
     • dIAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because each successive letter is obtained by subtracting consecutive values of n squared plus one from the alphabetical position of the previous letter, wrapping cyclically around the alphabet. Z(26) minus 2 is X(24), where 2 is 1 squared plus 1 X(24) minus 5 is S(19), where 5 is 2 squared plus 1 S(19) minus 10 is I(9), where 10 is 3 squared plus 1 I(9) minus 17 is R(18), where 17 is 4 squared plus 1 R(18) minus 26 is R(18), where 26 is 5 squared plus 1 R(18) minus 37 is G(7), where 37 is 6 squared plus 1 G(7) minus 50 is I(9), where 50 is 7 squared plus 1 Option A: M corresponds to position 13, which does not match the reduction of 50 positions from G. Option B: H corresponds to position 8, which is one step short of the required position 9. Option C: K corresponds to position 11, which does not satisfy the decremental pattern.

196. Q196Series, analogy and odd man out

     What is the term in the place of it in the following series? AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL

     • aHLK
     • bGMJAnswer
     • cFMI
     • dGLJ
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because each letter position follows its own distinct arithmetic progression, yielding GMJ. First letter: A(1) + 1 = B(2), B + 2 = D(4), D + 3 = G(7), G + 4 = K(11) Second letter: Y(25) - 3 = V(22), V - 4 = R(18), R - 5 = M(13), M - 6 = G(7) Third letter: D(4) + 2 = F(6), F + 2 = H(8), H + 2 = J(10), J + 2 = L(12) Option A: HLK incorrectly adds four to D for the first letter and miscalculates the rest. Option C: FMI incorrectly adds two to D instead of three for the first letter. Option D: GLJ incorrectly subtracts six instead of five for the middle letter, arriving at L.

197. Q197Series, analogy and odd man out

     If the letters in the word DOCUMENTATION are rearranged in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters is in the middle in order after rearrangement?

     • aT
     • bM
     • cNAnswer
     • dO
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because sorting all 13 letters of the word alphabetically places N exactly at the 7th position, which is the middle position. Original letters: D, O, C, U, M, E, N, T, A, T, I, O, N Alphabetical order: A, C, D, E, I, M, N, O, O, T, T, U Middle position of 13 letters: (13 + 1) / 2 = 7th letter 7th letter: N Option A: T occupies the 10th and 11th positions in the sorted order. Option B: M occupies the 6th position, just before the middle. Option D: O occupies the 8th and 9th positions, just after the middle.

198. Q198Series, analogy and odd man out

     relationship between the two terms to the left of: and the same relationship holds between the two terms to the right of ::. Find out the missing term in place of '?'. MOUSE : KPSTC :: LIGHT : ?

     • aMJHIU
     • bMGHFU
     • cJGEFR
     • dJJEIRAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the letters follow an alternating transformation of subtracting two, adding one, subtracting two, adding one, and subtracting two positions. L - 2 = J I + 1 = J G - 2 = E H + 1 = I T - 2 = R Option A: The first two letters are shifted incorrectly as M and H instead of J and J. Option B: The pattern of operations is applied inconsistently, giving M instead of J as the initial letter. Option C: The second letter is given as G instead of adding one to I to yield J.

199. Q199Coding, decoding and relations

     Each letter of the alphabet from Z, Y, X.... C, B, A are given values from 1, 2, 3..... 24, 25, 26 respectively. What is the total value (summation of corresponding values) of the word "ANIMALSCIENCE"?

     • a208
     • b108
     • c143
     • d243Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the value of each letter is determined by its position in reverse alphabetical order, and the word value is the sum of these values. Reverse position formula = 27 - standard position A = 26, N = 13, I = 18, M = 14, A = 26, L = 15 S = 8, C = 24, I = 18, E = 22, N = 13, C = 24, E = 22 Total sum = 26 + 13 + 18 + 14 + 26 + 15 + 8 + 24 + 18 + 22 + 13 + 24 + 22 = 243 Option A: 208 is an undercount that misses 35 from the total reverse positional sum. Option B: 108 is close to the forward alphabetical sum rather than the reverse alphabetical sum. Option C: 143 underestimates the total reverse alphabetical sum by 100.

200. Q200Coding, decoding and relations

     If in a code language “R” = 6, “x” = 8 and “PHYSICS” = 33, then what is the value of “PSYCHOLOGY” in the same code language?

     • a47.33
     • b49.33
     • c46.33
     • d48.33Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because the code for any letter or word is obtained by dividing the sum of its standard alphabetical positions by 3. R = 18 / 3 = 6 X = 24 / 3 = 8 PHYSICS sum = 16 + 8 + 25 + 19 + 9 + 3 + 19 = 99, and 99 / 3 = 33 PSYCHOLOGY sum = 16 + 19 + 25 + 3 + 8 + 15 + 12 + 15 + 7 + 25 = 145 145 / 3 = 48.33 Option A: 47.33 results from undercounting the letter positional sum by 3. Option B: 49.33 results from overcounting the letter positional sum by 3. Option C: 46.33 results from undercounting the letter positional sum by 6.