TGPSC Group-I Prelims 2022

247 questions from the 2022 papers, each with the official answer and an explanation.

A question repeated across years is listed once, under one of the years it appeared.

121. Q121India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Which of the following is NOT the peak of Western Ghats?

     • aSalher
     • bKalsubai
     • cPushpagiri
     • dJindhagadaAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Jindhagada is the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, situated in the Araku Valley of Andhra Pradesh, not in the Western Ghats. Option A: Salher is a prominent mountain peak located in the Sahyadri range of Maharashtra. Option B: Kalsubai is situated in the Western Ghats and serves as the highest point in Maharashtra. Option C: Pushpagiri, also known as Kumara Parvatha, is a major mountain peak situated in the Western Ghats of Karnataka.

122. Q122India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Match the important mountain peaks with their location in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands: A. Saddle Peak 1. North Andaman B. Mount Diavolo 2. Middle Andaman C. Mount Koyob 3. South Andaman D. Mount Thuiller 4. Great Nicobar Select the correct answer:

     • aA-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
     • bA-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
     • cA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
     • dA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because all four mountain peaks are accurately matched with their respective island locations across the Andaman and Nicobar chain. Saddle Peak: North Andaman Mount Diavolo: Middle Andaman Mount Koyob: South Andaman Mount Thuiller: Great Nicobar Option A: It incorrectly assigns Saddle Peak to Middle Andaman and Mount Thuiller to South Andaman. Option B: It places Saddle Peak in Great Nicobar and Mount Thuiller in North Andaman, reversing their positions. Option C: It misplaces Mount Diavolo in North Andaman and Mount Koyob in Great Nicobar.

123. Q123India: physiography, drainage and climate

     Consider the following statements : A. The southward shift of counter equatorial warm ocean current during southern winters give rise to El Nino current. B. El Nino phenomena increases temperature of East Pacific Ocean off Peruvian coast. C. El Nino brings heavy rainfall to coastal Peru. D. South-west monsoons in India weaken when El Nino phenomena takes place. Choose the correct statements:

     • aA, B, C & DAnswer
     • bA & B only
     • cB & C only
     • dA, B & C only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because all four statements are scientifically accurate: El Niño involves the southward intrusion of warm counter-equatorial waters along Peru, raises eastern Pacific sea surface temperatures, causes torrential rains in normally arid coastal Peru, and frequently disrupts the southwest monsoon in India. Option B: Incorrectly omits statements C and D, which are standard established effects of El Niño. Option C: Incorrectly excludes statement A regarding the oceanographic origin of the current and statement D regarding the impact on India. Option D: Incorrectly omits statement D, despite the well-documented association between El Niño events and monsoon deficits in India.

124. Q124Natural resources and their distribution

     Match the following Mines of India with their respective Mineral production: Mine Mineral A. Kodingamali, Odisha 1. Copper B. Malanjkhand, 2. Iron Madhya Pradesh C. Kunderkocha, Jharkhand 3. Bauxite D. Bailadila, Chhattisgarh 4. Gold 5. Lead & Zinc Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-2; B-5; C-1; D-3
     • bA-3; B-1; C-4; D-2Answer
     • cA-4; B-3; C-5; D-2
     • dA-5; B-4; C-2; D-3
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because it accurately pairs each mine with its primary mineral deposit based on India's mineral map. Kodingamali, Odisha produces Bauxite Malanjkhand, Madhya Pradesh produces Copper Kunderkocha, Jharkhand produces Gold Bailadila, Chhattisgarh produces Iron Option A: Incorrectly associates Kodingamali with iron, Malanjkhand with lead and zinc, and Kunderkocha with copper. Option C: Incorrectly pairs Kodingamali with gold and Bailadila with iron while mismatching Malanjkhand with bauxite. Option D: Mismatches all the mineral pairs, incorrectly assigning lead and zinc to Kodingamali and gold to Malanjkhand.

125. Q125Natural resources and their distribution

     Match the following Indian mines with the minerals they produce: A. Kodingamali, Odisha 1. Copper B. Malanjkhand, Madhya Pradesh 2. Jute C. Kundar Koch, Jharkhand 3. Bauxite D. Bailadila, Chhattisgarh 4. Gold 5. Lead, Tin Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-2; B-5; C-1, D-3
     • bA-3; B-1; C-4, D-2Answer
     • cA-4; B-3; C-5, D-2
     • dA-5; B-4; C-2, D-3

     Explanation coming soon.

126. Q126Agricultural geography: crops and their regions

     The dried aromatic roots of which of the following crops are used in the manufacture of items like mats, curtains, and fans?

     • aVetiverAnswer
     • bTurmeric
     • cNeem
     • dGrass from bamboo
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because vetiver, commonly known as khus, has fibrous and fragrant roots that are dried and woven into cooling mats, window screens, and handheld fans. Option B: Turmeric is cultivated for its rhizomes, which are ground for spice, medicine, and dye rather than woven into aromatic mats. Option C: Neem is valued for its medicinal bark, leaves, and oil-bearing seeds, not fragrant woven roots. Option D: Grass from bamboo refers to culms and stems used in structural basketry and furniture, not fragrant roots used for cooling screens.

127. Q127Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     Which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Polar Code'?

     • aInternational rules and regulations established for the safety of ships navigating in polar watersAnswer
     • bAn agreement made by countries in the North Pole region for the identification of their borders in the polar region
     • cRules and regulations to be followed by countries whose scientists conduct research and studies in the North and South Poles
     • dA trade and security agreement concluded by the member states of the Arctic Council
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Polar Code is the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, adopted by the International Maritime Organization to mandate safety and environmental standards for vessels navigating Arctic and Antarctic waters. Option B: It is not a boundary delimitation treaty between Arctic countries. Option C: It governs commercial and passenger shipping safety and pollution, rather than scientific expedition conduct. Option D: It is an IMO regulatory framework, not a trade agreement negotiated by the Arctic Council.

128. Q128Transport, communication, trade and tourism

     Which of the following are National Waterways in India.? A. Haldia to Allahabad on river Ganga. B. Geonkhali Charbatia stretch of East Coast Canal C. Dhubri to Sadiya on river Brahmaputra. D. West Coast Canal from Kottapuram to Kollam. Choose the correct answer :

     • aA, B, C & DAnswer
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B & D only
     • dC & D only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because all four listed river and canal stretches are officially designated as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act. NW 1: Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly stretch from Prayagraj to Haldia NW 2: Brahmaputra River stretch from Dhubri to Sadiya NW 3: West Coast Canal stretch from Kottapuram to Kollam NW 5: East Coast Canal stretch from Geonkhali to Charbatia Option B: It omits statement D, which is National Waterway 3 in Kerala. Option C: It omits statement B, which constitutes part of National Waterway 5. Option D: It excludes statements A and B, which are National Waterway 1 and National Waterway 5 respectively.

129. Q129Population, settlement and human geography

     Consider the following statements regarding the literacy rate in India: A. When India gained independence in 1947, the literacy rate was 12%. B. According to the 2011 census, India's literacy rate was 76%. C. According to the 2011 census, the youth literacy rate was 9% higher compared to the adult literacy rate. D. According to the 2011 census, the literacy rate among males was more than 80%. E. According to the 2011 census, the literacy rate among females was 65.46%. Choose the correct answer:

     • aB, D & E only
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B, C & D only
     • dA, C, D & E onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because statements A, C, D, and E are factually accurate, whereas statement B is incorrect regarding the overall literacy rate. Statement A: 12% literacy in 1947 Statement B: 74.04% literacy in Census 2011, not 76% Statement C: Youth literacy exceeded adult literacy by about 9% Statement D: Male literacy was 82.14%, which is over 80% Statement E: Female literacy was 65.46% Option A: It includes statement B, which wrongly states India's 2011 literacy rate as 76%. Option B: It includes statement B and omits the correct statements D and E. Option C: It incorrectly includes statement B among the valid statements.

130. Q130Population, settlement and human geography

     Consider the following in relation to the literacy rate in India : A. Literacy rate of India at the time of independence in 1947 was 12%. B. As per the 2011 Census the literacy rate in India was 76%. C. Compared to the adult literacy rate, youth literacy rate was about 9% higher as per 2011 Census. D. As per the 2011 Census, literacy rate among males was over 80%. E. As per the 2011 Census, literacy rate among females was 65.46%. Choose the correct answer :

     • aB, D, & E only
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B, C & D only
     • dA, C, D & E onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because statements A, C, D, and E are historically and statistically accurate, whereas statement B states the wrong national literacy rate. Statement A: Literacy at independence in 1947 was approximately 12% Statement B: 2011 Census recorded 74.04% literacy, not 76% Statement C: Youth literacy was roughly 9% higher than adult literacy Statement D: Male literacy stood at 82.14%, which is more than 80% Statement E: Female literacy stood at 65.46% Option A: It includes the incorrect statement B and omits statement A. Option B: It includes statement B and leaves out valid statements D and E. Option C: It erroneously retains statement B in the selected combination.

131. Q131Natural hazards, disasters and their management

     Arrange the following States based on highest to lowest death toll recorded on account of Thunderstorms and Lightening events in 2021: A. Bihar B. Madhya Pradesh C. Odisha D. West Bengal E. Rajasthan Choose the correct answer

     • aA, E, C, B, DAnswer
     • bB, A, D, E, C
     • cC, B, A, D, E
     • dD, B, C, E, A

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

132. Q132STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     The Gandikota gorge in South India was formed by which of the following rivers?

     • a1) Kaveri
     • b2) Manjeera
     • c3) PennaAnswer
     • d4) Tungabhadra
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Penna River cuts through the Erramala Hills to carve out the picturesque, deep gorge at Gandikota in the YSR Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. Option A: Kaveri flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and does not pass through the Gandikota region. Option B: Manjeera is a tributary of the Godavari River flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana. Option D: Tungabhadra flows to the north of this region and joins the Krishna River without carving the Gandikota gorge.

133. Q133STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     "Gandhari Vanam" got renovated recently under Telanganaku Haritha Haram Programme and developed into a tourist attraction. Where is it located?

     • aGangadhara Mandal, Karimnagar District
     • bChintamanipatnam, Tandur Mandal of Vikarabad District
     • cKeesara Mandal, Medchal-Malkajgiri District
     • dBokkalagutta, Mandamarri Mandal, Manchiryal DistrictAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Gandhari Vanam is an urban forest park and eco-tourism center developed at Bokkalagutta in Mandamarri Mandal of Mancherial district. Option A: Gangadhara Mandal in Karimnagar does not host Gandhari Vanam. Option B: Tandur Mandal in Vikarabad is known for limestone reserves and Kotepally reservoir, not Gandhari Vanam. Option C: Keesara Mandal in Medchal-Malkajgiri is famous for the Keesaragutta temple and forest park, not Gandhari Vanam.

134. Q134STATE GEOGRAPHY: the ground both states stand on

     In which of the following areas did Salwajudum build a tourist center? A. Tadkonda B. Papavaram C. Golukonda D. Vemulakonda Choose the correct answer:

     • aA & C only
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B & D onlyAnswer
     • dB, C & D only

     Explanation coming soon.

135. Q135TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

     Match the following Medium Irrigation Projects of Telangana with their locations: Project Location A. Boggulavagu 1. Dharpalli Mandal, Nizamabad Dist. B. Gollavagu 2. Pennballi Mandal, Khammam Dist. C. Lankasagar 3. Malhar Rao Mandal, Jayashankar-Bhupalapalli Dist. D. Ramadugu 4. Kotepalli Mandal, Vikarabad Dist. 5. Bheemaram Mandal, Manchiryal Dist. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3; B-5; C-2; D-1
     • bA-4; B-2; C-5; D-3Answer
     • cA-2; B-4; C-5; D-1
     • dA-5; B-3; C-4; D-2

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

136. Q136TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

     Consider the following in relation to Kaleshwaram Project: A. Construction of one barrage across river. Godavari at Medigadda. B. Construction of two barrages between Medigadda and Sripada Yellampally project at Annaram and Sundilla. C. Construction of one barrage on river Manjeera at Papannapet. D. Kaleshwaram stabilizes the exisiting ayacut under SRSP Stage I & II. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B, C & D
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B & D onlyAnswer
     • dA, C & D only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project includes the Medigadda, Annaram, and Sundilla barrages on the Godavari to lift water and stabilizes the existing ayacut under the Sriram Sagar Project (SRSP) Stages I and II, while it does not involve a barrage on the Manjeera at Papannapet. Option A: Incorrect because statement C is false, as no barrage was built across the Manjeera river at Papannapet under this project. Option B: Incorrect because statement D is also a correct feature of the project. Option D: Incorrect because statement B is true while statement C is false.

137. Q137TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

     Match the following medium irrigation projects in Telangana with their locations: Project Location A. Bhoggula Vagu 1. Dharapally Mandal, Nizamabad District B. Golla Vagu 2. Pebbair Mandal, Khammam District C. Lankasagar 3. Malhar Rao Mandal, Jayashankar-Bhupalpally District D. Rayaduga 4. Kotipally Mandal, Vikarabad District 5. Bheemaram Mandal, Mancherial District Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3; B-5; C-2, D-1Answer
     • bA-4; B-2; C-5, D-3
     • cA-2; B-4; C-5, D-1
     • dA-5; B-3; C-4, D-2
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Bhoggula Vagu project is situated in Malhar Rao mandal of Jayashankar-Bhupalpally district (A-3), Golla Vagu project is in Bheemaram mandal of Mancherial district (B-5), Lankasagar is in Penuballi/Pebbair mandal of Khammam district (C-2), and Rayaduga project is located in Dharapally mandal of Nizamabad district (D-1). Option B: Incorrectly places Bhoggula Vagu in Vikarabad and Golla Vagu in Khammam. Option C: Incorrectly places Bhoggula Vagu in Khammam and Golla Vagu in Vikarabad. Option D: Incorrectly assigns Bhoggula Vagu to Mancherial and Golla Vagu to Jayashankar-Bhupalpally.

138. Q138TELANGANA ONLY: the plateau state

     Which of the following districts of Telangana has the border with Karnataka? A. Vikarabad B. Narayanpet C. Medak D. Jogulamba-Gadwal Choose the correct answer:

     • aA,B,C&D
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, C & D only
     • dA, B & D onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because Vikarabad, Narayanpet, and Jogulamba-Gadwal share an interstate boundary with Karnataka, while Medak is a landlocked interior district of Telangana. Option A: Incorrect because Medak does not border Karnataka or any other state. Option B: Incorrect because Jogulamba-Gadwal also shares a border with Karnataka. Option C: Incorrect because Medak is included, which is purely an interior district.

139. Q139Ecology and ecosystems

     Which of the following are considered as the major coral reef areas of India? A. Gulf of Mannar B. Gulf of Trombe C. Lakshadweep D. Gulf of Kachchh Choose the correct answer:

     • aB, C & D only
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B&D only
     • dA, C & D onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because India has four major coral reef regions: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Gulf of Mannar, and Gulf of Kachchh. Major coral reef areas of India: Gulf of Mannar Lakshadweep Gulf of Kachchh Andaman and Nicobar Islands Option A: It includes Gulf of Trombe, which is not a recognized coral reef area, and leaves out Gulf of Mannar. Option B: It mistakenly includes Gulf of Trombe and leaves out Gulf of Kachchh. Option C: It incorrectly includes Gulf of Trombe instead of Lakshadweep.

140. Q140Climate change: policy and response

     Consider the following statements : A. One of the causes of Global warming is greenhouse effect.. B. The atmosphere absorbs part of the long wave infra-red radiation emitted by the earth. C. The gases that absorbs long wave terrestrial radiation are called as greenhouse gases. D. Carbon dioxide and Nitrous oxide are greenhouse producing gases. Choose the correct statements:

     • aA,B,C&DAnswer
     • bA & B only
     • cA & C only
     • dA, B & C only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because all four statements accurately describe the greenhouse phenomenon: it drives global warming by absorbing Earth's outgoing terrestrial longwave infrared radiation through gases like carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide. Option B: It ignores statements C and D, both of which contain scientifically valid definitions and examples. Option C: It ignores statements B and D, which correctly state how terrestrial radiation is absorbed by atmospheric gases. Option D: It omits statement D, which correctly lists carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide as key greenhouse gases.

141. Q141Climate change: policy and response

     "Talanoa Dialogue" is related to :

     • aThe WHO talks on finding origins of Covid-19 pandemic
     • bThe UN talks on debt relief to the Least Developed Countries
     • cThe UN Climate Change TalksAnswer
     • dThe G-20 countries talks on technology transfer
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Talanoa Dialogue was established under the UNFCCC at COP23 in 2017 to facilitate an inclusive, participatory, and transparent dialogue among nations to take stock of collective efforts toward the Paris Agreement goals. Option A: Relates the dialogue to the World Health Organization and investigations into the COVID-19 pandemic, which is inaccurate. Option B: Misidentifies the dialogue as a United Nations negotiation on sovereign debt restructuring for Least Developed Countries. Option D: Confuses climate negotiations with G-20 deliberations on technological cooperation and transfer.

142. Q142Waste management

     In relation to which of the following does the mention of 'Biorock' technologies come?

     • aRestoration of damaged coral reefsAnswer
     • bDevelopment of construction materials using bio-waste
     • cIssues related to shale gas exploration and extraction sectors
     • dEstablishment of salt licks for wildlife in forests and protected areas
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Biorock technology, also called mineral accretion technology, applies low-voltage electrical currents through seawater to cause calcium carbonate to precipitate on steel structures, which rapidly accelerates the growth, survival, and restoration of damaged coral reefs. Option B: Development of construction materials from bio-waste refers to agro-waste composite manufacturing, which is unrelated to electrochemical accretion in oceans. Option C: Shale gas exploration involves hydraulic fracturing and horizontal drilling, which do not involve Biorock processes. Option D: Salt licks for wildlife are natural mineral deposits or human-placed mineral blocks on land to supply essential nutrients to herbivores.

143. Q143Waste management

     M.T. Kharagpur manufactured eco-friendly food packaging materials from which of the following?

     • aCow dung
     • bBanana peels
     • cBanana stem
     • dCucumber peelsAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kharagpur developed an eco-friendly, biodegradable food packaging material using cucumber peels, which have high cellulose content. Option A: Cow dung is used in bio-composites and biogas production, not the food packaging material developed by IIT Kharagpur. Option B: Banana peels were not the raw material used in this specific IIT Kharagpur packaging breakthrough. Option C: Banana stem fibers are utilized in conventional handicrafts and textiles, not this specific packaging research.

144. Q144Environment and health

     Match the following Corona Virus variants with their originating country: Variant Country of Origin A. Alpha 1. Brazil B. Beta 2. United States C. Delta 3. United Kingdom D. Gamma 4. India 5. South Africa Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-5; B-4; C-2; D-3
     • bA-3; B-5; C-4; D-1Answer
     • cA-2; B-3; C-4; D-5
     • dA-5; B-4; C-1; D-2
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the World Health Organization labeled the major SARS-CoV-2 variants using Greek letters corresponding to their initial detection locations. Alpha: United Kingdom Beta: South Africa Delta: India Gamma: Brazil Option A: It incorrectly pairs Alpha with South Africa and Beta with India. Option C: It incorrectly pairs Alpha with the United States and Beta with the United Kingdom. Option D: It incorrectly pairs Alpha with South Africa and Gamma with Brazil under an invalid sequence.

145. Q145Environment and health

     Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission program. A. Private and government hospitals must compulsorily implement this. B. Since efforts are being made to achieve universal health protection through this, every citizen must be a part of it. C. There is a possibility of implementing this nationwide without any obstacles. Which of the above statements are correct?

     • aA, B
     • bC onlyAnswer
     • cA, C
     • dA, B, C
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because participation in the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is voluntary for both citizens and healthcare facilities, while the mission provides seamless, nationwide interoperability and portability. Option A: Statement A is incorrect because adoption is not compulsory for private or public hospitals, and Statement B is incorrect because citizen enrollment is purely voluntary. Option C: Statement A is incorrect because hospitals are not statutorily mandated to participate in the digital mission. Option D: Statements A and B are both incorrect due to the entirely voluntary nature of the program for individuals and institutions.

146. Q146Structure of Indian society

     Which of the following are part of the Gond Tribe ? A. Raj Gonds B. Madia Gonds C. Bhonsla Gonds D. Khatulwar Gonds Choose the correct answer:

     • aB, C & D only
     • bA, B & C only
     • cA, B & D onlyAnswer
     • dA, C & D only
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because the Gond tribe consists of major sub-groups such as Raj Gonds, Madia Gonds, Dhurve Gonds, and Khatulwar Gonds, whereas Bhonsla was a Maratha dynasty, not a sub-group of Gonds. Option A: It excludes Raj Gonds, who are the foremost and ruling lineage among the Gonds, and incorrectly includes Bhonsla. Option B: It incorrectly includes Bhonsla Gonds as a sub-group of the tribe. Option D: It incorrectly includes Bhonsla while omitting Madia Gonds.

147. Q147Social issues

     Consider the following statements regarding inclusive policies for older persons: A. Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) provides physical aids and assisted living devices to senior citizens. B. SACRED portal was launched for the reemployment in dignity for the senior citizens. C. The Government provides financial assistance directly to the senior citizens through an open invitation on Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE). D. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) in open to all citizens of India between 18-40 years of age and administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, C & D are only correct.
     • bA, B, C & D are correct.
     • cA, B & D are only correct.Answer
     • dB, C & D are only correct.
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because statements A, B, and D are accurate, whereas statement C is incorrect since the Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) portal provides equity support to startups developing elderly care products and services, not direct financial assistance to individual senior citizens. Option A: Excludes statement B, which is entirely correct regarding the SACRED portal, and wrongly includes statement C. Option B: Includes statement C, which incorrectly describes the purpose and beneficiaries of the SAGE portal. Option D: Omits statement A, which accurately details the provisions of the Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana.

148. Q148Welfare mechanism

     Which of the following projects aims at improving dietary diversity among tribal children and women?

     • aGiri Samatha
     • bGiri Arogyam
     • cGiri PoshanaAnswer
     • dGiri Bhojanam
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Giri Poshana was launched as a targeted nutritional intervention program designed to combat malnutrition and enhance dietary diversity among tribal pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children. Option A: Giri Samatha is incorrect because it relates to gender equity and legal protection initiatives rather than dietary interventions. Option B: Giri Arogyam is incorrect because it focuses on general healthcare services, telemedicine, and mobile clinics rather than specialized dietary diversity. Option D: Giri Bhojanam is incorrect because no such dedicated dietary diversity project was initiated under this title.

149. Q149Welfare mechanism

     Which of the following projects is intended to improve tribal children and tribal affairs students?

     • aGiri Samatha
     • bGiri Arogyam
     • cGiri PoshanAnswer
     • dGiri Bhojanam
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Giri Poshan was introduced to address severe malnutrition and promote growth and wellbeing among tribal children, pregnant women, and students through customized, nutrient-rich local diets. Option A: Giri Samatha is incorrect because it is directed toward legal aid, land rights, and safeguarding tribal women against exploitation. Option B: Giri Arogyam is incorrect because it targets primary healthcare delivery, screening, and treatment rather than child nutrition interventions. Option D: Giri Bhojanam is incorrect because it is not an officially recognized standalone scheme for tribal affairs students and children.

150. Q150Welfare mechanism

     Which of the following Prime Ministers appointed Mandal Commission and taken decision to implement its report ?

     • aIndira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi
     • bChandra Sekhar and Deve Gowda
     • cMorarji Desai and Viswanath Pratap SinghAnswer
     • dIndira Gandhi and Viswanath Pratap Singh
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because Prime Minister Morarji Desai appointed the Mandal Commission in 1978-1979, and Prime Minister V.P. Singh took the decision to implement its recommendation of 27% job reservation in August 1990. Appointment of Mandal Commission: Morarji Desai, 1978-1979 Implementation of Mandal Commission report: Viswanath Pratap Singh, 1990 Option A: Indira Gandhi did not appoint the commission, and Rajiv Gandhi led the parliamentary opposition against its immediate implementation in 1990. Option B: Chandra Shekhar became Prime Minister after the decision was already made by V.P. Singh, and Deve Gowda took office in 1996. Option D: Indira Gandhi did not appoint the commission, as it was instituted by the preceding Janata Party government under Morarji Desai.

151. Q151STATE SOCIETY: the society the two states actually have

     Who among the following are part of the Gond tribe? A. Raj Gonds B. Madiya Gonds C. Dhorla Gonds D. Bhatular Gonds Choose the correct answer:

     • aB, C & D only
     • bA, B & C onlyAnswer
     • cA, B & D only
     • dA, C & D only
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because Raj Gonds, Madiya Gonds, and Dhorla Gonds are well-documented historical sub-groups of the larger Gond tribe, whereas Bhatular is not a Gond division. Option A: It omits Raj Gonds, which is the principal ruling and landholding division of the tribe. Option C: It includes Bhatular Gonds, which is not a recognized Gond group, and excludes Dhorla Gonds. Option D: It includes Bhatular Gonds while excluding Madiya Gonds.

152. Q152STATE SOCIETY: the society the two states actually have

     Match the following: Place A. Karimnagar B. Pochampally C. Pembarthi D. Nirmal Craft/Industry 1. Painting 2. Metal Craft 3. Ikat 4. Silver Filigree 5. Carpets Choose the correct option:

     • aA-4, B-3, C-2, D-1Answer
     • bA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
     • cA-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
     • dA-2, B-1, C-3, D-5
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because Karimnagar is famous for Silver Filigree work, Pochampally is renowned for Ikat weaving, Pembarthi is known for brass and sheet metal craft, and Nirmal is famous for traditional paintings and toys. Karimnagar: Silver Filigree (4) Pochampally: Ikat (3) Pembarthi: Metal Craft (2) Nirmal: Painting (1) Option B: It incorrectly matches Karimnagar to Painting and Pochampally to Metal Craft. Option C: It incorrectly pairs Nirmal with Carpets and Karimnagar with Painting. Option D: It assigns Karimnagar to Metal Craft and Pochampally to Painting.

153. Q153STATE SOCIETY: the society the two states actually have

     The Social Innovation Policy of Telangana is driven by which of the following?

     • aCollaborate, Innovate and TransformAnswer
     • bEmpathise, Inclusive and Empower
     • cInnovate, Produce and Market
     • dEducate, Innovate and Enterprise

     Official answer shown. The explanation is under review.

154. Q154Science, technology and society

     In some cities, Voluntary Standards (Indian Standards) have been established based on the International Codex Alimentarius. What are they?

     • aStandard Weights, Measures Act
     • bBureau of Indian Standards %d% AgmarkAnswer
     • cFruit Products Order
     • dMeats & Meats Products Order
     ›Explanation

     Option B is correct because the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) and the Agmark certification scheme operate voluntary food quality and safety standards in India that are aligned with Codex Alimentarius guidelines. Option A: The Standards of Weights and Measures Act deals with statutory measurements and legal metrology, not food standards based on Codex. Option C: The Fruit Products Order was a mandatory regulatory order under the Essential Commodities Act, not a voluntary Codex-aligned standard. Option D: The Meat Food Products Order was also a mandatory statutory order regulating hygienic processing, not a voluntary standard.

155. Q155Science, technology and society

     Match the following: Plant Use A. Ashwagandha 1. Medicine for blood pressure B. Sarpagandha 2. Medicine for jaundice C. Nela Usiri 3. Medicine for nervous weakness D. Brahmi 4. Medicine for stomach ache 5. Enhancing memory Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3; B-1; C-2, D-4
     • bA-1; B-2; C-3, D-4
     • cA-3; B-1; C-2, D-5Answer
     • dA-5; B-4; C-2, D-3
     ›Explanation

     Option C is correct because it correctly matches each medicinal plant with its established therapeutic application. Ashwagandha is used to treat nervous weakness and vitality loss. Sarpagandha contains reserpine used for treating high blood pressure. Nela Usiri is traditionally used in treating liver conditions including jaundice. Brahmi is widely recognized as a medhya rasayana for enhancing memory. Option A: incorrectly matches Brahmi with stomach ache instead of memory enhancement. Option B: incorrectly pairs Ashwagandha with blood pressure and Sarpagandha with jaundice. Option D: incorrectly matches Ashwagandha with memory enhancement and Brahmi with nervous weakness.

156. Q156Space technology

     Consider the following with respect to PSLV-C53: A. It was launched from the second launch pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) on June 30, 2022. B. It is a full-fledged commercial mission undertaken by Antrix Corporation. C. This launch vehicle carried three satellites from Singapore named DS-EO, NeuSAR, and Scoob-1. Choose the correct answer:

     • aA, B & C
     • bA & B only
     • cB & C only
     • dA & C onlyAnswer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because statements A and C are factually accurate, while statement B is false because PSLV-C53 was a dedicated commercial mission executed by NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), not Antrix Corporation. Launch date: June 30, 2022 Launch site: Second Launch Pad, SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota Commercial arm responsible: NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) Primary payloads: DS-EO, NeuSAR, and SCOOB-I (all from Singapore) Option A: It incorrectly accepts statement B, which names Antrix Corporation instead of NSIL. Option B: It mistakenly includes incorrect statement B and omits the correct statement C. Option C: It mistakenly includes the false statement B.

157. Q157Defence technology

     To which field does 'eVTOL technology' belong?

     • aAviationAnswer
     • bBiofuel production
     • cManufacturing of semiconductors
     • dMicrobiology
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because eVTOL stands for Electric Vertical Takeoff and Landing, an advanced technology in the aviation sector designed for urban air mobility and next-generation air transport. Option B: Biofuel production deals with refining plant biomass into combustible fuel, not vertical takeoff aircraft. Option C: Manufacturing of semiconductors relates to microelectronics and silicon wafer fabrication. Option D: Microbiology is a biological science branch studying microscopic organisms.

158. Q158Information and communication technology

     Match the key-boards with their layouts : Type of Key-Board Layout A. QWERTY 1. Vowels on left hand side and most used consonants on right hand side B. Dvorak 2. Letters arranged in square patterns C. Dextr 3. Letters start with Q, W, E, R, T, and so on D. KALQ 4. Optimized for thumbTyping 5. Keys in alphabetical order Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2.
     • bA-3, B-4, C-2, D-5.
     • cA-3, B-2, C-5, D-1
     • dA-3, B-1, C-5, D-4Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because it accurately matches each keyboard layout to its primary structural characteristic. QWERTY begins with the letters Q, W, E, R, T, and Y on the top letter row Dvorak places vowels on the left side of the home row and common consonants on the right Dextr arranges keys strictly in alphabetical order KALQ is a split layout engineered specifically for rapid thumb typing on touchscreen devices Option A: It incorrectly pairs Dvorak with thumb typing and Dextr with vowels on the left. Option B: It mistakenly attributes thumb typing to Dvorak and square patterns to Dextr. Option C: It incorrectly matches Dvorak to square patterns and KALQ to vowels on the left.

159. Q159Information and communication technology

     Which of the following organizations set the standards and naming rules to be adopted on the internet? A. The Internet Society B. International Organization for Internet Standards (IOIS) C. American Association for Internet Protocols D. The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names & Numbers (ICANN) Choose the correct answer :

     • aA & D onlyAnswer
     • bA, C & D only
     • cA, B & C only
     • dB & D only
     ›Explanation

     Option A is correct because the Internet Society promotes open development and standards through bodies like the IETF, while ICANN coordinates the maintenance and naming procedures of namespaces and numerical spaces across the internet. Option B: It incorrectly includes the American Association for Internet Protocols, which is an invented entity. Option C: It relies on fictitious organizations while omitting ICANN, the primary domain naming authority. Option D: It incorporates the non-existent International Organization for Internet Standards instead of the Internet Society.

160. Q160Information and communication technology

     Match the keyboard types with their layouts. Keyboard Type Layout A. QWERTY 1. Vowels on the left hand side, frequently used consonants on the right hand side B. Dvorak 2. Letters arranged for word formation C. Decter 3. Letters starting with Q, W, E, R, T D. KALQ 4. Optimized for one-handed typing 5. Keys arranged in alphabetical order Choose the correct answer:

     • aA-3; B-4; C-1, D-2
     • bA-3; B-4; C-2, D-5
     • cA-3; B-2; C-5, D-1
     • dA-3; B-1; C-5, D-4Answer
     ›Explanation

     Option D is correct because QWERTY is named after its top row letter order (3), Dvorak places vowels on the left home row and common consonants on the right (1), Decter organizes keys strictly in alphabetical order (5), and KALQ is an ergonomic layout designed for specialized typing (4). Option A: It incorrectly pairs Dvorak with layout 4 and Decter with layout 1. Option B: It misidentifies Dvorak as layout 4 and KALQ as the alphabetical layout 5. Option C: It incorrectly attributes the word-formation layout 2 to Dvorak and layout 1 to KALQ.